Oracle Database

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Question 1:

Which three statements are true about performing Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations on a view In an Oracle Database?

A. Insert statements can always be done on a table through a view.

B. The WITH CHECK clause has no effect when deleting rows from the underlying table through the view.

C. Views cannot be used to query rows from an underlying table if the table has a PRIPOARY KEY and the PRIMARY KEY columns are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

D. Views cannot be used to add or modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains the DISTINCT keyword.

E. Views cannot be used to add on modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains aggregating functions.

F. Views cannot be used to add rows to an underlying table if the table has columns with NOT NULL constraints lacking default values Which are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

Correct Answer: DEF


Question 2:

Which four statements are true about constraints on Oracle tables?

A. A Column can have only one CHECK Constraint.

B. A NOT NULL Constraint can be defined at the table level.

C. A UNIQUE constraint permits NULLS.

D. A PRIMARY KEY Constraint can be added after a table has been created and populated.

E. A CHECK Constraint can refer to values in other rows.

F. A UNIQUE Constraint can use a pre-existing index on the constrained column or columns.

G. A FOREIGN KEY Column can contain NULLS.

Correct Answer: CDFG


Question 3:

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT NULLIF(100, 100) FROM DUAL

B. SELECT COALESCE(100, NULL, 200) FROM DUAL

C. SELECT NULLIF(100, \’A\’) FROM DUAL

D. SELECT NULLIF(NULL, 100) FROM DUAL

E. SELECT COALESCE(100, \’A\’ ) FROM DUAL

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

Which three are true about multiple INSERT statements?

A. They can be performed only by using a subquery.

B. They can be performed on relational tables.

C. They can be performed on views.

D. They can be performed on remote tables.

E. They can be performed on external tables using SQL*Loader.

F. They can insert each computed row into more than one table.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 5:

Which three statements are true about GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLES?

A. GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE rows inserted by a session are available to any other session whose user has been granted select on the table.

B. A TRUNCATE command issued in a session causes all rows In a GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE for the issuing session to be deleted.

C. A DELETE command on a GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE cannot be rolled back.

D. A GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE\’s definition is available to multiple sessions.

E. Any GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE rows existing at session termination will be deleted.

F. GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE space allocation occurs at session start.

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 6:

Which two statements are true about CURRENT_TIMEITAMP?

A. The date is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

B. The value varies depending on the setting of SESSIONTIMEZONE.

C. It returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE.

D. The time is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

E. It returns a value of data type TIMESTAMP

F. It always returns the same value as SYSTIMESTAMP

Correct Answer: DF


Question 7:

Which three are true about granting object privileges on tables, views, and sequences?

A. UPDATE can be granted only on tables and views.

B. DELETE can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

C. REFERENCES can be granted only on tables and views.

D. INSERT can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

E. SELECT can be granted only on tables and views.

F. ALTER can be granted only on tables and sequences.

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 8:

Examine the description of the PRODUCTS table Which contains data:

Which two are true?

A. The PROD ID column can be renamed.

B. The PROD_ ID column data type can be changed to VARCHAR2 (2).

C. The EXPIRY DATE column data type can be changed to TIME STAMP.

D. The EXPIRY DATE column cannot be dropped.

E. The PROD NAME column cannot have a DEFAULT clause added to it.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 9:

Which two are true about the WITH GRANT OPTION clause?

A. The grantee can grant the object privilege to any user in the database, with of without including this option.

B. The grantee must have the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE system privilege to use this option.

C. It can be used when granting privileges to roles.

D. It can be used for system and object privileges.

E. It cannot be used to pass on privileges to PUBLIC by the grantee.

F. It can be used to pass on privileges to other users by the grantee.

Correct Answer: AF


Question 10:

Which two statements are true about INTERVAL data types

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a range of years.

B. The value in an INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND column can be copied into an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column.

C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a single year.

D. The YEAR field in an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column must be a positive value.

E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND columns support fractions of seconds.

F. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns support yearly intervals.

Correct Answer: EF


Question 11:

Which three statements are true about a self join?

A. It must be an inner join.

B. It can be an outer join.

C. The ON clause must be used.

D. It must be an equation.

E. The query must use two different aliases for the table.

F. The ON clause can be used.

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 12:

Which two statements are true about Oracle synonyms?

A. A synonym can have a synonym.

B. A synonym has an object number.

C. Any user can create a public synonym.

D. All private synonym names must be unique in the database.

E. A synonym can be created on an object in a package.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

The CUSTOMERS table has a CUST_CREDT_LIMIT column of data type number.

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’)) FROM customers;

B. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

C. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

D. SLECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’Not available\’) from customers;

E. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit,TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’NOT Available\’) FROM customers;

Correct Answer: DE


Question 14:

Which statement is true about aggregate functions?

