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Question 1:

Which statements about QinQ are true? (Choose two.)

A. QinQ saves VLANs on the public network.

B. To avoid VLAN conflict, the customer must negotiate with the service provider before modifying the VLANs on its private network.

C. When the service provider upgrades the network, the configurations on the user network do not need to be modified.

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: AC


Question 2:

Which statement about port isolation configuration is false?

A. Port isolation can be used for Layer 2 isolation.

B. In port isolation mode, ports are isolated at Layer 2 but can communicate at Layer 3 by default.

C. Before the port isolation function takes effect on an interface, the port isolation function must be enabled first.

D. The port-isolate enable command can run in the system view.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which statements about MUX VLAN are true? (Choose two.)

A. MUX VLAN contains a principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs. The principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs cannot communicate.

B. MUX VLAN contains a principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs. The subordinate VLANs are classified into subordinate separate VLANs and subordinate group VLANs. The interfaces in the subordinate group VLAN can communicate with each other.

C. The principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs can communicate.

D. The interfaces of different subordinate separate VLANs can communicate with each other, but cannot communicate with the interfaces in the principal VLAN.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

As shown in the figure, when the link between SWC and LAND is faulty, through which path are TCA BPDUs sent?

A. From SWA to SWB

B. From SWB to SWC

C. From SWB to SWA

D. From SWC to SWB

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Two switches are directly connected to each other and they are working in full duplex mode. By default, RSTP will consider the link between the switches as point-to-point link.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

On the RSTP network with STP devices, which packets does an RSTP switch use to notify the STP switches of the topology change?

A. RSTP BPDUs with the TC flag

B. STP BPDUs with the TCN flag

C. RSTP BPDUs with the TCA flag

D. STP BPDUs with the TCA flag

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

If the customer requires high mobility and easy management, the staff of different departments can be added to different VLANs. In addition, these VLANs are located on different IP subnets. Which VLAN allocation mode can meet these requirements?

A. VLAN allocation based on source IP addresses

B. VLAN allocation based on destination IP addresses

C. VLAN allocation based on source IP addresses and source MAC addresses

D. VLAN allocation based on destination MAC addresses and destination IP addresses

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which statement about the trunk interface is true?

A. A trunk interface is always connected to hosts.

B. “multiple” VLAN IDs can be set on a trunk interface. The VLAN IDs can be the same as or different from the PVID.

C. The trunk interface cannot have a PVID.

D. If the trunk interface receives a packet with a VLAN not in the allowed VLAN list, the trunk interface broadcast the packet in the VLAN.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

In RSTP, the port status can be discarding and learning. Which statements about the port status are true? (Choose two.)

A. The port in discarding or learning state does not forward data frames.

B. The port in discarding state does not learn MAC addresses.

C. The port in learning state does not learn MAC addresses.

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

Which statements about VLAN aggregation are true? (Choose three.)

A. “multiple” VLANs (broadcast domains) are on the same physical network; therefore, different VLANs belong to the same subnet.

B. VLAN aggregation can save IP addresses.

C. Only the super VLAN requires an IP address, but sub-VLANs do not need.

D. The VLAN that is used to separate broadcast domains is called super VLAN.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 11:

Which statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. The routing ARP proxy allows the hosts on different physical networks of the same network segment to communicate with each other.

B. The intra-VLAN ARP proxy allows isolated users on a VLAN to communicate with each other.

C. The inter-VLAN ARP proxy allows hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other through Layer 3.

D. The inter-VLAN ARP proxy function can\’t be enabled on the VLANIF interface of the super VLAN to implement communication between sub-VLANs.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 12:

A switching network has been enabled with STP protocol. To provide fast access speed to the file server for most of the users, the switch that is directly connected with file server is configured as the root bridge.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

The STP protocol cannot prevent MAC address table flapping caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which of the following statements about STP is not true?

A. STP can manage redundant links.

B. STP can block redundant links to eliminate loops

C. STP can prevent temporary loss of connectivity

D. STP can make LAN switch operate normally in a network with loops

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

RSTP defines different ports compared with STP. Which of the following ports cannot work in forwarding state? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Root Port

B. Designated Port

C. Backup Port

D. Alternate Port

Correct Answer: CD


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Question 1:

Exhibit:

You work for service provider B that wants to implement a hot potato routing policy on the network so that router C uses link C-A to reach service provider A\’s advertised routes and router D uses link D- B to reach Service Provider A\’s advertised routes Currently traffic from router C is traversing the core to exit the network on router B . Referring to the exhibit, what are two design actions that would satisfy the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Implement BGP-ORR

B. Configure new IBGP neighbors between routers C and A and routers D and B

C. Implement BGP-LS

D. Configure the route reflector to send multiple copies of a route learned from different IBGP peers to its clients.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

Your customer is paying for traffic prioritization and you must ensure that all traffic from their 172.27.

10.0/24 network receives top priority through your network.

Which action will satisfy this requirement?

A. Apply a behavior aggregate classifier to the egress interface.

B. Apply a custom rewrite rule to the ingress interface.

C. Apply a multifield classifier to the ingress interfaces.

D. Apply a custom scheduler map to the ingress interface.

Correct Answer: C

We would need MF to match the address and set the forwarding class.


Question 3:

Your WAN links are on a VPLS service from a single service provider. You must verify device configuration power and status in the event of a service outage. Which two actions provide out-of-band management to your edge routers? (Choose two)

A. Place management traffic on a separate VLAN on the VPLS service

B. Connect each Ethernet management interface to a dedicated switch with traffic routed on its own subnet on the VPLS service

C. Connect each Ethernet management interface to a dedicated switch with its own WAN connection.

D. Connect each serial management port to a console server with a cellular Internet connection

Correct Answer: CD

https://www.wti.com/t-remote-console-and-power-management-for-juniper-switches-and- routers.aspx


Question 4:

Exhibit: Which routing protocol design will accomplish these goals?

A. Enable a full mesh of IBGP sessions between the routers in ISP B.

B. Redistribute the BGP routes learned from ISP A into the OSPF instance running in ISP B.

C. Configure static routes to ISP A on each router within ISP B.

D. Configure each router in ISP B to peer with a par of route reflectors.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which security implementation does Juniper Networks recommend for all core routers in a service provider network?

A. intrusion and detection prevention

B. unified threat management

C. application firewall

D. stateless loopback firewall filter

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What are three components of a class-of-service scheduler? (Choose three.)

A. transmit rate

B. forwarding class

C. queue priority

D. delay buffer size

E. policing rate

Correct Answer: ACD

Junos OS schedulers allow you to define the priority, bandwidth, delay buffer size, rate control status, and RED drop profiles to be applied to a particular queue for packet transmission


Question 7:

You are designing a multi-site data center environment with data center interconnects between sites. Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two. )

A. VPLS can be used to interconnect the multiple sites.

B. EVPN with VXLAN can be used to interconnect the multiple sites.

C. The data centers must be connected with a full mesh design.

D. All data centers must be in the same Layer 2 broadcast domain and subnet.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Your customer\’s WAN edge connects to two service providers SP-A and SP-B. The customer is advertising a single /22 subnet to both service providers through EBGP peering sessions. The customer wants to influence inbound traffic to the advertised /22 destination prefix so that it passes through SP-A when both paths are operational. Which action meets the customer\’s requirement?

