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Question 1:

A user calls the helpdesk to report that their local printer is not printing any of the jobs that have been submitted this morning. Other users in the vicinity are not having any issues printing to the same unit via the network. The user in question

connects to the printer over USB cable that connects to a laptop dock.

Which of the following is MOST likely at fault here?

A. The user\’s dock has a power problem with its built-in USB port(s).

B. The printer only supports USB 2.0 and the user has a USB 3.0 enabled dock.

C. The printer accidentally had its onboard wired network jack disabled.

D. Other users are overloading the printer causing it to run out of memory.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

A network DHCP server crashes and has to be rebuilt from scratch. Shortly afterwards many users report an “Address Conflict” alert on their computers. Which of the following tools should the users run to help fix this issue?

A. route

B. ipconfig

C. netstat

D. nbtstat

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A loud clicking noise in a RAID array indicates which of the following is MOST likely failing?

A. Hard drive

B. Power supply

C. Audio adapter

D. RAID controller

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which of the following can a technician implement to ensure that only company owned mobile devices can connect to the wireless network?

A. Deploy a script to auto-configure employees\’ mobile devices wireless settings.

B. Configure MAC address filtering on the access points.

C. Implement a wireless policy and train all users.

D. Enable WPA2-Personal with a strong password.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A technician, Joe, is running a diagnostic program on a laptop when it shuts down after running for 10 minutes. Which of the following should he do before disassembling the laptop?

A. Use compressed air to blow the dust out of all the fans

B. Hard reset the computer and attempt to boot it into the operating system

C. Run CHKDSK on the laptop\’s hard drive

D. Remove the battery and re-run the diagnostic program

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Ann, a technician, is taking apart a laptop to replace some components. Which of the following will allow Ann to put the laptop back together properly and in a timely fashion?

A. Have an identical laptop on hand to compare

B. Label screws and their location

C. Use a magnetic screwdriver

D. Ask a fellow technician to help

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A user has a remote share that requires them to authenticate with a different set of credentials. Which of the following commands could a technician use to map this share?

A. TRACERT

B. NET USE

C. NSLOOKUP

D. NETSTAT

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A user claims that they recently had a virus infection and even after the infection was cleared, the user\’s web browser is still redirected to the same incorrect website when it is opened. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A. Verify that the browser\’s cookies have been cleared.

B. Run an IPCONFIG /FLUSHDNS.

C. Check that the browser version is the latest release.

D. Run an IPCONFIG /ALL and verify the correct DHCP server.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A user\’s computer consistently shuts down several minutes after booting. When the technician reboots the computer, a message stating “CPU fan failure” appears. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the computer shuts down?

A. Overheating

B. Power supply failure

C. Faulty CPU

D. High humidity

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

A technician recently installed a new video card in a PC. The PC already has integrated video on the motherboard. When the technician turns on the PC, there is no video. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. The motherboard BIOS version is out of date.

B. The incorrect video card drivers are installed.

C. The power connector for the video card is unplugged.

D. The video card is unsupported by the motherboard.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A user\’s CRT display is not displaying colors correctly. Turning the display to the right or left sometimes temporarily corrects the problem. Which of the following should the technician check?

A. The video card display driver

B. The CRT power cable

C. The video cable

D. The CRT On Screen Display (OSD)

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A user calls the helpdesk and states that they suddenly cannot connect to the Internet or any other network resources. The user is on a company network that uses DHCP. The technician runs IPCONFIG from the command prompt and the PC has an IP address of 0.0.0.0. Which of the following steps should the technician perform FIRST to troubleshoot this issue?

A. Check the network cable

B. Replace network card

C. Assign a static IP address

D. Reinstall the network drivers

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A technician is repairing a workstation that exhibits random reboots at odd times of the day. Which of the following should be performed FIRST when troubleshooting the issue? (Select TWO).

A. Check the PSU integrity

B. Check the CMOS battery

C. Check the video card integrity

D. Check the memory integrity

E. Check the optical drive integrity

Correct Answer: AD


Question 14:

A technician notices a computer is overheating after 30 minutes of use. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. Clogged temporary file folders

B. Internal dust buildup

C. Incorrect input voltage setting

D. ACPI is disabled

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A technician is having boot issues with a newly built PC, and notices the following jumper configurations for each PATA device:

HARD DRIVE. MASTER OPTICAL DRIVE. CABLE SELECT

Which of the following jumper configurations should be used instead?

A. HDD. Cable Select; Optical Drive. Master

B. HDD. Cable Select; Optical Drive. Cable Select

C. HDD. Slave; Optical Drive. Slave

D. HDD. Master; Optical Drive. Master

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

When an SSID is configured with Sign-On Splash page enabled, which two settings must be configured for unauthenticated clients to have full network access and not be allow listed? (Choose two.)

A. Controller disconnection behavior

B. Captive Portal strength

C. Simultaneous logins

D. Firewall and traffic shaping

E. RADIUS for splash page settings

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/Access_Control


Question 2:

Which design requirement is met by implementing syslog versus SNMP?

A. when automation capabilities are needed

B. when proactive alerts for critical events must be generated

C. when organization-wide information must be collected

D. when information such as flows and client connectivity must be gathered

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Monitoring_and_Reporting/Meraki_Device_Reporting_-_Syslog,_SNMP,_and_API


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. The VPN concentrator is experiencing issues. Which action should be taken to ensure a stable environment?

A. Add a deny any/any firewall rule to the end of the firewall rules.

B. Remove the connection from Internet 1.

C. Physically disconnect all LAN ports.

D. Configure the MX appliance to Routed mode on the Addressing and VLANS page.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. A packet arrives on the VPN concentrator with source IP 10.168.70.3 and destined for IP 10.116.32.4. What is the next hop for the packet, based on this concentrator routing table?

A. The concentrator gateway (10.128.124.62) is the next hop.

B. Not enough detail is available to determine the next hop.

C. The packet is stopped.

D. The Auto VPN peer “Store 1532 ?appliance” is the next hop.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Company iPads are enrolled in Systems Manager without supervision, and profiles are pushed through Systems Manager. Which outcome occurs when a user attempts to remove the “Meraki Management” profile on an iPad?

A. The “Meraki Management” profile cannot be removed.

B. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed and then pushed automatically by Systems Manager.

C. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles that Systems Manager pushed are also removed.

D. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles Systems Manager pushed remain.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which two features and functions are supported when using an MX appliance in Passthrough mode? (Choose two.)

A. intrusion prevention

B. site-to-site VPN

C. secondary uplinks

D. DHCP

E. high availability

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Networks_and_Routing/Passthrough_Mode_on_the_MX_Security_Appliance_and_Z-series_Teleworker_Gateway


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. What are the Loss and Average Latency statistics based on?

A. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing hostnames on the Insight > Web App Health page

B. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Security and SD-WAN > Firewall page

C. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP address that is configured on the Security and SD-WAN > SD-WAN and Traffic Shaping page

D. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Help > Firewall info page

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

In an organization that uses the Co-Termination licensing model, which two operations enable licenses to be applied? (Choose two.)

A. Renew the Dashboard license.

B. License a network.

C. License more devices.

D. Call Meraki support.

E. Wait for the devices to auto-renew.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Co-Termination_Licensing_Overview


Question 9:

Which two Systems Manager Live tools are available only for Apple Macs and Windows PCs and cannot be used on iOS or Android mobile devices? (Choose two.)

A. OS updates

B. Send notification

C. Selective wipe

D. Screenshot

E. Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/SM/Other_Topics/Systems_Manager_FAQ


Question 10:

What are two ways peers interact with ports that Auto VPN uses? (Choose two.)