A. The AVG function implicitly converts NULLS to zero

B. The MAX and MIN functions can be used on columns with character data types

C. Aggregate functions can be used in any clause of a SELECT statement

D. Aggregate functions can be nested to any number of levels

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which three statements are true about defining relations between tables in a relational database?

A. Foreign key columns allow null values.

B. Unique key columns allow null values

C. Primary key columns allow null values.

D. Every primary or unique key value must refer to a matching foreign key value.

E. Every foreign key value must refer to a matching primary or unique key value.

Correct Answer: ABE


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Question 1:

Which four statements are true regarding primary and foreign key constraints and the effect they can have on table data?

A. Only the primary key can be defined at the column and table level.

B. The foreign key columns and parent table primary key columns must have the same names.

C. It is possible for child rows that have a foreign key to remain in the child table at the time the parent row is deleted.

D. A table can have only one primary key but multiple foreign keys.

E. Primary key and foreign key constraints can be defined at both the column and table level.

F. A table can have only one primary key and one foreign key.

G. It is possible for child rows that have a foreign key to be deleted automatically from the child table at the time the parent row is deleted

Correct Answer: CDEG


Question 2:

Which four statements are true about constraints on Oracle tables?

A. A Column can have only one CHECK Constraint.

B. A NOT NULL Constraint can be defined at the table level.

C. A UNIQUE constraint permits NULLS.

D. A PRIMARY KEY Constraint can be added after a table has been created and populated.

E. A CHECK Constraint can refer to values in other rows.

F. A UNIQUE Constraint can use a pre-existing index on the constrained column or columns.

G. A FOREIGN KEY Column can contain NULLS.

Correct Answer: CDFG


Question 3:

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT NULLIF(100, 100) FROM DUAL

B. SELECT COALESCE(100, NULL, 200) FROM DUAL

C. SELECT NULLIF(100, \’A\’) FROM DUAL

D. SELECT NULLIF(NULL, 100) FROM DUAL

E. SELECT COALESCE(100, \’A\’ ) FROM DUAL

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

Which three are true about multiple INSERT statements?

A. They can be performed only by using a subquery.

B. They can be performed on relational tables.

C. They can be performed on views.

D. They can be performed on remote tables.

E. They can be performed on external tables using SQL*Loader.

F. They can insert each computed row into more than one table.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 5:

Which two statements are true about CURRENT_TIMEITAMP?

A. The date is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

B. The value varies depending on the setting of SESSIONTIMEZONE.

C. It returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE.

D. The time is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

E. It returns a value of data type TIMESTAMP

F. It always returns the same value as SYSTIMESTAMP

Correct Answer: DF


Question 6:

Which three are true about granting object privileges on tables, views, and sequences?

A. UPDATE can be granted only on tables and views.

B. DELETE can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

C. REFERENCES can be granted only on tables and views.

D. INSERT can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

E. SELECT can be granted only on tables and views.

F. ALTER can be granted only on tables and sequences.

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 7:

Which two are true about the WITH GRANT OPTION clause?

A. The grantee can grant the object privilege to any user in the database, with of without including this option.

B. The grantee must have the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE system privilege to use this option.

C. It can be used when granting privileges to roles.

D. It can be used for system and object privileges.

E. It cannot be used to pass on privileges to PUBLIC by the grantee.

F. It can be used to pass on privileges to other users by the grantee.

Correct Answer: AF


Question 8:

Which two statements are true about INTERVAL data types

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a range of years.

B. The value in an INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND column can be copied into an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column.

C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a single year.

D. The YEAR field in an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column must be a positive value.

E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND columns support fractions of seconds.

F. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns support yearly intervals.

Correct Answer: EF


Question 9:

Which three statements are true about a self join?

A. It must be an inner join.

B. It can be an outer join.

C. The ON clause must be used.

D. It must be an equation.

E. The query must use two different aliases for the table.

F. The ON clause can be used.

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 10:

Which two statements are true about Oracle synonyms?

A. A synonym can have a synonym.

B. A synonym has an object number.

C. Any user can create a public synonym.

D. All private synonym names must be unique in the database.

E. A synonym can be created on an object in a package.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

The CUSTOMERS table has a CUST_CREDT_LIMIT column of data type number.

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’)) FROM customers;

B. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

C. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

D. SLECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’Not available\’) from customers;

E. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit,TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’NOT Available\’) FROM customers;

Correct Answer: DE


Question 12:

Which statement is true about aggregate functions?

A. The AVG function implicitly converts NULLS to zero

B. The MAX and MIN functions can be used on columns with character data types

C. Aggregate functions can be used in any clause of a SELECT statement

D. Aggregate functions can be nested to any number of levels

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which two statements are true about the COUNT function?