A. Advertise the prefix to SP-A with a lower MED value than that sent to SP-B.

B. Advertise the prefix to SP-B with an origin of unknown.

C. Advertise the prefix to SP-B with a lower MED value than that sent to SP-A.

D. Advertise the prefix to SP-A with an origin of unknown.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/topic-map/med-attribute.html


Question 9:

Which Juniper Networks platform automates the orchestration of compute, storage, and networking resources to create and manipulate OpenStack clouds?

A. NorthStar

B. Contrail

C. WANDL

D. RingMaster

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Your customer wants an MPLS-based L3VPN service between multiple remote locations. Which two statements are true regarding the customer\’s WAN edge devices? (Choose two )

A. They must have EBGP configured.

B. They require routes for all remote sites.

C. They must have MPLS configured.

D. They require IP connectivity with the PEs.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 11:

Your customer wants to use NorthStar to communicate with network devices and acquire the MPLS topology. Which protocol is recommended for this purpose?

A. PIM-SSM

B. OSPF

C. BGP-LS

D. ISIS

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

You are asked to design a DDoS prevention system to help mitigate denial-of-service attacks that target your customers. The management group wants to know the effect FlowSpec may have on current network operations if it is implemented as a solution. In this scenario which two statements are correct? (Choose two )

A. FlowSpec can block traffic based on stateful flow information.

B. FlowSpec can block traffic based on the source address.

C. FlowSpec requires Jflow implementation and licensing.

D. FlowSpec can block traffic based on the destination address.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 13:

Exhibit: Referring to the exhibit which type of IPsec VPN should be used to create the desired topology?

A. AutoVPN

B. fully meshed VPN

C. Group VPN

D. hub-and-spoke VPN

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Your customer is deploying a multi-tenant data center and needs help with the WAN edge design. What are two main design considerations for this environment? (Choose two)

A. support for Virtual Chassis Control Protocol

B. support for unified threat management

C. support for Network Address Translation

D. support for data collection and analysis

Correct Answer: CD


Question 15:

Which statement is correct regarding classifiers in CoS?

A. Classifiers are used to route traffic between routing instances.

B. Classifiers are used to define the transmit rate for forwarding classes.

C. Classifiers are used to separate traffic into different forwarding classes.

D. Classifiers are used to change DiffServ values on outgoing packets.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

A customer with an HPE 3PAR 8200 unit has concerns about tracking missing updates and where to find the information on when upgrades were done in the past. With previous storage systems the customer ran out of storage before knowing that they needed to order more storage.

What can the integrator do to help the customer with these concerns?

A. Use the 3PAR Service Processor for Insplore event notification.

B. Enable StoreFront Remote integration.

C. Schedule SSMC Overview reports for the customer.

D. Link the 3PAR Service Agreement ID to customer`s HPE passport account for storage reporting.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

A storage integrator is examining the configuration of an HPE 3PAR storage system using CLI. Which command can be used to display a list of common provisioning groups starting with substring R5 in the system?

A. showcpg R5*

B. cpg show | grep ^R5

C. cpg | grep R5*

D. cmore showcpg –I R5*

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c04204279


Question 3:

A storage integrator wants to change the tiering affinity of an existing volume on an HPE MSA 1040/2040 with GL220 and higher. How can this goal be achieved?

A. Change volume tier preference of the volume.

B. Migrate volume using new tiering settings.

C. Perform a clone operation with a new automatic tiering rule.

D. Delete the volume, and create a new volume with the correct automatic tiering rule.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA4-6892ENW.pdf (24)


Question 4:

What must be configured before a storage integrator can start creating volumes from the available space on an HPE MSA 1040/2040?

A. disk group

B. snapshot space

C. date and time on MSA storage

D. global spare disk

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A storage integrator has connected a new Windows Server 2012 host to a customer\’s fabric where five HPE 3PAR StoreServ arrays are already installed. The integrator plans to create a script to send the information about the new host to all HPE 3PAR arrays in an automated way.

Which Host Explorer command should be used?

A. tpdhostget status

B. hostagent set

C. tpdhostagent push

D. hostagent list

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA4-4524ENW.pdf (12)


Question 6:

A customer finds that the performance of their application is not optimal. The customer\’s application stores data on an HPE 3PAR StoreServ Array to a volume within an FC tier. How should the storage integrator move the application data to a volume within an SSD tier?

A. Backup the data, delete the FC volume, create a new SSD volume, and restore the data to it.

B. Use the Dynamic Optimization feature in the HPE 3PAR StoreServ Management Console.

C. Use the System Reporter feature in the HPE 3PAR StoreServ Management Console.

D. Create an SSD volume, use the server OS to copy the data to the new volume, and delete the FC volume.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A storage integrator has installed HPE OneView for vCenter to integrate HPE MSA 1040 management from a vSphere Web Client. Which typical configuration task is required after the installation of HPE OneView for vCenter?

A. license HPE OneView for VMware Storage Component

B. register HPE OneView for vCenter to Storage Management Utility

C. add HPE MSA Storage System to vCenter server

D. add vCenter server to HPE OneView for vCenter

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=a00037524en_us


Question 8:

A storage integrator has connected a new Windows Server 2008 R2 host to an HPE 3PAR StoreServ array. After creating a new 3PAR Virtual Volume and exporting it to the new host, the Disk Management tool on the host is displaying two new drives.

Which additional software should the technician install to consolidate the displayed drive?

A. Storage Spaces

B. Enhanced Storage

C. File and Storage Services

D. Multipath I/O feature

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A customer has two HPE StoreVirtual VSA instances installed on VMware vSphere hosts, 3TB of data allocated for both with 4TB VSA license. The customer has purchased an HPE StoreVirtual VSA 2014 Software Upgrade 4TB to 10TB upgrade license. The data store size is increased from 3TB to 10.5TB for both VMware servers.

What is required to make the newly-added capacity available? (Choose two.)

A. The VSA appliance needs to be restarted to rescan added storage and expand VSA RAID with the new capacity.

B. The upgrade license requires that the VSA appliance is redeployed.

C. The integrator must remove the current RAID configuration and create a new one after adding more storage to the VSA appliance.

D. The VSA virtual appliance requires more memory and cpu resources.

E. The VMware vmdk file needs to be extended from 3TB to 10TB for each VSA appliance. Then, VSA will detect the additional storage.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04111621.pdf


Question 10:

A storage integrator is installing the HPE StoreVirtual Centralized Management Console (CMC) to manage a StoreVirtual VSA cluster. What is the proper procedure to install the console?

A. Download the StoreVirtual CMC installer and start the installation from primary StoreVirtual VSA node.

B. Download the CMC Appliance and deploy to a hypervisor not running StoreVirtual VSA nodes.

C. Download the StoreVirtual CMC installer and run on the computer with a supported Linux operating system.

D. Download the CMC Appliance and deploy to hypervisors running StoreVirtual VSA nodes.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=a00016289en_us


Question 11:

When is write throttling of HDDs invoked?