A. For IPsec tunneling, peers use high UDP ports within the 32768 to 61000 range.

B. Peers contact the VPN registry at UDP port 9350.

C. For IPsec tunneling, peers use high TCP ports within the 32768 to 61000 range.

D. Peers contact the VPN registry at TCP port 9350.

E. For IPsec tunneling, peers use UDP ports 500 and 4500.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Site-to-site_VPN/Meraki_Auto_VPN_-_Configuration_and_Troubleshooting


Question 11:

What occurs when a configuration change is made to an MX network that is bound to a configuration template?

A. The configuration change in the bound network is combined with the template configuration inside the template.

B. The more restrictive configuration is preferred.

C. The configuration change in the bound network overrides the template configuration.

D. The template configuration overrides the configuration change in the bound network.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Templates_and_Config_Sync/Managing_Multiple_Networks_with_Configuration_Templates


Question 12:

One thousand concurrent users stream video to their laptops. A 30/70 split between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz is used. Based on client count, how many APs (rounded to the nearest whole number) are needed?

A. 26

B. 28

C. 30

D. 32

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. For an AP that displays this alert, which network access control method must be in use?

A. preshared key

B. WPA2-enterprise with my RADIUS server

C. splash page with my RADIUS server

D. MAC-based access control with RADIUS server

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which Meraki Dashboard menu section is accessed to enable Sentry enrollment on an SSID?

A. Wireless > Configure > Access Control

B. Wireless > Configure > Splash page

C. Wireless > Configure > Firewall and Traffic Shaping

D. Wireless > Configure > SSIDs

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/MR_Splash_Page/Systems_Manager_Sentry_Enrollment


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. This Dashboard organization uses Co-Termination licensing model.

What happens when an additional seven APs are claimed on this network without adding licenses?

A. All APs immediately stop functioning.

B. All network devices stop functioning in 30 days.

C. One AP Immediately stops functioning.

D. All APs stop functioning in 30 days.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Match the log file name with the CyberArk Component that generates the log.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

In version 10.7 the correct order of installation for components changed. Make the necessary corrections to the list below to show the new installation order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

The vault does not support Role Based Access Control

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

The Remote Desktop Services role must be property licensed by Microsoft.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

One can create exceptions to the Master Policy based on_________.

A. Safes

B. Platforms

C. Policies

D. Accounts

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following statements are NOT true when enabling PSM recording for a target Windows server? Choose all that apply

A. The PSM software must be installed on the target server

B. PSM must be enabled in the Master Policy {either directly, or through exception).

C. PSMConnect must be added as a local user on the target server

D. RDP must be enabled on the target server

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

It is possible to disable the Show and Copy buttons without removing the Retrieve permission on a safe.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

During LDAP/S integration you should specify the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) of the Domain Controller

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which Master Policy?

A. Password Expiration Time

B. Enabling and Disabling of the Connection Through the PSM

C. Password Complexity

D. The use of “One-Time-Passwords”

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

When on-boarding accounts using Accounts Feed. Which of the following is true”?

A. You must specify an existing Safe where the account will be stored when it is on-boarded to the Vault.

B. You can specify the name of a new safe that will be created where the account will be stored when it is on-boarded to the Vault.

C. You can specify the name of a new Platform that will be created and associated with the account.

D. Any account that is on-boarded can be automatically reconciled regardless of the platform it is

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

The Vault Internal safe contains the configuration for an LDAP integration

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What is the purpose of the Allowed Safes parameter in a CPM policy? Select all that apply.

A. To improve performance by reducing CPU workload.

B. To prevent accidental use of a policy in the wrong safe.

C. To allow users to access only the passwords they should be able to access.

D. To enforce Least Privilege in CyberArk.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 13:

The Vault Internal safe contains all of the configuration for the vault.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

One time passwords reduce the risk of Pass the Hash vulnerabilities in Windows

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What are the operating system prerequisites for installing CPM? Select all that apply.

A. NET 3.51 Framework Feature

B. Web Services Role

C. Remote Desktop Services Role

D. Windows 2008 R2 or higher

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

The following are reasons why access to information is key. Which is not an ICM OOTB capability?

A. Capture and activation of information in the context of a case

B. Access to web based news sources

C. Access to critical content for decisions, as evidence in a case and as a source for deeper insights

D. Virtually 360-degree view of case information

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

In Malaysia Bii Maybank eliminated the time it takes to open a new account and dramatically increased customer satisfaction in the process. By how much did Bii Maybank reduce account opening time?

A. 22 percent

B. 33 percent

C. 41 percent

D. 60 percent

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What is Content Manager OnDemand “optimized” for?

A. Workflows

B. Content Analytics

C. Individual documents

D. Large scale storage of print output

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

If a bank eliminates daily courier pickups by scanning documents in the branch, approximately how many US dollars will it save per branch per day?

A. 3 dollars

B. 40 dollars

C. 70 dollars

D. 120 dollars

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which is not a “Top of Mind” need for case interested executives?

A. Effectiveness of core LOB applications

B. Providing comprehensive visibility into process metrics, spend and customer satisfaction

C. Increasing IT spending

D. Adhering to regulatory compliance and maintaining proper controls and records

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

What percentage of CIOs is making plans to focus on mobility?

A. 84%

B. 50%

C. 27%

D. 5%

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which IBM bundle comes with Content Navigator?

A. IBM Content Foundation

B. IBM Connections ContentManager

C. IBM Connections Enterprise Content Edition

D. A and C

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

IBM Case Manager includes key differentiators across the competition including:

A. Based on an industry leading BRMS (business rules) platform

B. Rapid time-to-value with template support and a LOB based design environment

C. Based on an industry leading collaboration platform

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which is a key benefit of the Legacy Data Cleanup Solution?

A. Identifies sensitive or toxic content

B. Archives data according to its value

C. Maintains a data map of the organization

D. Is a DoD 5015.2 certified recordsrepository

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following Datacap features help to eliminate expensive, error-prone manual data entry problems associated with document imaging?

A. Keyword search

B. Optical character recognition (OCR) and text analytics

C. Math calculations

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

How does Datacap software assure that a new application has been entirely filled-in?

A. Datacap verification checks can review that data is populated in all key fields. If missing, it sends an email to branch personnel before the customer has left the branch

B. Datacap sends the file overseas to a team of verifiers who comb through each application

C. Datacap rules will not allow a document to be scanned unless it is filled in

D. Datacap provides a step-by-step guide for the customer to follow when filling in the form

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which of the following is not considered a “top of mind” consideration for implementing Value Based Archiving?

A. Reducing the risk potential for sharing sensitive, inappropriate, or private information

B. Finding “smoking gun” emails before they can be used against you

C. Elimination of redundant, obsolete, and trivial content

D. Capturing email for compliance and legal purposes

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Who are the 5 information stakeholders within an organization represented in the Information Governance Reference Model (IGRM)?

A. Legal,RIM,IT, Business and Privacy/Security

B. Legal, IT,Facilities,Business and RIM

C. Legal,Business,C-Suite, IT and Privacy/Security

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following increases the cost and complexity of the collection process?

A. Employees undertaking their own collection process without organizational authorization.

B. The migration of enterprise data to unsecured personal mobile devices.

C. Arduous chain-of-custody documentation on diverse data sources, collection methods and rising information volumes.

D. Intensive post-review computational analysis.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality?

A. To protect the camera electronics

B. To protect the camera mechanics

C. To protect the camera lens

D. To protect the camera power

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in popularity because

A. There is more energy in DC.

B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.

C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.

D. There is less risk for surge with DC.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)

A. AXIS M3114-R

B. AXIS P3304-VR

C. AXIS P1344-E

D. AXIS P3344-VE

E. AXIS M1031-W

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video at any time?