A. It can only be used for NUMBER data types.

B. COUNT (DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULLs in the INV_AMT column

C. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table including duplicate rows and rows containing NULLs in any column.

D. A SELECT statement using the COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause.

E. COUNT(inv_amt) returns the number of rows in a table including rows with NULL in the INV_AMT column.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 14:

In Which three situations does a new transaction always start?

A. When issuing a SELECT FOR UPDATE statement after a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement was issued in the same session

B. When issuing a CREATE INDEX statement after a CREATE TABLE statement completed unsuccessfully in the same session

C. When issuing a TRUNCATE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

D. When issuing a CREATE TABLE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

E. When issuing the first Data Manipulation Language (OML) statement after a COMMIT or ROLLBACK statement was issued in the same session

F. When issuing a DML statement after a DML statement filed in the same session.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 15:

You execute these commands:

CREATE TABLE customers (customer id INTEGER, customer name VARCHAR2 (20));

INSERT INTO customers VALUES (1`Custmoer1 `);

SAVEPOINT post insert;

INSERT INTO customers VALUES (2, \’Customer2 `);

SELECTCOUNT (*) FROM customers;

Which two, used independently, can replace so the query retums 1?

A. ROLLBACK;

B. COMMIT;

C. ROLIBACK TO SAVEPOINT post_ insert;

D. CONOIT TO SAVEPOINT post_ insert;

E. ROLLEBACK TO post_ insert;

Correct Answer: CE


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Question 1:

An Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) finding in your production database reports that the shared pool is inadequately sized. You diagnose that this is due to the different kinds of workloads and this occurs only during peak hours. The following are the parameter settings for the database instance:

You want to balance the memory between the System Global Area (SGA) components depending on the workload. Which option would solve this problem?

A. setting the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter to 200M and the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M

B. setting the MEMORY_TARGET and SGA_MAX_SIZE parameters to 400M

C. setting the SGA_TARGET parameter to 300M

D. setting the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?

A. Oracle Data Pump

B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)

C. Oracle Label Security

D. Oracle Database Vault

E. Oracle Real Application Security

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users complain about performance degradation.

How does real-time Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance degradation and provide solutions?

A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.

B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.

D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

Correct Answer: B

Note:

*

The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases (PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.

*

The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to an Oracle “instance” (an instance is your database programs and RAM).

*

The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control information for a single process.


Question 4:

Examine the following steps of privilege analysis for checking and revoking excessive, unused privileges granted to users:

1.

Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.

2.

Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.

3.

Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.

4.

Revoke the unused privileges.

5.

Compare the used and unused privileges\’ lists.

6.

Stop analyzing the data.

Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A. 1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4

B. 1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 4

C. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4

D. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4

E. 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 4

Correct Answer: B

1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.

3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.

6. Stop analyzing the data.

2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.

5. Compare the used and unused privileges\’ lists.

4. Revoke the unused privileges.


Question 5:

Your database is running an ARCHIVELOG mode.

The following parameters are set in your database instance:

Which statement is true about the archived redo log files?

A. They are created only in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter.

B. They are created only in the Fast Recovery Area because configuring the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST and DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE parameters automatically enables flashback for the database.

C. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the default location $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/arch.

D. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the location specified by the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter.

Correct Answer: A

You can choose to archive redo logs to a single destination or to multiple destinations.

Destinations can be local–within the local file system or an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM) disk group–or remote (on a standby database). When you archive to multiple destinations, a copy of each filled redo log file is

written to each destination. These redundant copies help ensure that archived logs are always available in the event of a failure at one of the destinations. To archive to only a single destination, specify that destination using the

LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST and LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization parameters.

ARCHIVE_DEST initialization parameter. To archive to multiple destinations, you can choose to archive to two or more locations using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n initialization parameters, or to archive only to a primary and secondary

destination using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST and LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization parameters.


Question 6:

Your multitenant container database (CDB) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You connect to the CDB RMAN.

Examine the following command and its output:

You execute the following command:

RMAN > BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;

Which data files will be backed up?

A. Data files that belong to only the root container

B. Data files that belong to the root container and all the pluggable databases (PDBs)

C. Data files that belong to only the root container and PDB$SEED

D. Data files that belong to the root container and all the PDBs excluding PDB$SEED

Correct Answer: B

Backing Up a Whole CDB

Backing up a whole CDB is similar to backing up a non-CDB. When you back up a whole CDB, RMAN backs up the root, all the PDBs, and the archived redo logs. You can then recover either the whole CDB, the root only, or one or more

PDBs from the CDB backup.

Note:

*

You can back up and recover a whole CDB, the root only, or one or more PDBs.

*

Backing Up Archived Redo Logs with RMAN

Archived redo logs are the key to successful media recovery. Back them up regularly. You can back up logs with BACKUP ARCHIVELOG, or back up logs while backing up datafiles and control files by specifying BACKUP … PLUS ARCHIVELOG.


