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Question 1:

You have an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) load balancer distributing traffic via an evenly- weighted round robin policy to your back-end web servers. You notice that one of your web servers is receiving more traffic than other web servers. How can you resolve this to make sure traffic is evenly distributed across all back-end webservers?

A. Disable cookie-based session persistence on your backend set.

B. Change kee

C. Disable SSL configuration associated with your backend set.

D. Create separate listeners for each backend web server.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Balance/Concepts/balanceoverview.htm


Question 2:

Which two are Regional resources in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. Ephemeral public IPs

B. Compartments

C. Compute images

D. Dynamic groups

E. Block volume backups

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/General/Concepts/regions.htm


Question 3:

An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancy administrator is not able to delete a user in the tenancy. What can cause this issue?

A. User has multi-factor authentication (MFA) enabled.

B. User is member of an Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.

C. Users can be blocked but not deleted.

D. User needs to be deleted from federation Identity Provider (IdP) before deleting from IAM.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

You are a system administrator of your company and you are asked to manage updates and patches across all your compute instances running Oracle Linux in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). As part of your task, you need to apply all the latest kernel security updates to all instances. Which OCI service will allow you to complete this task?

A. Resource Manager

B. OS Management

C. Storage Gateway

D. Streaming

E. Registry

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/cloud-infrastructure/os-management-with-oracle-cloud-infrastructure


Question 5:

Which of the following statements is true about the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage serverside encryption?

A. Encryption of data encryption keys with a master encryption key is optional.

B. Customer-provided encryption keys are always stored in OCI Vault service.

C. Encryption is enabled by default and cannot be turned off.

D. Each object in a bucket is always encrypted with the same data encryption key.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Object/Tasks/usingyourencryptionkeys.htm


Question 6:

You need to set up instance principals so that an application running on an instance can call Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) public services, without the need to configure user credentials. A developer in your team has already configured

the application built using an OCI SDK to authenticate using the instance principals provider.

Which is NOT a necessary step to complete this set up?

A. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to specify which instances you want to allow to make API calls against services.

B. Generate Auth Tokens to enable instances in the dynamic group to authenticate with APIs.

C. Create a policy granting permissions to the dynamic group to access services in your compartment or tenancy.

D. Deploy the application and the SDK to all the instances that belong to the dynamic group.

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

https://blogs.oracle.com/cloud-infrastructure/announcing-instance-principals-for-identity- andaccess-management


Question 7:

You have been asked to create an Identity and Access Management (IAM) user that will authenticate to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) API endpoints. This user must not be given credentials that would allow them to log into the OCI

console.

Which two authentication options can you use? (Choose two.)

A. SSL certificate

B. API signing key

C. SSH key pair

D. PEM Certificate file

E. Auth token

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Identity/Tasks/managingcredentials.htm


Question 8:

You work for a health insurance company that stores a large number of patient health records in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage bucket named “HealthRecords”. Each record needs to be securely stored for a period of 5

years for regulatory compliance purposes and

cannot be modified, overwritten or deleted during this time period.

What can you do to meet this requirement?

A. Create an OCI Object Storage Lifecycle Policies rule to archive objects in the HealthRecords bucket for five years.

B. Create an OCI Object Storage time-bound Retention Rule on the HealthRecords bucket for five years. Enable Retention Rule Lock on this bucket.

C. Enable encryption on the HealthRecords bucket using your own vault master encryption keys.

D. Enable versioning on the HealthRecords bucket.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Object/Tasks/usingretentionrules.htm


Question 9:

Which two components cannot be deleted in your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Virtual Cloud Network? (Choose two.)

A. Service gateway

B. Default security list

C. Routing gateway

D. Default route table

E. Default subnet

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.oracle.com/a/ocom/docs/vcn-deployment-guide.pdf (4)


Question 10:

A financial firm is designing an application architecture for its online trading platform that must have high availability and fault tolerance.

Their solutions architect configured the application to use an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage bucket located in the US West (us-phoenix-1) region to store large amounts of financial data. The stored financial data in the bucket must

not be affected even if there is an outage in one of the Availability Domains or a complete region.

What should the architect do to avoid any costly

A. Create a new Object Storage bucket in another region and configure lifecycle policy to move data every 5 days.

B. Create a lifecycle policy to regularly send data from Standard to Archive storage.

C. Copy the Object Storage bucket to a block volume.

D. Create a replication policy to send data to a different bucket in another OCI region.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

As a solution architect, you are showcasing the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage feature about Object Versioning to a customer. Which statement is true in regards to OCI Object Storage Versioning?

A. Object versioning does not provide data protection against accidental or malicious object update, overwrite, or deletion.

B. By default, object versioning is disabled on a bucket.

C. A bucket that is versioning-enabled can have only and always will have a latest version of the object in the bucket.

D. Objects are physically deleted from a bucket when versioning is enabled.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Object/Tasks/usingversioning.htm


Question 12:

You created a public subnet and an internet gateway in your virtual cloud network (VCN) of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. The public subnet has an associated route table and security list. However, after creating several compute instances in the public subnet, none can reach the Internet. Which two are possible reasons for the connectivity issue? (Choose two.)