A. to synchronize speed of writing to multiple solid-state drives combined with rotational drives

B. to synchronize speed of writing to multiple solid-state drives

C. when drive wearing rate will cause the drive to fail before the warrantied time

D. when the power consumption of a drive exceeds the power cap

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/c078/528cdf6369cbb01881b8795d44bf799c7490.pdf


Question 12:

A customer wants to expand their SAN environment, which is based on B-series FC switches. They have a virtualized environment and two HPE 3PAR StoreServ arrays.

Which tools can be used by the Integrator to check the health of the SAN environment before starting the expansion and after finishing? (Choose two.)

A. HPE SAN Network Advisor

B. HPE Complete AntemetA 3PAR Vision

C. Brocade SAN Health

D. HPE Enterprise Fabric Management Suite

E. HPE Central Management Console

Correct Answer: CE


Question 13:

A storage integrator is planning the implementation of a single HPE StoreOnce 3100.

How many power cords are required to be connected to PDU from this storage system, when power supply kit was ordered?

A. 0

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04328820.pdf


Question 14:

In which areas in SSMC can a 3PAR virtual domain membership be selected? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI port

B. Host

C. Fibre Channel port

D. StoreServ report

E. Common Provisioning Group

Correct Answer: BD


Question 15:

A storage administrator has deployed a Windows 2012 R2 server which needs to have a virtual volume exported from an HPE StoreServ 8200. After zoning the host to storage and installing the HPE 3PAR Host Explorer on the server, the administrator is not seeing the server name in SSMC host list when creating a host object.

What are two valid options to correct the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Enable host explorer discovery from the HPE 3PAR CLI.

B. Execute tpdhostagent push.

C. Restart the Host Explorer service.

D. Reinstall the Host Explorer service.

E. Restart the SSMC service.

Correct Answer: AB


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Question 1:

When preparing for a compliance assessment of your system built inside of AWS. what are three best-practices for you to prepare for an audit? (Choose three.)

A. Gather evidence of your IT operational controls

B. Request and obtain applicable third-party audited AWS compliance reports and certifications

C. Request and obtain a compliance and security tour of an AWS data center for a pre-assessment security review

D. Request and obtain approval from AWS to perform relevant network scans and in-depth penetration tests of your system\’s Instances and endpoints

E. Schedule meetings with AWS\’s third-party auditors to provide evidence of AWS compliance that maps to your control objectives

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 2:

You have started a new job and are reviewing your company\’s infrastructure on AWS You notice one web application where they have an Elastic Load Balancer (andB) in front of web instances in an Auto Scaling Group When you check the metrics for the ELB in CloudWatch you see four healthy instances in Availability Zone (AZ) A and zero in AZ B There are zero unhealthy instances. What do you need to fix to balance the instances across AZs?

A. Set the ELB to only be attached to another AZ

B. Make sure Auto Scaling is configured to launch in both AZs

C. Make sure your AMI is available in both AZs

D. Make sure the maximum size of the Auto Scaling Group is greater than 4

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

You have been asked to leverage Amazon VPC BC2 and SOS to implement an application that submits and receives millions of messages per second to a message queue. You want to ensure your application has sufficient bandwidth between your EC2 instances and SQS Which option will provide the most scalable solution for communicating between the application and SQS?

A. Ensure the application instances are properly configured with an Elastic Load Balancer

B. Ensure the application instances are launched in private subnets with the EBS-optimized option enabled

C. Ensure the application instances are launched in public subnets with the associate-public-IPaddress=true option enabled

D. Launch application instances in private subnets with an Auto Scaling group and Auto Scaling triggers configured to watch the SQS queue size

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Bandwidth literally means network not IO Bandwidth. Having alerts to scale the Autoscaling is most

sophisticated option.


Question 4:

When attached to an Amazon VPC, which two components provide connectivity with external networks? (Choose two.)

A. Elastic IPS (EIP)

B. NAT Gateway (NAT)

C. Internet Gateway {IGW)

D. Virtual Private Gateway (VGW)

Correct Answer: CD


Question 5:

Your application currently leverages AWS Auto Scaling to grow and shrink as load Increases/ decreases and has been performing well. Your marketing team expects a steady ramp up in traffic to follow an upcoming campaign that will result in a 20x growth in traffic over 4 weeks. Your forecast for the approximate number of Amazon EC2 instances necessary to meet the peak demand is 175.

What should you do to avoid potential service disruptions during the ramp up in traffic?

A. Ensure that you have pre-allocated 175 Elastic IP addresses so that each server will be able to obtain one as it launches

B. Check the service limits in Trusted Advisor and adjust as necessary so the forecasted count remains within limits.

C. Change your Auto Scaling configuration to set a desired capacity of 175 prior to the launch of the marketing campaign

D. Pre-warm your Elastic Load Balancer to match the requests per second anticipated during peak demand prior to the marketing campaign

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Amazon ELB is able to handle the vast majority of use cases for our customers without requiring “prewarming” (configuring the load balancer to have the appropriate level of capacity based on

expected traffic).

Reference:

https://aws.amazon.com/articles/1636185810492479#pre-warming


Question 6:

An organization has configured a VPC with an Internet Gateway (IGW). pairs of public and private subnets (each with one subnet per Availability Zone), and an Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) configured to use the public subnets. The application s web tier leverages the ELB. Auto Scaling and a mum-AZ RDS database instance The organization would like to eliminate any potential single points ft failure in this design. What step should you take to achieve this organization\’s objective?

A. Nothing, there are no single points of failure in this architecture.

B. Create and attach a second IGW to provide redundant internet connectivity.

C. Create and configure a second Elastic Load Balancer to provide a redundant load balancer.

D. Create a second multi-AZ RDS instance in another Availability Zone and configure replication to provide a redundant database.

Correct Answer: A

You need multiple ELB if you want HA across regions.

“AWS Load Balancer –Cross Network

Many times it happens that after setting up your ELB, you experience significant drops in your

performance. The best way to handle this situation is to start with identifying whether your ELB is single AZ

or multiple AZ, as single AZ ELB is also considered as one of the Single Points of Failures on AWS Cloud.

Once you identify your ELB, it is necessary to make sure ELB loads are kept cross regions.”

Reference:

Eliminating Single Points of Failures on AWS Cloud


Question 7:

Which of the following are characteristics of Amazon VPC subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Each subnet maps to a single Availability Zone

B. A CIDR block mask of /25 is the smallest range supported

C. Instances in a private subnet can communicate with the internet only if they have an Elastic IP.

D. By default, all subnets can route between each other, whether they are private or public

E. V Each subnet spans at least 2 Availability zones to provide a high-availability environment

Correct Answer: AD

“Each subnet must reside entirely within one Availability Zone and cannot span zones.”

“Every subnet that you create is automatically associated with the main route table for the VPC.”

Reference:

http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonVPC/latest/UserGuide/VPC_Subnets.html


Question 8:

You are creating an Auto Scaling group whose Instances need to insert a custom metric into CloudWatch. Which method would be the best way to authenticate your CloudWatch PUT request?