A. AXIS Camera Station

B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)

C. AXIS Camera Management

D. AXIS Media Control

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Axis recommends shielded cables for outdoor installations primarily to ensure

A. Image quality.

B. Surge protection.

C. Life time of cable installations.

D. Conformity with SMPTE standard.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?

A. Image contrast

B. White balance

C. Color saturation

D. Image brightness

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact on recorded video during server maintenance?

A. Local storage at the camera

B. Meta data stream

C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)

D. SNMP

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely setting to address the blurring?

A. Gain level

B. Brightness

C. Backlight compensation

D. Shutter speed

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?

A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates

B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity

C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting

D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between three predefined positions?

A. Configure the camera\’s I/O ports to control the preset positions

B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions

C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick

D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which of the following conditions has to be met to use multicast streaming?

A. The network infrastructure has to support multicast

B. The client has to run AXIS Camera Management or AXIS Camera Station

C. The client has to support streaming over RTSP

D. The video device needs to run on firmware version 5.20 or higher

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

In order to comply with SMPTE standards of HDTV, the camera must meet the following:

A. Light sensitivity, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity

B. Aspect ratio, resolution, light sensitivity, frame rate

C. Light sensitivity, color fidelity, frame rate, aspect ratio

D. Frame rate, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

The Axis pixel counter allows a user to

A. Convert pixels to actual distances.

B. Verify that the resolution requirements for a scene are met.

C. Determine the file size for each video frame.

D. Specify different exposure zones in a scene.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

If a camera is pointed down a hallway with no windows and the color seems “washed out” or faded, which of the following settings should first be adjusted to improve the image?

A. Decrease image brightness

B. Increase image contrast

C. Uncheck backlight compensation

D. Adjust the exposure settings

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

In a switched network with Unicast

A. Data packets are sent only to one recipient no other computers will receive the data.

B. Data packets can only be sent in one direction, for example from the camera to the server.

C. Only one camera at a time can send data packets through the network, to avoid congestion.

D. All data packets are transmitted in a unified size, enabling network optimization.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

You have a subscription to Dynamics 365 for Marketing.

You need to recommend which analytics tools should be used for each channel measured by your subscription.

Which analytics tools should be used for seeing the data by contact or by lead? Each tool may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

You are responsible for all outgoing marketing emails at Contoso, Ltd.

You are tasked with the best practices aimed at increasing delivery and interaction rates.

Which question is answered by the email insight statistic listed? To answer, drag the email statistic to the question answered by that statistic. Each statistic may be used one, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar

between panes or scroll to view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

DRAG DROP

You are creating a survey using a Dynamics 365 for Marketing Surveys. You need to include multiple question types.

Which survey question types presents the best choice for each scenario/example presented? To answer, drag the appropriate survey question to the scenario/example. Each survey question type may be used once, more than once or not at

all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-of-customer/plan-survey


Question 4:

DRAG DROP

You are setting up a conference event that will have a capacity of 500 people.

You want to enable a waitlist for the event so that if more than 500 people register and someone cancels their registration, the event will automatically register the next available person on the list.

Which three steps should you take, in sequence, to complete your task? (Choose three.) To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/event-waitlist


Question 5:

DRAG DROP You have been asked to create a report that shows your company\’s customer journeys by status reason. Which Status Reasons correspond to the descriptions? To answer, drag the appropriate Status Reason to the correct description. Each Status Reason may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar

between panes or scroll to view the content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/go-live


Question 6:

DRAG DROP

You have been asked to create a customer journey that meets this goal: Send an email to all cat owners, then follow up with a text message to those contacts who opened the email, waiting one day between actions.

Which five actions should you perform, in sequence, to meet the requirements? (Choose five.) To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

DRAG DROP

The VP of Marketing has been assigned to create you a new lead scoring model for Contoso, Ltd. based on recently-adopted marketing targets.

Which five steps in sequence are required to design and set up your lead scoring model in Dynamics 365? (Choose five.) To answer, move the appropriate actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/score-manage-leads


Question 8:

DRAG DROP

You want to create a method that will alert sales people when a lead is ready to be sold to.

This method should automatically move the lead to the Sales-Acceptance stage of the lead life-cycle.

Which four steps must you take, in order to complete your task? (Choose four.) To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/set-up-lead-scoring


Question 9:

DRAG DROP

You are creating a lead scoring model.

You need to set up scoring, based on both explicit data and implicit data.

Which scenario represents the appropriate data type? To answer, drag each scenario to the appropriate data type. Each data type may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to

view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://community.dynamics.com/crm/b/zsoltzombiksblog/archive/2016/03/06/lead-scoring-rules-and-examples-in-microsoft-dynamics-marketing


Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Your marketing department purchases a file with a list of leads.

Which actions should you perform, in sequence, in order to be able to add these leads to a marketing segment? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

DRAG DROP

You are a marketing professional.

You need to create a marketing form that will include a subscription list you have already created. The marketing form will be finalized by a colleague.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange then in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/set-up-subscription-center#add-a-subscription-list-to-a-subscription-form


Question 12:

DRAG DROP

You are a marketing administrator. Your company has a form that prospective clients use for holiday offers.

You need to take down the marketing page that contains the form now that the season is over.

Which three steps are needed, in order, to complete your task? (Choose three.) To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

DRAG DROP

You are an administrator working on a marketing campaign.

You need to understand the various types of digital content that are available for use with marketing.

Which Content Types match with the Purposes that are listed? To answer, drag the appropriate Content Type to the correct purpose. Each Content Type may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar

between panes or scroll to view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Your marketing department has provided you with the information you need to create a dynamic market segment.

Which tool should you use for each type of design? To answer, drag the appropriate tool to the correct type of design. Each tool may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to

view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/create-segment


Question 15:

DRAG DROP

You are a marketing professional who needs to have a segment that is based on a single marketing list.

Which five actions must you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/create-simple-customer-journey


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Question 1:

A 45-year-old male comes to your office for his first annual checkup in the last 10 years. On first impression, he appears overweight but is otherwise healthy and has no specific complaints. He has a brother with diabetes and a sister with high blood pressure. Both of his parents are deceased and his father died of a stroke at age 73. He is a long-standing heavy smoker and only drinks alcohol on special occasions. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 166/90 in the left arm and 164/88 in the right arm. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. He is concerned about his health and does not want to end up on medication, like his siblings. Regarding your initial recommendations, which of the following would be most appropriate?

A. You should take no action and ask him to return to the clinic in 1 year for a repeat blood pressure check.

B. You should immediately start him on an oral antihypertensive medication and ask him to return to the clinic in 1 week.

C. You should advise him to stop smoking, start a strict diet and exercise routine with the goal of losing weight, and return to the clinic in 6 months.

D. You should consider starting a workup for potential causes of secondary hypertension.

E. You should screen him for diabetes and evaluate him for other cardiovascular risk factors before proceeding any further.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none)

Explanation:

Although this is the first time that your patient has been noted to have an elevated blood pressure reading, given his family history and obesity, it is important to consider the coexistence of other cardiovascular risk factors. His evaluation should include, among other things, screening for DM and dyslipidemia along with an ECG. It is reasonable to ask the patient to submit himself to a strict diet (low in fat and salt) and to increase his exercise and activity, since these lifestyle modifications will likely result in weight loss, decreased blood pressure, and improve his risk profile for cardiovascular disease. Nonetheless, it is rarely enough to normalize blood pressure in all but the earliest stages of hypertension. Provided that no other comorbidities exist, the patient should return to clinic in no more than 2 months for a repeat blood pressure check. There is no need to consider secondary causes of hypertension, given his age and presentation.