Question 7:

You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage management (ASM). The files are stored in the DATA disk group. You execute the following command:

What is the result?

A. The file ` data.231.45678\’ is physically relocated to ` data/prod\’ and renamed as `myfile.dbf\’.

B. The file ` data.231.45678\’ is renamed as `myfile.dbf\’, and copied to ` data/prod\’.

C. The file ` data.231.45678\’ remains in the same location and a synonym \’myfile.dbf\’ is created.

D. The file `myfile.dbf\’ is created in ` data/prod\’ and the reference to ` data.231.45678\’ in the data dictionary removed.

Correct Answer: C

ADD ALIAS

Use this clause to create an alias name for an Oracle ASM filename. The alias_name consists of the full directory path and the alias itself.


Question 8:

Which three functions are performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor?

A. Building and implementing SQL profiles

B. Recommending the optimization of materialized views

C. Checking query objects for missing and stale statistics

D. Recommending bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes

E. Recommending the restructuring of SQL queries that are using bad plans

Correct Answer: ACE

The SQL Tuning Advisor takes one or more SQL statements as an input and invokes the Automatic Tuning Optimizer to perform SQL tuning on the statements. The output of the SQL Tuning Advisor is in the form of an advice or recommendations, along with a rationale for each recommendation and its expected benefit. The recommendation relates to collection of statistics on objects (C), creation of new indexes, restructuring of the SQL statement (E), or creation of a SQL profile (A). You can choose to accept the recommendation to complete the tuning of the SQL statements.


Question 9:

Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains three pluggable database (PDBs). You find that the control file is damaged. You plan to use RMAN to recover the control file. There are no startup triggers associated with the PDBs.

Which three steps should you perform to recover the control file and make the database fully operational? (Choose three.)

A. Mount the container database (CDB) and restore the control file from the control file autobackup.

B. Recover and open the CDB in NORMAL mode.

C. Mount the CDB and then recover and open the database, with the RESETLOGS option.

D. Open all the pluggable databases.

E. Recover each pluggable database.

F. Start the database instance in the nomount stage and restore the control file from control file autobackup.

Correct Answer: CDF

Step 1: Start the database instance in the nomount stage and restore the control file from control file auto backup

Step 2: Open all the pluggable databases.

Step 3: If all copies of the current control file are lost or damaged, then you must restore and mount a backup control file. You must then run the RECOVER command, even if no data files have been restored, and open the database with the

RESETLOGS option.

Note:

* RMAN and Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control (Cloud Control) provide full support for backup and recovery in a multitenant environment. You can back up and recover a whole multitenant container database (CDB), root only, or one or more pluggable databases (PDBs).


Question 10:

Your database supports a DSS workload that involves the execution of complex queries: Currently, the library cache contains the ideal workload for analysis. You want to analyze some of the queries for an application that are cached in the library cache.

What must you do to receive recommendations about the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query performance?

A. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) on the workload captured in the STS.

B. Run the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report.

C. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA) on the workload captured in the STS.

D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on the workload captured in the STS.

E. Run the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM).

Correct Answer: D

*

SQL Access Advisor is primarily responsible for making schema modification recommendations, such as adding or dropping indexes and materialized views. SQL Tuning Advisor makes other types of recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles and restructuring SQL statements.

*

The query optimizer can also help you tune SQL statements. By using SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL Access Advisor, you can invoke the query optimizer in advisory mode to examine a SQL statement or set of statements and determine how to improve their efficiency. SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL Access Advisor can make various recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles, restructuring SQL statements, creating additional indexes or materialized views, and refreshing optimizer statistics.

Note:

*

Decision support system (DSS) workload

*

The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL code. This cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQL areas and control structures such as locks and library cache handles.


Question 11:

The following parameters are set for your Oracle 12c database instance:

You want to manage the SQL plan evolution task manually. Examine the following steps:

1.

Set the evolve task parameters.

2.

Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.

3.

Implement the recommendations in the task by using the DBMS_SPM.IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK function.

4.

Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.

5.

Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM.REPORT_EVOLVE_TASK function.

Identify the correct sequence of steps:

A. 2, 4, 5

B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

D. 1, 2, 4, 5

Correct Answer: B

* Evolving SQL Plan Baselines

2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.

This function creates an advisor task to prepare the plan evolution of one or more plans for a specified SQL statement. The input parameters can be a SQL handle, plan name or a list of plan names, time limit, task name, and description.

1. Set the evolve task parameters.

SET_EVOLVE_TASK_PARAMETER

This function updates the value of an evolve task parameter. In this release, the only valid parameter is TIME_LIMIT.

4. Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.

This function executes an evolution task. The input parameters can be the task name, execution name, and execution description. If not specified, the advisor generates the name, which is returned by the function.