A. Create an IAM role with the Put MetricData permission and modify the Auto Scaling launch configuration to launch instances in that role

B. Create an IAM user with the PutMetricData permission and modify the Auto Scaling launch configuration to inject the userscredentials into the instance User Data

C. Modify the appropriate Cloud Watch metric policies to allow the Put MetricData permission to instances from the Auto Scaling group

D. Create an IAM user with the PutMetricData permission and put the credentials in a private repository and have applications on the server pull the credentials as needed

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Creates an IAM role is always the best practice to give permissions to EC2 instances in order to interact with other AWS services


Question 9:

An application that you are managing has EC2 instances and Dynamo OB tables deployed to several AWS Regions in order to monitor the performance of the application globally, you would like to see two graphs:

1) Avg CPU Utilization across all EC2 instances 2) Number of Throttled Requests for all DynamoDB tables.

How can you accomplish this?

A. Tag your resources with the application name, and select the tag name as the dimension in the Cloudwatch Management console to view the respective graphs

B. Use the Cloud Watch CLI tools to pull the respective metrics from each regional endpoint Aggregate the data offline and store it for graphing in CloudWatch.

C. Add SNMP traps to each instance and DynamoDB table Leverage a central monitoring server to capture data from each instance and table Put the aggregate data into Cloud Watch for graphing.

D. Add a CloudWatch agent to each instance and attach one to each DynamoDB table. When configuring the agent set the appropriate application name and view the graphs in CloudWatch.

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/Tools.CLI.html


Question 10:

You have a Linux EC2 web server instance running inside a VPC The instance is In a public subnet and has an EIP associated with it so you can connect to It over the Internet via HTTP or SSH The instance was also fully accessible when you last logged in via SSH. and was also serving web requests on port 80. Now you are not able to SSH into the host nor does it respond to web requests on port 80 that were working fine last time you checked You have double-checked that all networking configuration parameters (security groups route tables. IGW\’EIP. NACLs etc) are properly configured {and you haven\’t made any changes to those anyway since you were last able to reach the Instance). You look at the EC2 console and notice that system status check shows “impaired.” Which should be your next step in troubleshooting and attempting to get the instance back to a healthy state so that you can log in again?

A. Stop and start the instance so that it will be able to be redeployed on a healthy host system that most likely will fix the “impaired” system status

B. Reboot your instance so that the operating system will have a chance to boot in a clean healthy state that most likely will fix the \’impaired” system status

C. Add another dynamic private IP address to me instance and try to connect via mat new path, since the networking stack of the OS may be locked up causing the “impaired” system status.

D. Add another Elastic Network Interface to the instance and try to connect via that new path since the networking stack of the OS may be locked up causing the “impaired” system status

E. un-map and then re-map the EIP to the instance, since the IGWVNAT gateway may not be working properly, causing the “impaired” system status

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

What is a placement group?

A. A collection of Auto Scaling groups in the same Region

B. Feature that enables EC2 instances to interact with each other via nigh bandwidth, low latency connections

C. A collection of Elastic Load Balancers in the same Region or Availability Zone

D. A collection of authorized Cloud Front edge locations for a distribution

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Your entire AWS infrastructure lives inside of one Amazon VPC. You have an Infrastructure monitoring application running on an Amazon instance in Availability Zone (AZ) A of the region, and another application instance running in AZ B. The monitoring application needs to make use of ICMP ping to confirm network reachability of the instance hosting the application. Can you configure the security groups for these instances to only allow the ICMP ping to pass from the monitoring instance to the application instance and nothing else? If so how?

A. No, two instances in two different AZ\’s can\’t talk directly to each other via ICMP ping as that protocol is not allowed across subnet (iebroadcast) boundaries

B. Yes, both the monitoring instance and the application instance have to be a part of the same security group, and that security group needs to allow inbound ICMP

C. Yes, the security group for the monitoring instance needs to allow outbound ICMP and the application instance\’s security group needs to allow Inbound ICMP

D. Yes, both the monitoring instance\’s security group and the application instance\’s security group need to allow both inbound and outbound ICMP ping packets since ICMP is not a connection-oriented protocol

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Even though ICMP is not a connection-oriented protocol, Security Groups are stateful. “Security groups

are stateful — responses to allowed inbound traffic are allowed to flow outbound

regardless of outbound rules, and vice versa”.

Reference:

http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonVPC/latest/UserGuide/VPC_SecurityGroups.html


Question 13:

You have a web-style application with a stateless but CPU and memory-intensive web tier running on a cc2 8xlarge EC2 instance inside of a VPC The instance when under load is having problems returning requests within the SLA as defined by your business The application maintains its state in a DynamoDB table, but the data tier is properly provisioned and responses are consistently fast. How can you best resolve the issue of the application responses not meeting your SLA?

A. Add another cc2 8xlarge application instance, and put both behind an Elastic Load Balancer

B. Move the cc2 8xlarge to the same Availability Zone as the DynamoDB table

C. Cache the database responses in ElastiCache for more rapid access

D. Move the database from DynamoDB to RDS MySQL in scale-out read-replica configuration

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

DynamoDB is automatically available across three facilities in an AWS Region. So moving in to a same AZ

is not possible / necessary.

In this case the DB layer is not the issue, the EC2 8xlarge is the issue; so add another one with a ELB in-

front of it.

See also: https://aws.amazon.com/dynamodb/faqs/


Question 14:

You are managing a legacy application Inside VPC with hard coded IP addresses in its configuration. Which two mechanisms will allow the application to failover to new instances without the need for reconfiguration? (Choose two.)

A. Create an ELB to reroute traffic to a failover instance

B. Create a secondary ENI that can be moved to a failover instance

C. Use Route53 health checks to fail traffic over to a failover instance

D. Assign a secondary private IP address to the primary ENIO that can be moved to a failover instance

Correct Answer: BD


Question 15:

Which of the following statements about this S3 bucket policy is true?

A. Denies the server with the IP address 192 168 100 0 full access to the “mybucket” bucket

B. Denies the server with the IP address 192 168 100 188 full access to the “mybucket” bucket

C. Grants all the servers within the 192 168 100 0/24 subnet full access to the “mybucket” bucket

D. Grants all the servers within the 192 168 100 188/32 subnet full access to the “mybucket” bucket

Correct Answer: B

http://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/reference_policies_elements.html http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/amazon-s3-policy-keys.html


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Question 1:

What is the amount of the principal plus interest due at maturity on a 1-month (32-day) deposit of USD 50,000,000.00 placed at 0.37%?

A. EUR 50,015,416.67

B. EUR 50,016,219.18

C. EUR 50,016,444.44

D. EUR 50,016,958.33

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Today\’s spot value date is the 30th of June. What is the maturity date of a 2-month EUR deposit deal today? Assume no bank holidays.

A. 27th August

B. 30th August

C. 31st August

D. 1 September

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

From the following GBP deposit rates:

1M (30-day) GBP deposits 0.45% 2M (60-day) GBP deposits 0.50% 3M (91-day) GBP deposits 0.55% 4M (123-day) GBP deposits 0.65% 5M (153-day) GBP deposits 0.70% 6M (184-day) GBP deposits 0.75%

Calculate the 3×4 forward-forward rate.

A. 0.60%

B. 0.949%

C. 1.074%

D. 0.933%

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

What is EONIA?

A. Volume-weighted average overnight EUR deposit rate

B. Volume-weighted average overnight EUR LIBOR

C. Arithmetic average overnight EUR deposit rate

D. ECB overnight lending rate

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument?

A. CD

B. FRA

C. BA

D. ECP

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which party usually takes an initial margin in a classic repo?