You should not start antihypertensive medications until further evaluation is completed, and a second elevated reading confirms your diagnosis of hypertension. In the initial evaluation of hypertension (as per the Seventh Report of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure [JNC-7], 2003), it is important to evaluate the patient for end-organ damage. This should include the heart, kidneys, eyes, and nervous system. It is recommended to obtain a urinalysis to assess for proteinuria, glucosuria, or hematuria; to obtain an ECG to evaluate the heart for potential hypertrophy or early signs of cardiovascular disease; to obtain a fasting lipid profile, particularly after the age of 35, to assess the cardiovascular risk profile; and to check the patient\’s renal function to assess for damage or dysfunction. Thyroid function tests are only indicated in the workup of secondary causes of hypertension. According to the JNC-7, this patient\’s blood pressure falls into the stage 2 hypertension classification in which either systolic blood pressure (SBP) is at least 160 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) is at least 100 mmHg.

Stage 1 hypertension is characterized by a SBP of 140159 mmHg and a DBP of 9099 mmHg. Prehypertension is characterized by a SBP of 120139 mmHg and a DBP of 8089 mmHg. Normal blood pressure is characterized by a SBP of less than 120 mmHg and a DBP of less than 80 mmHg. In classifying a patient\’s blood pressure and determining appropriate therapy, the higher of the two categories corresponding to the SBP and DBP is the one that is used. Per JNC-7 guidelines, treatment of stage 2 hypertension should involve the consideration of a two-drug regimen initially. The goal blood pressure in patients with diabetes is a SBP less than 130 mmHg and a DBP less than 80 mmHg. An ACE inhibitor should be used as the drug class has been shown to slow the progression of diabetic nephropathy and reduce albuminuria. Thiazide diuretics, betablockers, and calcium channel blockers are appropriate choices to consider in this patient in addition to an ACE inhibitor.


Question 2:

A 45-year-old male comes to your office for his first annual checkup in the last 10 years. On first impression, he appears overweight but is otherwise healthy and has no specific complaints. He has a brother with diabetes and a sister with high blood pressure. Both of his parents are deceased and his father died of a stroke at age 73. He is a long-standing heavy smoker and only drinks alcohol on special occasions. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 166/90 in the left arm and 164/88 in the right arm. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. He is concerned about his health and does not want to end up on medication, like his siblings

In the initial evaluation of a patient such as this, which of the following should be routinely recommended?

A. a urine microalbumin/creatinine ratio

B. an echocardiogram

C. thyroid function tests

D. renal function tests (serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen [BUN])

E. an exercise stress test

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)

Explanation:

Although this is the first time that your patient has been noted to have an elevated blood pressure reading, given his family history and obesity, it is important to consider the coexistence of other cardiovascular risk factors. His evaluation should include, among other things, screening for DM and dyslipidemia along with an ECG. It is reasonable to ask the patient to submit himself to a strict diet (low in fat and salt) and to increase his exercise and activity, since these lifestyle modifications will likely result in weight loss, decreased blood pressure, and improve his risk profile for cardiovascular disease. Nonetheless, it is rarely enough to normalize blood pressure in all but the earliest stages of hypertension. Provided that no other comorbidities exist, the patient should return to clinic in no more than 2 months for a repeat blood pressure check. There is no need to consider secondary causes of hypertension, given his age and presentation.

You should not start antihypertensive medications until further evaluation is completed, and a second elevated reading confirms your diagnosis of hypertension. In the initial evaluation of hypertension (as per the Seventh Report of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure [JNC-7], 2003), it is important to evaluate the patient for end-organ damage. This should include the heart, kidneys, eyes, and nervous system. It is recommended to obtain a urinalysis to assess for proteinuria, glucosuria, or hematuria; to obtain an ECG to evaluate the heart for potential hypertrophy or early signs of cardiovascular disease; to obtain a fasting lipid profile, particularly after the age of 35, to assess the cardiovascular risk profile; and to check the patient\’s renal function to assess for damage or dysfunction. Thyroid function tests are only indicated in the workup of secondary causes of hypertension. According to the JNC-7, this patient\’s blood pressure falls into the stage 2 hypertension classification in which either systolic blood pressure (SBP) is at least 160 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) is at least 100 mmHg.

Stage 1 hypertension is characterized by a SBP of 140159 mmHg and a DBP of 9099 mmHg. Prehypertension is characterized by a SBP of 120139 mmHg and a DBP of 8089 mmHg. Normal blood pressure is characterized by a SBP of less than 120 mmHg and a DBP of less than 80 mmHg. In classifying a patient\’s blood pressure and determining appropriate therapy, the higher of the two categories corresponding to the SBP and DBP is the one that is used. Per JNC-7 guidelines, treatment of stage 2 hypertension should involve the consideration of a two-drug regimen initially. The goal blood pressure in patients with diabetes is a SBP less than 130 mmHg and a DBP less than 80 mmHg. An ACE inhibitor should be used as the drug class has been shown to slow the progression of diabetic nephropathy and reduce albuminuria. Thiazide diuretics, betablockers, and calcium channel blockers are appropriate choices to consider in this patient in addition to an ACE inhibitor.


Question 3:

A42-year-old man without prior significant medical history comes to your office for evaluation of chronic diarrhea of 12 months duration, although the patient states he has had loose stools for many years. During this time he has lost 25 lbs. The diarrhea is large volume, occasionally greasy, and nonbloody. In addition, the patient has mild abdominal pain for much of the day. He has been smoking a pack of cigarettes a day for 20 years and drinks approximately five beers per day. His physical examination reveals a thin male with temporal wasting and generalized muscle loss. He has glossitis and angular cheilosis. He has excoriations on his elbows and knees and scattered papulovesicular lesions in these regions as well Which of the following is the best test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A. abdominal CT scan with contrast

B. small bowel x-ray

C. esophagogastroduodenoscopy with small bowel biopsy

D. colonoscopy with colonic biopsy

E. 72-hour fecal fat quantification

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)

Explanation:

The patient has chronic diarrhea superimposed on a long history of loose stools, steatorrhea, and significant weight loss. While these features could be seen in several diseases, the presence of the pruritic vesiculopapular lesions on his extensor surfaces makes the diagnosis highly likely to be celiac sprue, with its frequently accompanying skin manifestation dermatitis herpetiformis. Crohn\’s disease is not usually associated with steatorrhea, and ulcerative colitis is often associated with bloody stools. Chronic pancreatitis and Whipple disease could cause a similar clinical picture but would not have the associated skin findings. A small bowel biopsy would confirm histopathologic features consistent with celiac sprue, such as villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia. A small bowel biopsy could also diagnose or rule out Whipple disease by looking for the pathognomonic PAS (periodic acid-Schiff) positive organism Tropheryma whippelii. Colonic biopsies would be unhelpful in celiac sprue. A fecal fat quantification would likely confirm and assess the degree of steatorrhea, but would offer little other diagnostic information. A small bowel x-ray is too nonspecific to confirm the diagnosis and an abdominal CT scan would likely be normal unless the patient had developed a complication of advanced sprue, such as intestinal lymphoma. Patients with celiac sprue are at increased risk for malignancies of the small bowel with adenocarcinoma and lymphoma being the two most commonly encountered. Patients with celiac sprue are not at greatly increased risk of the other malignancies listed. Limited data suggest that strict adherence to a glutenfree diet may decrease the incidence of malignancy in these patients.


Question 4:

A42-year-old man without prior significant medical history comes to your office for evaluation of chronic diarrhea of 12 months duration, although the patient states he has had loose stools for many years. During this time he has lost 25 lbs. The diarrhea is large volume, occasionally greasy, and nonbloody. In addition, the patient has mild abdominal pain for much of the day. He has been smoking a pack of cigarettes a day for 20 years and drinks approximately five beers per day. His physical examination reveals a thin male with temporal wasting and generalized muscle loss. He has glossitis and angular cheilosis. He has excoriations on his elbows and knees and scattered papulovesicular lesions in these regions as well What is the most serious long-term complication this patient could face?