3: IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK

This function implements all recommendations for an evolve task. Essentially, this function is equivalent to using ACCEPT_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE for all recommended plans. Input parameters include task name, plan name, owner name,

and execution name.

5. Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM_EVOLVE_TASK function.

This function displays the results of an evolve task as a CLOB. Input parameters include the task name and section of the report to include.


Question 12:

Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c Oracle database (source):

Which three are prerequisites for successful execution of the command? (Choose three.)

A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user on the source database with the DATAPUMP_EXP_FULL_DATABASE role.

B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.

C. The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.

D. The source and target database must be running on the same platform with the same endianness.

E. The path of data files on the target database must be the same as that on the source database.

F. The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.

Correct Answer: ABD

In this case we have run the impdp without performing any conversion if endian format is different then we have to first perform conversion.


Question 13:

Examine the current values for the following parameters in your database instance:

SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 700M DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 124M LOG_BUFFER = 200M

You issue the following command to increase the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=140M;

Which statement is true?

A. It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.

B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.

C. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_TARGET.

D. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_MAX_SIZE.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?

A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.

B. The PDB must be closed.

C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.

D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)

E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.

F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.

Correct Answer: BDE

D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode information in an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported way to handle the conversion of such columns automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an endianness difference.

E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the source and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so that the PDB\’s datafiles can remain in place. The PDB must be closed before it can be unplugged. When you unplug a PDB from a CDB, the unplugged PDB is in mounted mode. The unplug operation makes some changes in the PDB\’s data files to record, for example, that the PDB was successfully unplugged. Because it is still part of the CDB, the unplugged PDB is included in an RMAN backup of the entire CDB. Such a backup provides a convenient way to archive the unplugged PDB in case it is needed in the future.


Question 15:

Examine the following command:

Which three statements are true about using an invisible column in the PRODUCTS table?

A. The %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL to access a row will not display the invisible column in the output.

B. The DESCRIBE commands in SQL *Plus will not display the invisible column in the output.

C. Referential integrity constraint cannot be set on the invisible column.

D. The invisible column cannot be made visible and can only be marked as unused.

E. A primary key constraint can be added on the invisible column.

Correct Answer: ABE

AB: You can make individual table columns invisible. Any generic access of a table does not show the invisible columns in the table. For example, the following operations do not display invisible columns in the output:

*

SELECT * FROM statements in SQL

*

DESCRIBE commands in SQL*Plus

*

%ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL

*

Describes in Oracle Call Interface (OCI) Incorrect Answers:

D: You can make invisible columns visible.

You can make a column invisible during table creation or when you add a column to a table, and you can later alter the table to make the same column visible.


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Question 1:

You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference. Which method or feature should you use?

A. Database Replay

B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report

C. Active Session History (ASH) report

D. SQL Performance Analyzer

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E24628_01/server.121/e17635/tdppt_degrade.htm


Question 2:

What can be automatically implemented after the SQL Tuning Advisor is run as part of the Automated Maintenance Task?

A. statistics recommendations

B. SQL profile recommendations

C. SQL statement restructure recommendations

D. creation of materialized views to improve query performance

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e16638/sql_tune.htm#PFGRF028


Question 3:

Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMm) is enabled for your database instance, but parameters for the managed components are not defined.

You execute this command:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE = 100M;

Which statement is true?

A. The minimum size for the standard buffer cache is 100 MB.

B. The maximum size for the standard buffer cache is 100 MB.

C. The minimum space guaranteed in the buffer cache for any server process is 100 MB.

D. The maximum space in the buffer cache that can be released for dynamic distribution is 100 MB.

E. The minimum size for all buffer caches is 100 MB.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

You have a production Oracle 12c database running on a host.

You want to install and create databases across multiple new machines that do not have any Oracle database software installed. You also want the new databases to have the same directory structure and components as your existing 12c

database.

The steps in random order:

1.Create directory structures similar to the production database on all new machines. 2.Create a response file for Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) with the same configurations as the production database.

3.Create a database clone template for the database.

4.Run the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database.

5.Run OUI in graphical mode on each machine.

6.Run OUI in silent mode using the OUI response file.

Identify the required steps in the correct sequence to achieve the requirement with minimal human intervention.

A. 2, 1, 6, and 4

B. 2, 3, and 6

C. 3, 1, 5, and 6

D. 2, 3, 1, and 6

E. 1, 5, and 4

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which two statements are true about a common user?

A. A common user connected to a pluggable database (PDB) can exercise privileges across other PDBs.

B. A common user with the create user privilege can create other common users, as well as local users.

C. A common user can be granted only a common role.

D. A common user can have a local schema in a PDB.

E. A common user always uses the global temporary tablespace that is defined at the CDB level as the default temporary tablespace.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

Which three statements are true about persistent lightweight jobs?