A. The buyer

B. The seller

C. Neither

D. Both

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A CD with a face value of EUR 10,000,000.00 and a coupon of 3% was issued at par for 182 days and is now trading at 3.10% with 120 days remaining to maturity. What has been the capital gain or loss since issue?

A. -EUR 52,161.00

B. -t-EUR 47,839.00

C. -EUR 3,827.67

D. Nil

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

The tom/next GC repo rate for German government bonds is quoted to you at 1.75-80%. As collateral, you sell EUR 10,000,000.00 million nominal of the 5.25% Bund July 2012, which is worth EUR 11,260,000.00. If you have to give an initial margin of 2%, the Repurchase Price is:

A. EUR 11,035,336.41

B. EUR 11,035,351.74

C. EUR 11,039,752.32

D. EUR 11,039,767.65

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A bond is trading 50 basis points special for 1 week, while the 1-week GC repo rate is 3.25%. If you held GBP 10,500,000.00 of this bond, what would be the cost of borrowing against it in the repo market?

A. GBP 7,551.37

B. GBP 6,544.52

C. GBP 5,537.67

D. GBP 1,006.85

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

The seller of a EUR/RUB NDF could be:

A. a potential buyer of EUR against RUB

B. speculating on an appreciation of the Russian Rouble

C. expecting rising EUR/RUB exchange rates

D. a seller of Russian Rouble

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Voice-brokers in spot FX act as:

A. Proprietary traders

B. Market-makers

C. Matched principals

D. Agents

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Are the forward points significantly affected by changes in the spot rate?

A. Never

B. For very large movements and longer terms

C. Always

D. Spot is the principal influence

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which of the following CHF/JPY quotes that you have received is the best rate for you to buy CHF?

A. 105.80

B. 105.75

C. 105.70

D. 105.85

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A “time option” is an outright forward FX transaction where the customer:

A. has the option to fulfill the outright forward or not at maturity

B. may freely choose the maturity, given a 24-hour notice to the bank

C. can choose any maturity within a previously fixed period

D. may decide to deal at the regular maturity or on either the business day before or after

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

As far as fineness and weight are concerned, what are the London Bullion Market Association (LBMA) requirements for a “good delivery bar”?

A. at least 995/1000 pure gold; weight between 350 and 430 fine ounces

B. minimum 999.9/1000 pure gold; weight between 350 and 430 fine ounces

C. at least 995/1000 pure gold; weight of 400 fine ounces

D. minimum 995/1000 pure gold; weight of 400 fine ounces

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

How should a DLP administrator change a policy so that it retains the original file when an endpoint incident has detected a “copy to USB device” operation?

A. Add a “Limit Incident Data Retention” response rule with “Retain Original Message” option selected.

B. Modify the agent config.db to include the file

C. Modify the “Endpoint_Retain_Files.int” setting in the Endpoint server configuration

D. Modify the agent configuration and select the option “Retain Original Files”

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Under the “System Overview” in the Enforce management console, the status of a Network Monitor detection server is shown as “Running Selected.” The Network Monitor server\’s event logs indicate that the packet capture and filereader processes are crashing.

What is a possible cause for the Network Monitor server being in this state?

A. There is insufficient disk space on the Network Monitor server.

B. The Network Monitor server\’s certificate is corrupt or missing.

C. The Network Monitor server\’s license file has expired.

D. The Enforce and Network Monitor servers are running different versions of DLP.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which two Infrastructure-as-a-Service providers are supported for hosting Cloud Prevent for Office 365? (Choose two.)

A. Any customer-hosted private cloud

B. Amazon Web Services

C. ATandT

D. Verizon

E. Rackspace

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://symwisedownload.symantec.com//resources/sites/SYMWISE/content/live/DOCUMENTATION/8000/DOC8244/en_US/Symantec_DLP_15.0_Cloud_Prevent_O365.pdf? __gda__=1554430310_584ffada3918e15ced8b6483a2bfb6fb (14)


Question 4:

A software company wants to protect its source code, including new source code created between scheduled indexing runs. Which detection method should the company use to meet this requirement?

A. Exact Data Matching (EDM)

B. Described Content Matching (DCM)

C. Vector Machine Learning (VML)

D. Indexed Document Matching (IDM)

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/DLP15.0/DLP/v100774847_v120691346/Scheduling-remote-indexing?locale=EN_US


Question 5:

What are two reasons an administrator should utilize a manual configuration to determine the endpoint location? (Choose two.)

A. To specify Wi-Fi SSID names

B. To specify an IP address or range

C. To specify the endpoint server

D. To specify domain names

E. To specify network card status (ON/OFF)

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/dlp15.1/DLP/v18349332_v125428396/Setting-the-endpoint-location?locale=EN_US


Question 6:

What detection server is used for Network Discover, Network Protect, and Cloud Storage?

A. Network Protect Storage Discover

B. Network Discover/Cloud Storage Discover

C. Network Prevent/Cloud Detection Service

D. Network Protect/Cloud Detection Service

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/dlp15.0/DLP/v16110606_v120691346/Modifying-the-Network-Discover-Cloud-Storage-Discover-Server-configuration?locale=EN_US


Question 7:

Which product is able to replace a confidential document residing on a file share with a marker file explaining why the document was removed?

A. Network Discover

B. Cloud Service for Email

C. Endpoint Prevent

D. Network Protect

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/dlp15.1/DLP/v15600645_v125428396/Configuring-Network-Protect-for-file-shares?locale=EN_US


Question 8:

Which action should a DLP administrator take to secure communications between an on-premises Enforce server and detection servers hosted in the Cloud?

A. Use the built-in Symantec DLP certificate for the Enforce Server, and use the “sslkeytool” utility to create certificates for the detection servers.

B. Use the built-in Symantec DLP certificate for both the Enforce server and the hosted detection servers.

C. Set up a Virtual Private Network (VPN) for the Enforce server and the hosted detection servers.

D. Use the “sslkeytool” utility to create certificates for the Enforce server and the hosted detection servers.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.symantec.com/connect/articles/sslkeytool-utility-and-server-certificates


Question 9:

Which two detection technology options run on the DLP agent? (Choose two.)

A. Optical Character Recognition (OCR)

B. Described Content Matching (DCM)

C. Directory Group Matching (DGM)

D. Form Recognition

E. Indexed Document Matching (IDM)

Correct Answer: BE


Question 10:

A DLP administrator has added several approved endpoint devices as exceptions to an Endpoint Prevent policy that blocks the transfer of sensitive data. However, data transfers to these devices are still being blocked. What is the first action an administrator should take to enable data transfers to the approved endpoint devices?

A. Disable and re-enable the Endpoint Prevent policy to activate the changes

B. Double-check that the correct device ID or class has been entered for each device

C. Verify Application File Access Control (AFAC) is configured to monitor the specific application

D. Edit the exception rule to ensure that the “Match On” option is set to “Attachments”

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

A DLP administrator needs to stop the PacketCapture process on a detection server. Upon inspection of the Server Detail page, the administrator discovers that all processes are missing from the display. What are the processes missing from the Server Detail page display?