A. pancreatic cancer

B. small bowel cancer

C. gastric cancer

D. colon cancer

E. rectal cancer

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)

Explanation:

The patient has chronic diarrhea superimposed on a long history of loose stools, steatorrhea, and significant weight loss. While these features could be seen in several diseases, the presence of the pruritic vesiculopapular lesions on his extensor surfaces makes the diagnosis highly likely to be celiac sprue, with its frequently accompanying skin manifestation dermatitis herpetiformis. Crohn\’s disease is not usually associated with steatorrhea, and ulcerative colitis is often associated with bloody stools. Chronic pancreatitis and Whipple disease could cause a similar clinical picture but would not have the associated skin findings. A small bowel biopsy would confirm histopathologic features consistent with celiac sprue, such as villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia. A small bowel biopsy could also diagnose or rule out Whipple disease by looking for the pathognomonic PAS (periodic acid-Schiff) positive organism Tropheryma whippelii. Colonic biopsies would be unhelpful in celiac sprue. A fecal fat quantification would likely confirm and assess the degree of steatorrhea, but would offer little other diagnostic information. A small bowel x-ray is too nonspecific to confirm the diagnosis and an abdominal CT scan would likely be normal unless the patient had developed a complication of advanced sprue, such as intestinal lymphoma. Patients with celiac sprue are at increased risk for malignancies of the small bowel with adenocarcinoma and lymphoma being the two most commonly encountered. Patients with celiac sprue are not at greatly increased risk of the other malignancies listed. Limited data suggest that strict adherence to a glutenfree diet may decrease the incidence of malignancy in these patients.


Question 5:

A24-year-old male medical student is admitted to the hospital for the evaluation of a 3-month history of bloody stools. The patient has approximately six blood stained or blood streaked stools per day, associated with relatively little, if any, pain. He has not had any weight loss, and he has been able to attend classes without interruption. He denies any fecal incontinence. He has no prior medical history. Review of systems is remarkable only for occasional fevers and the fact that the patient quit smoking approximately 8 months ago. A colonoscopy is performed and reveals a granular, friable colonic mucosal surface with loss of normal vascular pattern from the anal verge to the hepatic flexure of the colon. Biopsies reveal prominent neutrophils in the epithelium and cryptitis with focal crypt abscesses, and no dysplasia. The patient is diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?

A. colectomy

B. oral prednisone

C. oral metronidazole

D. cortisone enemas

E. intravenous cyclosporine

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)

Explanation:

Oral corticosteroids are a mainstay of firstline treatment for moderate-to-severe ulcerative colitis. Starting doses of 40 mg PO daily of prednisone, with a slow taper, are often effective in reducing colonic inflammation, although some patients are unable to wean steroids or maintain remission once achieved. The patient does not have dysplasia in any biopsy specimens, nor does he have signs of systemic toxicity, so a colectomy would be premature. Oral metronidazole is ineffective in ulcerative colitis. Cortisone enemas would be helpful if the patient had isolated left-sided disease, but it is doubtful that enema therapy would reach his hepatic flexure. Intravenous cyclosporine would be used in severe colitis as a last measure before colectomy but this patient is not yet sick enough to warrant such therapy. PSC occurs in approximately 3% of patients with ulcerative colitis and is its major liver complication. It is a chronic inflammatory condition of the biliary tree. It can typically manifest with elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels, and results in diffuse stricturing and pruning of the biliary tree. Wilson disease, hereditary hemochromatosis and alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency are not associated with ulcerative colitis and are not cholestatic liver diseases. Primary biliary cirrhosis could account for these laboratory findings, but is rare in both males and patients with ulcerative colitis. Patients with PSC are at increased risk of developing cholangiocarcinoma but not the other liver tumors mentioned. Patients with celiac sprue are at increased risk for small bowel cancers (adenocarcinoma, lymphoma). Patients with FAP are at increased risk to develop desmoid tumors.


Question 6:

A24-year-old male medical student is admitted to the hospital for the evaluation of a 3-month history of bloody stools. The patient has approximately six blood stained or blood streaked stools per day, associated with relatively little, if any, pain. He has not had any weight loss, and he has been able to attend classes without interruption. He denies any fecal incontinence. He has no prior medical history. Review of systems is remarkable only for occasional fevers and the fact that the patient quit smoking approximately 8 months ago. A colonoscopy is performed and reveals a granular, friable colonic mucosal surface with loss of normal vascular pattern from the anal verge to the hepatic flexure of the colon. Biopsies reveal prominent neutrophils in the epithelium and cryptitis with focal crypt abscesses, and no dysplasia. The patient is diagnosed with ulcerative colitis.

While on the inpatient service, the patient is noted to have a serum alkaline phosphatase of 380 U/L and a bilirubin of 2.4 mg/dL. An ERCP is performed, and the following cholangiogram is obtained. In addition to ulcerative colitis, the patient likely has what other illness?

A. primary biliary cirrhosis

B. Wilson disease

C. alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

D. hereditary hemochromatosis

E. primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

Correct Answer: E Section: (none)

Explanation:

Oral corticosteroids are a mainstay of firstline treatment for moderate-to-severe ulcerative colitis. Starting doses of 40 mg PO daily of prednisone, with a slow taper, are often effective in reducing colonic inflammation, although some patients are unable to wean steroids or maintain remission once achieved. The patient does not have dysplasia in any biopsy specimens, nor does he have signs of systemic toxicity, so a colectomy would be premature. Oral metronidazole is ineffective in ulcerative colitis. Cortisone enemas would be helpful if the patient had isolated left-sided disease, but it is doubtful that enema therapy would reach his hepatic flexure. Intravenous cyclosporine would be used in severe colitis as a last measure before colectomy but this patient is not yet sick enough to warrant such therapy. PSC occurs in approximately 3% of patients with ulcerative colitis and is its major liver complication. It is a chronic inflammatory condition of the biliary tree. It can typically manifest with elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels, and results in diffuse stricturing and pruning of the biliary tree. Wilson disease, hereditary hemochromatosis and alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency are not associated with ulcerative colitis and are not cholestatic liver diseases. Primary biliary cirrhosis could account for these laboratory findings, but is rare in both males and patients with ulcerative colitis. Patients with PSC are at increased risk of developing cholangiocarcinoma but not the other liver tumors mentioned. Patients with celiac sprue are at increased risk for small bowel cancers (adenocarcinoma, lymphoma). Patients with FAP are at increased risk to develop desmoid tumors.


Question 7:

A24-year-old male medical student is admitted to the hospital for the evaluation of a 3-month history of bloody stools. The patient has approximately six blood stained or blood streaked stools per day, associated with relatively little, if any, pain. He has not had any weight loss, and he has been able to attend classes without interruption. He denies any fecal incontinence. He has no prior medical history. Review of systems is remarkable only for occasional fevers and the fact that the patient quit smoking approximately 8 months ago. A colonoscopy is performed and reveals a granular, friable colonic mucosal surface with loss of normal vascular pattern from the anal verge to the hepatic flexure of the colon. Biopsies reveal prominent neutrophils in the epithelium and cryptitis with focal crypt abscesses, and no dysplasia. The patient is diagnosed with ulcerative colitis.

In addition to an increased lifetime risk of colon cancer, the patient is also at increased risk for which of the following tumors?