A. A user cannot set privileges on them.

B. They generate large amounts of metadata.

C. They may be created as fully self-contained jobs.

D. They must reference an existing Scheduler Program.

E. The are useful when users need to create a large number of jobs quickly.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 7:

Which three statements are true about compression of backup sets?

A. Compressed backups can only be written to media.

B. Binary compression creates performance overhead during a backup operation.

C. Unused blocks below the high-water mark are not backed up.

D. Compressed backups cannot have section size defined during a backup operation

E. It works only for locally managed tablespaces.

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 8:

You issue the RMAN commands:

RMAN> CONFIGURE DEFAULT DEVICE TYPE TO disk;

RKAN> CONFIGURE DEVICE TYPE DISK BACKUP TYPE TO COPY;

RMAN>CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP ON;

RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;

Which three tasks are performed by the BACKUP DATABASE command?

A. switching the online redo log file

B. backing up all data files as image copies and archive log files, and deleting those archive log files

C. backing up only the used blocks in the data files

D. backing up all used and unused blocks in the data files

E. backing up all archived log files and marking them as obsolete

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 9:

A complete database backup to media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?

A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.

B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.

C. Configure large pool if not already done.

D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.

E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by media manager.

F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.

Correct Answer: BCD

Tuning RMAN Backup Performance: Procedure Many factors can affect backup performance. Often, finding the solution to a slow backup is a process of trial and error. To get the best performance for a backup, follow the suggested steps in this section: Step 1: Remove RATE Parameters from Configured and Allocated Channels Step 2: If You Use Synchronous Disk I/O, Set DBWR_IO_SLAVES Step 3: If You Fail to Allocate Shared Memory, Set LARGE_POOL_SIZE Step 4: Tune RMAN Tape Streaming Performance Bottlenecks Step 5: Query V$ Views to Identify Bottlenecks Reference:https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmtunin.htm#BRADV172


Question 10:

For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?

A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog

B. available archived redo log files

C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete

D. backups of tablespaces

E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation: About the LIST Command: The primary purpose of the LIST command is to list backup and copies. For example, you can list: -Backups and proxy copies of a database, tablespace, datafile, archived redo log, or control file Backups that have expired -Backups restricted by time, path name, device type, tag, or recoverability -Archived redo log files and disk copies Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmreprt.htm#BRADV89585


Question 11:

You want to export the pluggable database (PDB) hr pdb1 from the multitenant container database (CDB)CDB1 and import it into the cdb2 CDB as the emp_pdb1 PDB.

Examine the list of possible steps required to perform the task:

1.Create a PDB named emp_pdb1.

2.Export the hr_pdb1 PDB by using the full clause.

3.Open the emp_pdb1 PDB.

4.Mount the emp_pdb1 PDB.

5.Synchronize the emp_pdb1 PDB in restricted mode.

6.Copy the dump file to the Data Pump directory.

7.Create a Data Pump directory in the emp_pdb1 PDB.

8.Import data into emp_pdb1 with the full and remap clauses.

9.Create the same tablespaces in emp_pdb1 as in hr_pdb1 for new local user objects.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, and 8

B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

C. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

D. 2, 1, 3, 5, 7, 6, and 8

Correct Answer: C

Because the step 2 says that you perfom an expdp with the full clause and you don\’t need to create the tablespaces when you perform the impdp. FULL=yes will export tablespace definitions. So no need step 9.

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10501_01/server.920/a96652/ch01.htm


Question 12:

You wish to create jobs to satisfy these requirements:

1.

Automatically bulk load data from a flat file.

2.

Rebuild indexes on the SALES table after completion of the bulk load.

How would you create these jobs?

A. Create both jobs by using Scheduler raised events.

B. Create both jobs using application raised events.

C. Create one job to rebuild indexes using application raised events and another job to perform bulk load using Scheduler raised events.

D. Create one job to rebuild indexes using Scheduler raised events and another job to perform bulk load by using events raised by the application.

Correct Answer: C

The bulk loader would be started in response to a file watcher scheduler event and the indexes would be rebuilt in response to an application event raised by the bulk loader. Your application can raise an event to notify the Scheduler to start a job. A job started in this way is referred to as an event-based job. The job can optionally retrieve the message content of the event. References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/scheduse008.htm#CHDIAJEB https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/scheduse005.htm#CIABIEJA


Question 13:

Your Oracle 12c multitenant container database (CDB) contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). In the PDB hr_pdb, the common user c##admin and the local user b_admin have only the connect privilege.

You create a common role c##role1 with the create table and select any table privileges.

You then execute the commands:

SQL> GRANTc##role1 TO##Madmin CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL>CONNsys/[email protected]_PDB as sysdba

SQL> GRANTc##role1TO b_admin CONTAINER=CURRENT;

Which two statements are true?