A. The Display Process Control setting on the Advanced Settings page is disabled.

B. The Advanced Process Control setting on the System Settings page is deselected.

C. The detection server Display Control Process option is disabled on the Server Detail page.

D. The detection server PacketCapture process is displayed on the Server Overview page.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/content/unifiedweb/en_US/article.TECH220250.html


Question 12:

What is Application Detection Configuration?

A. The Cloud Detection Service (CDS) process that tells Enforce a policy has been violated

B. The Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policy which has been pushed into Cloud Detection Service (CDC) for files in transit to or residing in Cloud apps

C. The terminology describing the Data Loss Prevention (DLP) process within the CloudSOC administration portal

D. The setting configured within the user interface (UI) that determines whether CloudSOC should send a file to Cloud Detection Service (CDS) for analysis.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/DLP15.0/DLP/v119805091_v120691346/About-Application-Detection|Symantec�-Data-Loss-Prevention-15.0?locale=EN_US


Question 13:

What detection method utilizes Data Identifiers?

A. Indexed Document Matching (IDM)

B. Described Content Matching (DCM)

C. Directory Group Matching (DGM)

D. Exact Data Matching (EDM)

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.symantec.com/connect/forums/edm-policy-exception


Question 14:

When managing an Endpoint Discover scan, a DLP administrator notices some endpoint computers are NOT completing their scans. When does the DLP agent stop scanning?

A. When the agent sends a report within the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

B. When the endpoint computer is rebooted and the agent is started

C. When the agent is unable to send a status report within the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

D. When the agent sends a report immediately after the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which tool must a DLP administrator run to certify the database prior to upgrading DLP?

A. Lob_Tablespace Reclamation Tool

B. Upgrade Readiness Tool

C. SymDiag

D. EnforceMigrationUtility

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.DOC10667.html


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Question 1:

According to the recommended training for this exam, proper management ensures and .

A. Value to the client

B. Value to your company

C. Value to the industry

D. Value to the community

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Select the two plans that are always active in the project at any given time.

A. Transition Plan

B. Training Plan

C. Implementation Plan

D. Iteration Plan

E. Inception Plan

Correct Answer: CD

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Question 3:

According to the recommended training for this exam, why is the transition from the sales team to the delivery team important?

A. It sets the client expectations of your communication abilities as a company.

B. It is only important if the client requests it.

C. It is only important if the sales team requests it.

D. It sets the documentation standards for the project.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

What project documentation is billable?

A. only what was negotiated by the sales team and the Project Manager

B. time sheets, status reports, and the approved project plan

C. only what the Project Manager decides

D. only what the sales team determines

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

The OUM Manage Focus Area is aligned with what project management organization?

A. Project Management Institute (PMI)

B. Project Management Organization

C. Project Managers of the World

D. NationalInstitute of Project Managers

E. International Institute of Business Analysis (IIBA)

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which two statements are true about the role of Oracle Business Rules in Adaptive Case Management (ACM)?

A. Defining business rules is mandatory to be able to build, deploy, and run an ACM project.

B. Business rules are used to handle case events and take specific actions on the case.

C. Business rules are used to activate conditional case activities.

D. Oracle Business Rules is an optional component of ACM.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 2:

Which pattern is best handled by using Adaptive Case Management?

A. straight-through processing requiring no manual intervention

B. deterministic, human-centric processes

C. knowledge-based work requiring collaboration

D. application integration processes

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

The initial performer of a task is determined by the role associated with the swim lane in which the task is modeled except when you use a(n) _______.

A. complex task

B. user task

C. FYI task

D. group task

Correct Answer: A

A complex user task uses a complex routing flow that is defined within the humantask.BPM Studio offers a number of human task patterns out of the box, to make it easy to implementthe most common types of human tasks. For example, the Simple pattern just assigns individualusers or groups. The Management pattern is used for a sequential list of approvers up themanagement chain. Initiator is for the person who kicks off the process.For most of these,swimlane roles are used to determine assignments. For the Complex task, however, the swimlaneis irrelevant, and routing and assignments are typically more complicated.Note: Swimlanes are the horizontal lines that run across the process editor. All flow objects mustbe placed within a swimlane.Swimlanes can also be used to group flow objects based on the roles defined within your process.Swimlanes that contain user tasks must have roles assigned to them. Swimlanes visually displaythe role responsible for performing each flow object within your process. Additionally, you canhave multiple swimlanes that are assigned to the same role.Swimlanes can make your process more readable when you must use the same role in differentparts of the same process.


Question 4:

Which two statements are accurate in describing features of Business Process Workspace? (Choose two.)

A. To see tasks containing a particular word in the task title, you need to create a custom view.

B. The definition and data for a new view can be shared with a colleague.

C. A custom view needs to be created to enable the delegation of a task to another user.

D. In a task view, the task list can be sorted based upon any visible column heading.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

You have a situation where a collection of rules might provide a flexible way of externalizing logic in an application.

Which two are accurate considerations to access as you decide to use a decision table or if-then rules? (Choose two.)

A. The decision table\’s spreadsheet metaphor is compact and familiar to end users.

B. Decision tables can use globals while if-then rules cannot.

C. The logic likely requires more rules if expressed as a decision table.

D. Unlike with a decision table, an Expression Builder is provided for if-then rules to help you craft condition expressions.

E. Built-in error prevention features for decision tables can help you build more complete and accurate rules.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 6:

To establish the integration between BPM Suite and BAM 12c, you need to _______.

A. do nothing as they are integrated out-of-the-box

B. set the DisableProcessMetricsMBean setting to false on the SOA server

C. set the DisableProcessMetricsMBean setting to false on the BAM server

D. set the DisableMonitorExpressMBean setting to false on the SOA server

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which two statements are true about verbal rules and business phrases? (Choose two.)

A. You can create a verbal rule with business phrases as a column in a decision table rule.

B. Derived business phrases are automatically created by using facts, globals, and other information in the rules dictionary.

C. User-defined business phrases can be explicitly authored to augment derived phrases.

D. You can mark a verbal rule as draft in the Rules Editor.

Correct Answer: BC

Derived business phrases are automatically created using facts, globals and other information in the dictionary while user-defined phrases can be explicitly authored to augment derived phrases.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/1213/bpm/bp-composer- user/ business_rules_bpmcu.htm#BPMCU506


Question 8:

At design time, web forms created by using the Web Form Designer are associated only with human tasks inside the same _____.

A. process

B. space

C. project

D. application

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which two statements are true about running and analyzing simu-lation results? (Choose two.)

A. You must wait until a simulation run finishes in order to see up-to-date results in charts.

B. During a simulation run, in-flight instances are always allowed to finish before a simulation completes.

C. During a simulation run, cost and time data are automatically collected for all activities, events, and gateways.

D. You can use only Business Process Composer to create and run simulations.

E. The number appearing above the left-most bar atop an activity represents the high water mark for the queue.

Correct Answer: BD

In Business Process Composer you can only run simulations based on test data you define using Business Process Composer.


Question 10:

Which two statements describe how parallel and inclusive gateways work? (Choose two.)

A. You specify conditions on outgoing sequence flows on a parallel gateway, but not on an inclusive gateway.

B. More than one outgoing path can be followed out of an inclusive gateway, but not from a parallel gateway.

C. For both types of gateways, a merge is used to wait for all tokens before proceeding.

D. You can override standard merge behavior for both types of gateways so execution can proceed when a certain percentage of tokens have arrived at the merge.