A. hepatocellular carcinoma

B. hepatoblastoma

C. desmoid tumors

D. small bowel lymphoma

E. cholangiocarcinoma

Correct Answer: E Section: (none)

Explanation:

Oral corticosteroids are a mainstay of firstline treatment for moderate-to-severe ulcerative colitis. Starting doses of 40 mg PO daily of prednisone, with a slow taper, are often effective in reducing colonic inflammation, although some patients are unable to wean steroids or maintain remission once achieved. The patient does not have dysplasia in any biopsy specimens, nor does he have signs of systemic toxicity, so a colectomy would be premature. Oral metronidazole is ineffective in ulcerative colitis. Cortisone enemas would be helpful if the patient had isolated left-sided disease, but it is doubtful that enema therapy would reach his hepatic flexure. Intravenous cyclosporine would be used in severe colitis as a last measure before colectomy but this patient is not yet sick enough to warrant such therapy. PSC occurs in approximately 3% of patients with ulcerative colitis and is its major liver complication. It is a chronic inflammatory condition of the biliary tree. It can typically manifest with elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels, and results in diffuse stricturing and pruning of the biliary tree. Wilson disease, hereditary hemochromatosis and alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency are not associated with ulcerative colitis and are not cholestatic liver diseases. Primary biliary cirrhosis could account for these laboratory findings, but is rare in both males and patients with ulcerative colitis. Patients with PSC are at increased risk of developing cholangiocarcinoma but not the other liver tumors mentioned. Patients with celiac sprue are at increased risk for small bowel cancers (adenocarcinoma, lymphoma). Patients with FAP are at increased risk to develop desmoid tumors.


Question 8:

A61-year-old man comes to your office for a checkup. He currently feels well and has no focal complaints. He has a past medical history significant for wellcontrolled hypertension, and his gallbladder was removed 3 years ago in the setting of acute cholecystitis. He does not smoke and drinks one to two alcoholic beverages per day. Family history is remarkable for colon cancer in his mother at age 45 and a brother at age 49. He has a sister who developed endometrial cancer at age 53. He has never undergone colon cancer screening and is interested in pursuing this. The patient\’s family history is strongly suggestive of which of the following?

A. familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) syndrome

B. hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) syndrome

C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

D. Cronkhite-Canada syndrome

E. Turcot syndrome

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)

Explanation:

The patient should undergo screening colonoscopy, especially with his strongly positive family history of first-degree relatives developing colon cancer before age 50. Colonoscopy is the only test that can directly evaluate the entire colon and rectum. Most polyps can be removed completely at colonoscopy, and large lesions or masses can be directly biopsied. Virtual colonoscopy and barium enema combined with flexible sigmoidoscopy are good tests, but any positive findings on either of these tests would warrant further examination with colonoscopy. Barium enema alone is insufficient for screening. Fecal occult blood testing is helpful as a screening tool, but would be inadequate alone in this patient given his family history. The patient satisfies criteria for HNPCC, a syndrome seen in patients with germline mutations in DNA mismatch repair (MMR) genes. He has three first-degree relatives with cancer of the colorectum, endometrium, small bowel, ureter, or renal pelvis (all of whom are first-degree relatives of each other). The colorectal cancers involve at least two generations and at least one case was diagnosed before age

50. FAP involves a mutation of the APC gene and results in dense colonic polyposis, mandibular osteomas, and universal colon cancer at a young age unless colectomy is performed. Peutz Jeghers syndrome results in hamartomatous polyps of the gut as well as mucocutaneous pigmentation changes. Cronkhite-Canada syndrome manifests as GI polyposis, alopecia, cutaneous hyperpigmentation, malnutrition, and dystrophic fingernails. Turcot syndrome is a variant of FAP in which patients can also develop medulloblastoma, glioblastoma multiforme, and hypertrophy of retinal pigmented epithelium.


Question 9:

A 50-year-old female presents to your office for evaluation of solid food dysphagia without weight loss. Symptoms have been present for 6 months and are progressive. The patient has had two episodes of near impaction, but copious water ingestion and repeated swallows allowed the food bolus to pass. She has never had to present to the ER for disimpaction. She drinks five to six beers per day, loves spicy foods, and smokes a pack of cigarettes daily with a total lifetime history of 30 pack-years. She has had intermittent heartburn symptoms for years and has not sought treatment. She takes hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. Review of symptoms reveals chronic cough. Physical examination is unremarkable. Upper endoscopy reveals a distal esophageal stricture with inflammatory changes. Esophageal biopsies reveal benign mucosa with chronic inflammation. Gastric biopsies are unremarkable. Helicobacter pylori testing is negative.

What is the most likely etiology of the patient\’s stricture?

A. alcohol ingestion

B. tobacco use

C. gastroesophageal reflux

D. hydrochlorothiazide

E. spicy food ingestion

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)

Explanation:

The patient has a peptic stricture, seen in the setting of long-standing untreated gastroesophageal reflux with esophagitis. The history of progressive solid food dysphagia without weight loss is typical. Tobacco, alcohol, thiazide diuretics, and spicy foods do not predispose to benign esophageal strictures. The patient has developed a peptic stricture, a serious complication of GERD. The patient needs esophageal dilation (either with mechanical or pneumatic dilators) and maximal acid suppression. PPI therapy is superior to histamine receptor antagonist therapy in terms of healing erosive esophagitis. Patients with long-standing GERD are at increased risk of developing Barrett esophagus, a risk factor for esophageal adenocarcinoma. GERD is not a risk factor for esophageal squamous cell cancer, gastric cancer, or duodenal cancer. Patients with chronic H. pylori infection (which this patient did not have) are at increased risk for a form of gastric lymphoma known as a MALT-oma.


Question 10:

A 50-year-old female presents to your office for evaluation of solid food dysphagia without weight loss. Symptoms have been present for 6 months and are progressive. The patient has had two episodes of near impaction, but copious water ingestion and repeated swallows allowed the food bolus to pass. She has never had to present to the ER for disimpaction. She drinks five to six beers per day, loves spicy foods, and smokes a pack of cigarettes daily with a total lifetime history of 30 pack-years. She has had intermittent heartburn symptoms for years and has not sought treatment. She takes hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. Review of symptoms reveals chronic cough. Physical examination is unremarkable. Upper endoscopy reveals a distal esophageal stricture with inflammatory changes. Esophageal biopsies reveal benign mucosa with chronic inflammation. Gastric biopsies are unremarkable. Helicobacter pylori testing is negative.

What is the next best step in therapy for this patient?

A. esophageal dilation

B. histamine receptor antagonist therapy

C. PPI therapy

D. esophageal dilation with histamine receptor antagonist therapy

E. esophageal dilation with PPI inhibitor therapy

Correct Answer: E Section: (none)

Explanation:

The patient has a peptic stricture, seen in the setting of long-standing untreated gastroesophageal reflux with esophagitis. The history of progressive solid food dysphagia without weight loss is typical. Tobacco, alcohol, thiazide diuretics, and spicy foods do not predispose to benign esophageal strictures. The patient has developed a peptic stricture, a serious complication of GERD. The patient needs esophageal dilation (either with mechanical or pneumatic dilators) and maximal acid suppression. PPI therapy is superior to histamine receptor antagonist therapy in terms of healing erosive esophagitis. Patients with long-standing GERD are at increased risk of developing Barrett esophagus, a risk factor for esophageal adenocarcinoma. GERD is not a risk factor for esophageal squamous cell cancer, gastric cancer, or duodenal cancer. Patients with chronic H. pylori infection (which this patient did not have) are at increased risk for a form of gastric lymphoma known as a MALT-oma.


Question 11:

A 50-year-old female presents to your office for evaluation of solid food dysphagia without weight loss. Symptoms have been present for 6 months and are progressive. The patient has had two episodes of near impaction, but copious water ingestion and repeated swallows allowed the food bolus to pass. She has never had to present to the ER for disimpaction. She drinks five to six beers per day, loves spicy foods, and smokes a pack of cigarettes daily with a total lifetime history of 30 pack-years. She has had intermittent heartburn symptoms for years and has not sought treatment. She takes hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. Review of symptoms reveals chronic cough. Physical examination is unremarkable. Upper endoscopy reveals a distal esophageal stricture with inflammatory changes. Esophageal biopsies reveal benign mucosa with chronic inflammation. Gastric biopsies are unremarkable. Helicobacter pylori testing is negative.