A. C##admin can create and select any table, and grant the c##role1 role to users only in the root container.

B. B_admin can create and select any table in both the root container and Hr_pdb.

C. c##admin can create and select any table in the root container and all the PDBs.

D. B_admin can create and select any table only in hr_pdb.

E. The grant c##role1 to b_admin command returns an error because container should be set to ALL.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

You want RMAN to make duplicate copies of data files when using the backup command.

What must you set using the RMAN configure command to achieve this?

A. MAXSETSIZE TO 2;

B. DEVICE TYPE DISK PARALLELISM 2 BACKUP TYPE TO BACKUPSET;

C. CHANNEL DEVICE TYPE DISK FORMAT \’/disk1/%U\’ , \’/disk2/%U\’;

D. DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE DISK TO 2;

Correct Answer: D

Configuring Backup Duplexing You can use the CONFIGURE … BACKUP COPIES command to specify how many copies of each backup piece should be created on the specified device type for the specified type of file. This type of backup is known as a duplexed backup set. The CONFIGURE settings for duplexing only affect backups of datafiles, control files, and archived logs into backup sets, and do not affect image copies. NOT A The CONFIGURE MAXSETSIZE command limits the size of backup sets created on a channel. This CONFIGURE setting applies to any channel, whether manually allocated or configured, when the BACKUP command is used to create backup sets. The default value is given in bytes and is rounded down to the lowest kilobyte value. Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmconfa.htm#BRADV137


Question 15:

Which three types of failures are detected by the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA)?

A. loss of a non-critical data file

B. loss of a control file

C. physical data block corruption

D. logical data block corruption

E. loss of an archived redo log file

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmrepai.htm#BRADV89716


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Question 1:

Which statement adds a column with the largest integer data type?

A. ALTER TABLE SCIENTIFIC ADD scientific_value BIGINT;

B. ALTER TABLE SCIENTIFIC ADD scientific_value INTEGER;

C. ALTER TABLE SCIENTIFIC ADD scientific_value DECIMAL(15,10);

D. ALTER TABLE SCIENTIFIC ADD scientific_value DECIMAL(10,10);

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Assume that MySQL Enterprise Monitor is configured to monitor MySQL 8.0.10 or a later instance. Which three features are available?

A. creating e-mail alerts and SNMP traps for MySQL warnings

B. starting and stopping the MySQL instance

C. analyzing executed MySQL queries

D. deploying MySQL agent on supported target operating system

E. monitoring the availability of the MySQL Instance

F. tracing import and export with mysqldump

Correct Answer: ADF


Question 3:

MySQL Enterprise Masking and De-identification can hide or obfuscate sensitive data, by controlling how the data appears. Which three are MySQL Enterprise Masking and De-identification functions?

A. misspelling

B. strict or relaxed masking

C. random data substitution

D. whitelisting and substitution

E. dictionary substitution

Correct Answer: BCE

Robust Data Masking Functions MySQL Enterprise Masking and De-identification can hide or obfuscate sensitive data, by controlling how the data appears. It features robust masking algorithms including selective masking, blurring, random data substitution and other special techniques for credit card numbers, account numbers and other personally identifiable information, enabling IT departments to maintain structural rules to de-identify values. MySQL Enterprise Masking and De-identification functions include:

1.

Selective Masking – Obscures a particular portion of numbers or strings such as phone numbers, and payment card numbers.

2.

Strict or Relaxed Masking – Implement strict or relaxed masking to obfuscate data.

3.

Random Data Substitution – Replace real values with random values while maintaining format consistency.

4.

Blurring – Add a random variance to existing values such as randomized numeric ranges for salaries.

5.

Dictionary Substitution – Randomly replace values from task specific dictionaries. ?Blacklisting and Substitution – Replace specifically blacklisted data, but leave non-blacklisted in place.

https://www.mysql.com/products/enterprise/masking.html#:~:text=Robust Data Masking%2 0Functions,controlling how the data appears.andtext=Random Data Substitution – Replace real,values% 20while maintaining format consistency.


Question 4:

You have been using mysqldump for logical backups of your MySQL databases. Your MySQL database size has been growing. Which two options can reduce the backup size and speed up the backup time?

A. Use mysqldump with – -incremental together with the – -compress option to back up incrementally based on previous full backup and compress the incremental backup files.

B. Use mysqldump with the – -changesonly option.

C. Use MySQL Enterprise Backup with the – -size=compress to compress the backup file.

D. Use MySQL Enterprise Backup with the – – incremental policy to back up incrementally based on previous full backup.

E. Use MySQL Enterprise Backup with the – -compress option to compress the backup files and use – – compress-level to select the level of compression.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 5:

Which statement would you use to remove the population column from the city table?