E. All conditions are evaluated in an inclusive gateway.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 11:

Which statement is accurate about verbal rules and business phrases?

A. Verbal ruled can be created in Business Process Composer, but not in BPM Studio.

B. For a particular verbal rule, conditions and actions can include derived business phrases or user- defined business phrases, but not both.

C. Derived business phrases are automatically created by using facts and globals in the rules dictionary.

D. Verbal rules must be created in a separate ruleset from general rules and decision tables.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 12:

Which two statements are accurate descriptions of how process data objects or project data objects are used? (Choose two.)

A. A process data object can be based on either a basic data type or a complex data type.

B. A process data object is associated with a module where it resides.

C. One of the main benefits of defining process data objects is that you can configure Business Process WorkSpace views to display their values.

D. Project data objects are not used to share data values between processes.

Correct Answer: AD

Basic and complex data types can both be defined as either process or project data objects.

Although project data objects allow you to define data objects that are used by all processes in a project, they are not global data objects. Each process within your project uses its own version of the data object. Project data objects are not used to share data between processes. To share data between processes, you must create data associations.


Question 13:

Which two statements accurately describe managing users and roles for a BPM Suite application? (Choose two.)

A. Swimlane roles are created at design time by using Process Composer or BPM Studio.

B. Application roles can be added by using WebLogic Console or WLST.

C. The organization chart structure of users is visible in Business Process Workspace.

D. You can associate an LDAP group with an application role in Business Process Workspace.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

Which statement is true about BPM Suite\’s round trip simu-lation feature?

A. Round trip simulation is a feature of a Process Player.

B. Basing a simulation on actual process runtime data can help you find bottlenecks in a process model.

C. Unit test suites can be automatically generated based upon round trip simulation data.

D. During round trip simulation generation, process bottlenecks are identified and highlighted on the model.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which two tools can you use to create charts for a dashboard that displays metrics for your BPM project? (Choose two.)

A. BPM Studio

B. BAM Composer

C. BPM Process Composer

D. BPM Process Workspace

E. WebCenter Process Spaces

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

Which is the correct option to forward logs from Tanzu Kubernetes Grid clusters to Elastic, Kafka, Splunk or an HTTP endpoint?

A. No action is required. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid automatically forwards the logfiles to syslog.

B. Use the kubectl get logs command to forward the logs

C. Deploy the fluent bit plugin to vRealize Log Insight

D. Deploy the fluent bit plugin to vRealize Log Insight

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

In the following StorageClass manifest, which field is used to specify the Volume Plugin driver used for underlying storage array?

A. type

B. name

C. parameters

D. provisioner

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which step must be taken to enable Kubernetes auditing on a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster?

A. Set the ENABLE_AUDIT_LOGGING variable to ‘true’ before deploying the cluster

B. Run systemctl start auditd andand systemctl enable auditd on master node

C. Audit is enabled by default on every Tanzu cluster

D. Edit /etc/kubernetes/audit-policy.yaml and set ENABLE_AUDIT variable to ‘1’ on master node

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

What command would an administrator use to upgrade the Tanzu Management Cluster?

A. apt-get install -y kubeadm

B. tkg management-upgrade

C. tanzu-upgrade-mgt

D. tkg upgrade management-cluster

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What does an administrator need to install to attach a Kubernetes cluster to Tanzu Mission Control (TMC)?

A. TMC service

B. The agent is already installed

C. Cluster agent extensions

D. TMC agent pack

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Choose two supported functionalities when enabling Workload Management with a VMware vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose two.)

A. NSX Advanced Load Balancer

B. NSX Load Balancer

C. Tanzu Kubernetes clusters

D. Embedded Harbor Registry

E. vSphere Pods

Correct Answer: CD


Question 7:

What is the advantage of connecting the Tanzu Kubernetes Grid (TKG) CLI to a vSphere with Tanzu Supervisor Cluster?

A. Tanzu Kubernetes clusters can be managed with vCenter Server Graphical User Interface console.

B. Kubernetes objects can be created via vCenter Server VAMI interface.

C. Tanzu Kubernetes clusters can be managed with ESXi Host Client.

D. Tanzu Kubernetes clusters can be deployed to vSphere with Tanzu and manage their lifecycle directly

from the TKG CLI.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

What is the default authentication implemented in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid?

A. Keycloak

B. Vault

C. Dex and Gangway

D. kube-oidc-proxy

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

After successfully configuring vSphere Container Storage Interface (CSI), what is the path an administrator can follow to view the status of the container volumes?

A. Describe the StorafeClass via kubectl.

B. vSAN Data Store in ESXi Host Client.

C. Get the status of the pods vis kubectl.

D. Container volumes in vSphere Client.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What are the infrastructure services prerequisites to enable Tanzu in vSphere? (Choose all that apply.)

A. DHCP

B. Active directory

C. Firewall

D. DNS

E. NTP

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 11:

A Tanzu Mission Control administrator would like to enforce the following container controls:

Require Digest.

Name-Tag Allowlist.

To which type of policies do these controls belong to?

A. Security

B. Registry

C. Access

D. Network

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A customer needs to use Kubernetes and wants to use networking solution, Antrea. Which product from Tanzu portfolio should the customer use?

A. Tanzu Application Catalog

B. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid

C. Tanzu Mission Control

D. Tanzu Observability

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What is the object in Kubernetes used to grant permissions to a cluster wide resource?

A. ClusterRoleAccess

B. RoleBinding

C. ClusterRoleBinding

D. RoleReference

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What are two ClusterAPI providers being used in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid? (Choose two.)

A. CAPZ

B. CAPA

C. CAP

D. CAPW

E. CAPV

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

How are Tanzu Kubernetes clusters upgraded?

A. Deploy a new cluster with upgraded Kubernetes release

B. Rolling upgrades

C. Clusters are only upgraded offline

D. In-place upgrade for each node

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which feature is supported on a UnityVSA operating environment?

A. Asynchronous Replication

B. MCC Write Caching

C. Quick Start Pool Provisioning

D. Data at Rest Encryption

Correct Answer: A

Asynchronous Unified Replication is available natively on UnityVSA. This allows file and block resources to be replicated between UnityVSA systems, between UnityVSA and physical Unity systems, and also locally back to the same UnityVSA system


Question 2:

A storage administrator is creating a host profile in Unisphere to provide host access to block storage resources using the iSCSI protocol. The host initiators were not automatically discovered and must be manually added. In addition to the SAN host IQN, what other configuration can be performed through the “Create iSCSI Initiator Wizard” window?

A. Enable and disable CHAP settings

B. Create Mutual CHAP secret

C. Create Global CHAP secret

D. Enter CHAP username and secret

Correct Answer: D

A sample from a Broadcomm BIOS is provided in the figure below, illustrating the IQN assignment for the VNX iSCSI target.

References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/hardware/technical-documentation/h8229-vnx-vmware-tb.pdf (page 34)


Question 3:

Which technology is used by Unity Snapshots?

A. Copy on First Write

B. Inline Deduplication

C. Redirect on Write

D. Block Compression

Correct Answer: C

The technology used for snapshots of both block and file resources in Unity is called redirect on write.