The patient is at increased risk for which of the following illnesses?

A. esophageal squamous cell cancer

B. esophageal adenocarcinoma

C. gastric cancer

D. gastric lymphoma

E. duodenal adenocarcinoma

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)

Explanation:

The patient has a peptic stricture, seen in the setting of long-standing untreated gastroesophageal reflux with esophagitis. The history of progressive solid food dysphagia without weight loss is typical. Tobacco, alcohol, thiazide diuretics, and spicy foods do not predispose to benign esophageal strictures. The patient has developed a peptic stricture, a serious complication of GERD. The patient needs esophageal dilation (either with mechanical or pneumatic dilators) and maximal acid suppression. PPI therapy is superior to histamine receptor antagonist therapy in terms of healing erosive esophagitis. Patients with long-standing GERD are at increased risk of developing Barrett esophagus, a risk factor for esophageal adenocarcinoma. GERD is not a risk factor for esophageal squamous cell cancer, gastric cancer, or duodenal cancer. Patients with chronic H. pylori infection (which this patient did not have) are at increased risk for a form of gastric lymphoma known as a MALT-oma.


Question 12:

A 65-year-old man presents to your office for evaluation of abdominal pain. The patient states that he has epigastric pain that radiates to his back. The pain is worse with eating and improves with fasting. The pain has been present for 6 months and is gradually worsening. The patient has lost 15 lbs but feels his oral intake has been adequate. He complains of greasy stools and frequent thirst and urination. Examination reveals a thin male with temporal wasting and oderate abdominal pain with palpation. The patient consumes approximately 1015 beers per day and smokes a pack of cigarettes per day for the past 20 years. What would be the best initial test to do in this patient?

A. spot fecal fat collection

B. 72-hour fecal fat collection

C. CT scan of the abdomen

D. ERCP

E. upper endoscopy

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)

Explanation:

The patient\’s history and examination are worrisome for pancreatic disease, and he has strong signs of pancreatic insufficiency. His long history of alcohol use suggests the possibility of chronic pancreatitis or pancreatic cancer. Fecal fat studies would only confirm or quantify his steatorrhea. ACT scan would image the pancreas for changes consistent with chronic pancreatitis (duct dilation, calcifications, pseudocysts) and could look for a neoplasm of the pancreas as well. ERCP is not indicated as a first-line test in patients with abdominal pain given its risk of causing acute pancreatitis. Upper endoscopy would be helpful to rule out peptic ulcer disease and other gastric complaints, but would not provide more global information about the abdomen. The patient has greasy stools and weight loss, findings seen in patients with steatorrhea due to chronic pancreatitis.

Patients with steatorrhea malabsorb fat-soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E, and K). “Night blindness” (poor night vision) due to vitamin Adeficiency is common among patients with advanced chronic pancreatitis and likely led to this patient\’s motor vehicle accident. The patient has DM as a consequence of pancreatic endocrine insufficiency, another feature of chronic pancreatitis. Diabetes develops when greater than 8090% of the gland has been destroyed. Patients with chronic pancreatitis have a coexisting loss of glucagon from islet cells and, thus, often become brittle diabetics, with hypoglycemia seen after insulin administration. Vitamin K and B12 deficiency, which the patient may have, do not cause hypoglycemia. The patient was previously noted to eat well, so inadequate oral intake is unlikely. Diabetic education should decrease the rate of chronic insulin overdosage.

The patient has pancreatic exocrine insufficiency and thus cannot produce enough pancreatic enzymes to digest his food. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy in tablet form is a mainstay of therapy for chronic pancreatitis. It can rapidly reverse this problem by providing exogenously produced pancreatic enzymes to break down fats, carbohydrates, and proteins for absorption in the small bowel. The patient would not benefit from additional oral feedings without enzyme supplementation and would only worsen his steatorrhea by doing so. He can take food orally, so feeding via gastrostomy, TPN, or PPN are not indicated. The patient\’s worsening pain and weight loss despite therapy is worrisome for the development of pancreatic cancer. CA-19-9 is frequently (but not universally) elevated in pancreatic cancers, although it can be elevated in cholangiocarcinoma as well. PSA is associated with prostate cancer. CEA is associated with colon cancer. CA-125 is associated with ovarian cancer. AFP is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma.


Question 13:

A 65-year-old man presents to your office for evaluation of abdominal pain. The patient states that he has epigastric pain that radiates to his back. The pain is worse with eating and improves with fasting. The pain has been present for 6 months and is gradually worsening. The patient has lost 15 lbs but feels his oral intake has been adequate. He complains of greasy stools and frequent thirst and urination. Examination reveals a thin male with temporal wasting and oderate abdominal pain with palpation. The patient consumes approximately 1015 beers per day and smokes a pack of cigarettes per day for the past 20 years. On further questioning, the patient reports that he recently had a motor vehicle accident at night because he felt he could not see clearly. The most likely cause of this symptom is which of the following?

A. vitamin B12 deficiency

B. vitamin C deficiency

C. vitamin D deficiency

D. vitamin A deficiency

E. vitamin K deficiency

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)

Explanation:

The patient\’s history and examination are worrisome for pancreatic disease, and he has strong signs of pancreatic insufficiency. His long history of alcohol use suggests the possibility of chronic pancreatitis or pancreatic cancer. Fecal fat studies would only confirm or quantify his steatorrhea. ACT scan would image the pancreas for changes consistent with chronic pancreatitis (duct dilation, calcifications, pseudocysts) and could look for a neoplasm of the pancreas as well. ERCP is not indicated as a first-line test in patients with abdominal pain given its risk of causing acute pancreatitis. Upper endoscopy would be helpful to rule out peptic ulcer disease and other gastric complaints, but would not provide more global information about the abdomen. The patient has greasy stools and weight loss, findings seen in patients with steatorrhea due to chronic pancreatitis.

Patients with steatorrhea malabsorb fat-soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E, and K). “Night blindness” (poor night vision) due to vitamin Adeficiency is common among patients with advanced chronic pancreatitis and likely led to this patient\’s motor vehicle accident. The patient has DM as a consequence of pancreatic endocrine insufficiency, another feature of chronic pancreatitis. Diabetes develops when greater than 8090% of the gland has been destroyed. Patients with chronic pancreatitis have a coexisting loss of glucagon from islet cells and, thus, often become brittle diabetics, with hypoglycemia seen after insulin administration. Vitamin K and B12 deficiency, which the patient may have, do not cause hypoglycemia. The patient was previously noted to eat well, so inadequate oral intake is unlikely. Diabetic education should decrease the rate of chronic insulin overdosage.

The patient has pancreatic exocrine insufficiency and thus cannot produce enough pancreatic enzymes to digest his food. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy in tablet form is a mainstay of therapy for chronic pancreatitis. It can rapidly reverse this problem by providing exogenously produced pancreatic enzymes to break down fats, carbohydrates, and proteins for absorption in the small bowel. The patient would not benefit from additional oral feedings without enzyme supplementation and would only worsen his steatorrhea by doing so. He can take food orally, so feeding via gastrostomy, TPN, or PPN are not indicated. The patient\’s worsening pain and weight loss despite therapy is worrisome for the development of pancreatic cancer. CA-19-9 is frequently (but not universally) elevated in pancreatic cancers, although it can be elevated in cholangiocarcinoma as well. PSA is associated with prostate cancer. CEA is associated with colon cancer. CA-125 is associated with ovarian cancer. AFP is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma.