A. ALTER TABLE city DROP population;

B. DELETE population FROM city;

C. ALTER TABLE city DELETE population;

D. ALTER TABLE city LESS population;

E. DROP population FROM city;

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You just installed MySQL by Using a Package Manager on Linux. Where are the default InnoDB redo log files stored?

A. /usr/mysql

B. /var/lib/mysql

C. /var/lib/mysql/innodb

D. /usr/bin/logs

E. /usr/redo

F. /etc/my.cnf

Correct Answer: E

https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/8.0/en/innodb-redo-log.html


Question 7:

You want to create an encrypted table. So, you enter this command:

CREATE TABLE \’test_encryption2% (

\’id\’ int(10) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT,

\’server_name\’ varchar(15) NOT NULL,

PRIMARY KEY (\’id\’) ) ENGINE=MYISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=l DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 ENCRYPTION = \’Y1;

You receive the following error:

ERROR 1031 (HY000): Table storage engine for `test_encryption2\’ doesn\’t have this option Which statement correctly explains the reason for this error?

A. You cannot use the AUTO_INCREMENT option to create an encrypted table. This is what is causing the error.

B. The term “server_name” is a reserved MySQL term. You cannot use it for the new table. This is what is causing the error.

C. The encryption feature only works with InnoDB tables. You are creating a MylSAM table, and it is causing the error.

D. The test_encryption2 already exist. You are not using the correct option to recreate it and it is causing the error.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which three components can MySQL InnoDB Cluster use to Achieve database high availability?

A. MySQL Servers with Group Replication to replicate data to all members of the cluster.

B. MySQL Online Hot Backup to keep data consistent and always ready to be used.

C. MySQL Shell to create and administer InnoDB Clusters using the built-in AdminAPI.

D. MySQL X Plugin to enable MySQL to use the X Protocol to speed up and monitor data replication.

E. MySQL Router to ensure client requests are load balanced and routed to the correct servers.

Correct Answer: ACE

Deploy MySQL InnoDB Clusters for high availability


Question 9:

What is true about MySQL Enterprise Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)?

A. Data is encrypted automatically, in real time, after it is written to storage.

B. Enables data-at-rest encryption by encrypting the physical files of the database.

C. Encryption key is stored in a centralized key memory location

D. Tablespace keys are managed manually behind the scenes.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Your newly-created Oracle Cloud Infrastructure instance is not available for login in. Which is a valid reason for this issue?

A. You forgot to enable port 3306.

B. The opc user can be used to access MySQL only with the created SSH-Key.

C. Only root is allowed to access from non-localhost.

D. You forgot to create the correct SSL/TLC certificate during the setup process.

E. The OCI instance is still in the “creation” process.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You need to change the password level for a test system. Which two allow to change this level before you create new test user/passwords?

A. Add validate_password=\’new level\’ in the [security] section of the MySQL configuration file.

B. SET GLOBAL validate_password_policy=\’new level\’;

C. SET GLOBAL force_password_complex_policy=0;

D. Add validate_password_policy=\’new level\’ in the [mysqld] section of the MySQL configuration file.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

Which best describes database horizontal scale-out architecture deployment in MySQL in a read- heavy environment?

A. Allocating more CPU to the database instance to improve throughput performance.

B. Deploy MySQL read-only slaves utilizing replication so that the slaves can be used for reads.

C. Increasing the memory capacity so that there is a larger pooling buffer to increase the database read performance.

D. Adding more MySQL servers and sharing the same dacadir on a shared storage component like NFS.

E. Increasing the storage capacity so that the database can store more data to scale.

Correct Answer: E


Question 13:

You need to load the MySQL Enterprise Audit plug-in at database startup and prevent the audit plug- in from being removed at run time. Which two options should you include in the MySQL configuration file?

A. audit_log_permanent=ON

B. audit-log=FORCE_PLUS_PERMANENT

C. plugin-load=audit_log.so

D. plugin-audit=ON, ALWAYS

E. LOAD PLUGIN=AUDIT_LOG

Correct Answer: AB


Question 14:

You execute this statement: SELECT NULL=NULL; What is the result?

A. FALSE

B. NULL

C. 0

D. TRUE

E. 1

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

You establish MySQL Enterprise Server on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure connection via Secure Shell (SSH)

For accessing a new MySQL Enterprise Edition on an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Instance you ” Add SSH key ” information during the OCI instance setup. You want to use Putty from your Windows Client to install MySQL.

What are the correct steps to accomplish this?

A. Open Port 22 on your OCI Instance and convert the private key to ppk format. This new private key can be used for authentication.

B. Use the provided private key for authentication.

C. Convert the private key to ppk format first and use the new private key for authentication.

D. Open Port 22 on your OCI Instance and configure Putty with the ssh private key.

Correct Answer: A