Question 4:

A system administrator is configuring asynchronous remote replication for an existing NAS server and its\’ file systems on a Unity system. What should the administrator create to ensure all data is replicated for the NAS server and the file system?

A. Replication sessions on each file system only

B. Replication sessions for each file system first and then the NAS server

C. A replication session on the NAS server and then manually create replication sessions on each file system

D. A replication session for only the NAS server

Correct Answer: D

Before File Systems or VMware NFS Datastores can be replicated, the NAS Server must be replicated.


Question 5:

Which Unity feature provides a high bandwidth connection for large file transfers, enables proactive Service Request generation and usage license reporting, and operates on a 24×7 basis?

A. EMC Service Center

B. Software Licensing Central

C. Unisphere Central

D. EMC Secure Remote Services

Correct Answer: D

Benefit from secure, high-speed, 24×7 predictive monitoring and remote repair for your EMC information infrastructure. EMC Secure Remote Services (ESRS) enables EMC Customer Service to identify and proactively resolve potential issues

before they can impact your business.

Incorrect Answers:

C: Unisphere Central enables administrators to remotely monitor multiple EMC VNX Series, EMC VNXe Series, EMC CLARiiON CX4 Series, and EMC vVNX storage systems residing on a common network.


Question 6:

Which software bundles are provided with the Unity Starter software package?

A. FAST Cache and Fast VP

B. Thin Provisioning and Quality of Service

C. Controller-Based Encryption and RecoverPoint Basic

D. FAST Cache and Local Point-in-Time Copies

Correct Answer: A

The UnityVSA offers a dynamic deployment model that allows you to start for free and grow as business needs evolve.

UnityVSA include:

FAST Cache leverages the performance of Flash media to improve workloads that are interfacing with spinning disk media.

Fully Automated Storage Tiering for Virtual Pools (FAST VP) ensures your data is distributed effectively across the various media types in a multi-tier pool.

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15084-emc-unity-introduction-to-the-unity-platform.pdf (page 20)


Question 7:

When configuring asynchronous remote replication, how many internal Unity Snapshots are configured and utilized on the source system by a single replication session?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: B

Internal Snapshot (Replication Snapshot) are Unity Snapshots created by the system which are part of an asynchronous replication session. These Snapshots can be viewed in Unisphere, but user operations are not permitted. Each asynchronous replication session uses two internal snapshots taken on the source and destination storage resources.


Question 8:

A storage administrator is implementing FAST Cache on a Unity 500 storage array and can select from a mix of SSD drives. Which drive types can be configured to meet the administrator\’s requirements?

A. 200 GB and 400 GB

B. 400GB and 1.6 TB

C. 1.6 TB and 3.2 TB

D. 3.2 TB and 800 GB

Correct Answer: A

Unity 500 FAST Cache is only supported by 200 GB and 400 GB SSD hard drives.

Reference: http://www.emc.com/collateral/data-sheet/h14958-unity-hybrid-family-ss.pdf (page 5)


Question 9:

A storage administrator is required to test a new version of an application loaded on a secondary host. The administrator must use existing data contained on a LUN provisioned from Unity to a primary host.

Which solution will meet the requirement and provide space efficiency?

A. Create a snapshot of the LUN Configure LUN access for the secondary host Attach the snapshot to the secondary host

B. Create a snapshot of the LUN Configure snapshot access to the LUN for the secondary host Attach the snapshot to the secondary host

C. Create a Synchronous Replication session for the LUN Configure access to the replica LUN for the secondary host Attach the secondary host

D. Create an Asynchronous Replication on session for the LUN Configure access to the replica LUN for the secondary host Attach the secondary host

Correct Answer: B

Attaching a snapshot is only applicable for block snapshots, and makes the snapshot available for host IO. A host must have Snapshot access or LUN and Snapshot access configured in order to access the snapshot. When a snapshot is attached, Unisphere provides the option to create a copy of the snapshot in case the administrator wants to preserve the current snapshot view for future use.


Question 10:

Which Dell EMC UnityXT system user interface allows system administrators to create scripts for automating routine tasks?

A. Unisphere Central

B. UEMCLI

C. IPMI

D. Unisphere GUI

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/en-us/collaterals/unauth/white-papers/products/storage/h15085-dell-emc-unity-unisphere-overview.pdf


Question 11:

A system administrator has configured a system using the Initial Configuration wizard. After completing the wizard, the administrator discovers that an incorrect IP address has been assigned to the Unity system. How can the IP address be changed?

A. The IP address cannot be changed once it has been configured

B. Through the Service interface using the ifconfig command

C. In the Unisphere Settings menu

D. The IP address can only be changed using the UEMCLI

Correct Answer: D

The svc_initial_config UEMCLI command sets up initial system configuration. It configures a management IP address when the Connection Utility (CU) is not available on the network. If an address is set, this command can also change the management IPv4 and IPv6 configuration mode. It attempts to configure the system with the given friendly name and/or network parameters.

Note: The Unisphere CLI (UEMCLI) is a tool that provides us with the CLI access to perform the same actions as one would on the Unisphere web interface. References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu69328.pdf (page 60)


Question 12:

What is the maximum number of LUNs in a Consistency Group?

A. 25

B. 50

C. 75

D. 100

Correct Answer: C

The consistency group (CG) term is used for grouping several LUNs together in order to ensure write-order consistency over several volumes. Each LUN can contain up to 2 TB, and the total supported capacity can be up to 150 TB. References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RecoverPoint


Question 13:

Which migration tool can be used to move file data a Unity storage array in both NFS and CIFS/SMB protocols?

A. EMC Select Datadobi

B. Unity Async Replication

C. rsync

D. EMCopy

Correct Answer: D

EMcopy will work to copy the data from Solaris host to export CIFS and NFS including the security configuration. References: https://it.toolbox.com/question/copy-data-from-nfs-shared-file-systems-to-nfs-and-cifs-101012


Question 14:

Which step must be completed prior to performing the initial configuration of a UnityVSA system and creating the first storage pool?

A. Create an ESXi host profile

B. License the system for NFS and SMB support

C. Add vDisks to the storage appliance

D. Install license keys for thin provisioning

Correct Answer: C

UNITY VSA STORAGE POOL CREATION

1.

Under the Storage Pool Section go to Pools. Select the to start the “Create Pool Wizard”.

2.

Name the Pool

3.

Assign a Tier to each Virtual Disk attached to the VSA. You have Extreme, Performance and Capacity.

Etc.

References: https://samshouseblog.com/2016/06/08/unity-vsa-storage-pool-creation/


Question 15:

What is the minimum and maximum recovery point objectives (RPO) configurable when using Unity native asynchronous replication?

A. Minimum= 5 minutes Maximum= 24 hours

B. Minimum= 5 minutes Maximum= 48 hours

C. Minimum= 1 minute Maximum= 24 hours

D. Minimum= 1 minute Maximum= 48 hours

Correct Answer: A

Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is an industry accepted term that indicates the acceptable amount of data, measured in units of time, that may be lost in a failure. When you set up an asynchronous replication session, you can configure automatic synchronization based on the RPO. You can specify an RPO from a minimum of 5 minutes up to a maximum of 1440 minutes (24 hours).

References: https://www.emc.com/dam/uwaem/documentation/unity-p-replication-config.pdf (page 7)


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