Question 14:

A 65-year-old man presents to your office for evaluation of abdominal pain. The patient states that he has epigastric pain that radiates to his back. The pain is worse with eating and improves with fasting. The pain has been present for 6 months and is gradually worsening. The patient has lost 15 lbs but feels his oral intake has been adequate. He complains of greasy stools and frequent thirst and urination. Examination reveals a thin male with temporal wasting and oderate abdominal pain with palpation. The patient consumes approximately 1015 beers per day and smokes a pack of cigarettes per day for the past 20 years.

On further evaluation, the patient is found to be diabetic. He has an elevated HgbA1C and fasting hyperglycemia. The patient is sent for diabetic teaching sessions and begun on insulin therapy, but is unable to achieve euglycemia. He experiences frequent bouts of symptomatic hypoglycemia requiring ER visits. What is the most likely cause for these episodes?

A. insulin overdose

B. impaired glucagon production

C. inadequate oral intake

D. vitamin K deficiency

E. vitamin B12 deficiency

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)

Explanation: The patient\’s history and examination are worrisome for pancreatic disease, and he has strong signs of pancreatic insufficiency. His long history of alcohol use suggests the possibility of chronic pancreatitis or pancreatic cancer. Fecal fat studies would only confirm or quantify his steatorrhea. ACT scan would image the pancreas for changes consistent with chronic pancreatitis (duct dilation, calcifications, pseudocysts) and could look for a neoplasm of the pancreas as well. ERCP is not indicated as a first-line test in patients with abdominal pain given its risk of causing acute pancreatitis. Upper endoscopy would be helpful to rule out peptic ulcer disease and other gastric complaints, but would not provide more global information about the abdomen. The patient has greasy stools and weight loss, findings seen in patients with steatorrhea due to chronic pancreatitis.

Patients with steatorrhea malabsorb fat-soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E, and K). “Night blindness” (poor night vision) due to vitamin Adeficiency is common among patients with advanced chronic pancreatitis and likely led to this patient\’s motor vehicle accident. The patient has DM as a consequence of pancreatic endocrine insufficiency, another feature of chronic pancreatitis. Diabetes develops when greater than 8090% of the gland has been destroyed. Patients with chronic pancreatitis have a coexisting loss of glucagon from islet cells and, thus, often become brittle diabetics, with hypoglycemia seen after insulin administration. Vitamin K and B12 deficiency, which the patient may have, do not cause hypoglycemia. The patient was previously noted to eat well, so inadequate oral intake is unlikely. Diabetic education should decrease the rate of chronic insulin overdosage.

The patient has pancreatic exocrine insufficiency and thus cannot produce enough pancreatic enzymes to digest his food. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy in tablet form is a mainstay of therapy for chronic pancreatitis. It can rapidly reverse this problem by providing exogenously produced pancreatic enzymes to break down fats, carbohydrates, and proteins for absorption in the small bowel. The patient would not benefit from additional oral feedings without enzyme supplementation and would only worsen his steatorrhea by doing so. He can take food orally, so feeding via gastrostomy, TPN, or PPN are not indicated. The patient\’s worsening pain and weight loss despite therapy is worrisome for the development of pancreatic cancer. CA-19-9 is frequently (but not universally) elevated in pancreatic cancers, although it can be elevated in cholangiocarcinoma as well. PSA is associated with prostate cancer. CEA is associated with colon cancer. CA-125 is associated with ovarian cancer. AFP is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma.


Question 15:

A 65-year-old man presents to your office for evaluation of abdominal pain. The patient states that he has epigastric pain that radiates to his back. The pain is worse with eating and improves with fasting. The pain has been present for 6 months and is gradually worsening. The patient has lost 15 lbs but feels his oral intake has been adequate. He complains of greasy stools and frequent thirst and urination. Examination reveals a thin male with temporal wasting and oderate abdominal pain with palpation. The patient consumes approximately 1015 beers per day and smokes a pack of cigarettes per day for the past 20 years. The patient\’s abdominal pain worsens and his weight loss progresses despite therapy, and you suspect that he may have a malignancy. If a malignancy was present, which tumor marker would be most likely to be elevated in this patient?

A. carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

B. prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

C. cancer antigen (CA)-125

D. -Fetoprotein (AFP)

E. CA-19-9

Correct Answer: E Section: (none)

Explanation:

The patient\’s history and examination are worrisome for pancreatic disease, and he has strong signs of pancreatic insufficiency. His long history of alcohol use suggests the possibility of chronic pancreatitis or pancreatic cancer. Fecal fat studies would only confirm or quantify his steatorrhea. ACT scan would image the pancreas for changes consistent with chronic pancreatitis (duct dilation, calcifications, pseudocysts) and could look for a neoplasm of the pancreas as well. ERCP is not indicated as a first-line test in patients with abdominal pain given its risk of causing acute pancreatitis. Upper endoscopy would be helpful to rule out peptic ulcer disease and other gastric complaints, but would not provide more global information about the abdomen. The patient has greasy stools and weight loss, findings seen in patients with steatorrhea due to chronic pancreatitis. Patients with steatorrhea malabsorb fat-soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E, and K). “Night blindness” (poor night vision) due to vitamin Adeficiency is common among patients with advanced chronic pancreatitis and likely led to this patient\’s motor vehicle accident. The patient has DM as a consequence of pancreatic endocrine insufficiency, another feature of chronic pancreatitis. Diabetes develops when greater than 8090% of the gland has been destroyed. Patients with chronic pancreatitis have a coexisting loss of glucagon from islet cells and, thus, often become brittle diabetics, with hypoglycemia seen after insulin administration. Vitamin K and B12 deficiency, which the patient may have, do not cause hypoglycemia. The patient was previously noted to eat well, so inadequate oral intake is unlikely. Diabetic education should decrease the rate of chronic insulin overdosage.

The patient has pancreatic exocrine insufficiency and thus cannot produce enough pancreatic enzymes to digest his food. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy in tablet form is a mainstay of therapy for chronic pancreatitis. It can rapidly reverse this problem by providing exogenously produced pancreatic enzymes to break down fats, carbohydrates, and proteins for absorption in the small bowel. The patient would not benefit from additional oral feedings without enzyme supplementation and would only worsen his steatorrhea by doing so. He can take food orally, so feeding via gastrostomy, TPN, or PPN are not indicated. The patient\’s worsening pain and weight loss despite therapy is worrisome for the development of pancreatic cancer. CA-19-9 is frequently (but not universally) elevated in pancreatic cancers, although it can be elevated in cholangiocarcinoma as well. PSA is associated with prostate cancer. CEA is associated with colon cancer. CA-125 is associated with ovarian cancer. AFP is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma.


Latest 400-151 Exam Dumps | Cisco CCIE Data Center Certification

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400-151 exam objectives

Exam Number400-151
Exam Cost300 USD
Associated CertificationCCIE Data Center
Duration120 minutes (90 – 110 questions)
Passing Score 825+ (Total Score:1000)
Available Languages
English

CCIE Data Center Unified Exam Topics v2.1

400-151 CCIE Data Center Written Exam is divided into two parts, written examination and experiment. The 400-151 practice test exam is a 8-hour practice that requires candidates to design, install, configure, optimize, diagnose, and troubleshoot a range of complex data center solutions in accordance with the specifications under the given conditions.

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Written Exam (%)

Lab Exam (%)
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2.0 Cisco Data Center Network Services15%17%
3.0 Data Center Storage Networking and Compute18%20%
4.0 Data Center Automation and Orchestration10%10%
5.0 Data Center Fabric Infrastructure22%25%
6.0 Evolving Technologies v1.110%N/A

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