A. The route table has no default route for routing traffic to the internet gateway.

B. There is no stateful egress rule in the security list associated with the public subnet.

C. There is no dynamic routing gateway (DRG) associated with the VCN.

D. There is no stateful ingress rule in the security list associated with the public subnet.

E. A NAT gateway is needed to enable the communication flow to internet.

Correct Answer: AB

An internet gateway as an optional virtual router that connects the edge of the VCN with the internet. To use the gateway, the hosts on both ends of the connection must have public IP addresses for routing. Connections that originate in your VCN and are destined for a public IP address (either inside or outside the VCN) go through the internet gateway. Connections that originate outside the VCN and are destined for a public IP address inside the VCN go through the internet gateway. Working with Internet Gateways You create an internet gateway in the context of a specific VCN. In other words, the internet gateway is automatically attached to a VCN. However, you can disable and re-enable the internet gateway at any time. Compare this with a dynamic routing gateway (DRG), which you create as a standalone object that you then attach to a particular VCN. DRGs use a different model because they\’re intended to be modular building blocks for privately connecting VCNs to your on-premises network. For traffic to flow between a subnet and an internet gateway, you must create a route rule accordingly in the subnet\’s route table (for example, destination CIDR = 0.0.0.0/0 and target = internet gateway). If the internet gateway is disabled, that means no traffic will flow to or from the internet even if there\’s a route rule that enables that traffic. For more information, see Route Tables. For the purposes of access control, you must specify the compartment where you want the internet gateway to reside. If you\’re not sure which compartment to use, put the internet gateway in the same compartment as the cloud network. For more information, see Access Control. You may optionally assign a friendly name to the internet gateway. It doesn\’t have to be unique, and you can change it later. Oracle automatically assigns the internet gateway a unique identifier called an Oracle Cloud ID (OCID). For more information, see Resource Identifiers. To delete an internet gateway, it does not have to be disabled, but there must not be a route table that lists it as a target. AS per compute instances can connect to the Internet so you use egress no ingress


Question 13:

You are designing a lab exercise for your team that has a large number of graphics with large file sizes. The application becomes unresponsive if the graphics are embedded in the application. You have uploaded the graphics to Oracle Cloud

Infrastructure and only added the URL in the application. You need to ensure these graphics are accessible without requiring any authentication for an extended period of time.

How can you achieve these requirements?

A. Create pre-authenticated requests (PAR) and specify 00:00:0000 as the expiration time.

B. Make the object storage bucket private and all objects public and use the URL found in the Object “Details”.

C. Make the object storage bucket public and use the URL found in the Object “Details”.

D. Create PARs and do not specify an expiration date.

Correct Answer: C

Pre-authenticated requests provide a way to let you access a bucket or an object without having your own credentials. For example, you can create a request that lets you upload backups to a bucket without owning API keys.

When you create a bucket, the bucket is considered a private bucket and the access to the bucket and bucket contents requires authentication and authorization. However, Object Storage supports anonymous, unauthenticated access to a

bucket. You make a bucket public by enabling read access to the bucket.

pre-authenticated requests have to select expiration date


Question 14:

You have setup your environment as shown below with the Mount Target “MT” successfully mounted on both compute instances CLIENT-X and CLIENT-Y.

For security reasons you want to control the access to the File System A in such a way that CLIENT-X has READ/WRITE and CLIENT-Y has READ only permission.

What you should do?

A. Update the OS firewall in CLIENT-X to allow READ/WRITE access.

B. Update the security list TWO to restrict CLIENT-Y access to read-only.

C. Update the mount target export options to restrict CLIENT-Y access to read-only.

D. Update the security list ONE to restrict CLIENT-Y access to read only.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which two methods are supported for migrating your on-premises Oracle database to an Oracle Autonomous Transaction Processing (ATP) database in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. Load text files into ATP using SQL Developer.

B. Use RMAN duplicate.

C. Use Oracle Data Pump.

D. Transfer the physical database files and re-create the database.

E. Use database backup and restore.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/en/solutions/migrate-to-atp/index.html#GUID-28E5A683-6DC6-4A07- BB1C-55F020D4C1CD


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Question 1:

You are required to create a compensation plan where commission is paid 6% of transaction amount for credit category \’Laptop\’. Also reporting requirement dictates you to capture each older number along with earned amount at the order level. You are also expected to reuse already created expressions to maximize re usability.

Which expression will you not be able to use in the plan component – Incentive formula?

A. Measure result.PM1.Output

B. Measure result.PM1.PTD Output Achieved

C. SUM ( Credit.Credit Amount )

D. Credit.Credit Amount

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

You are planning to move your configurations from the staging environment to the production environment.

Which task must you not include?

A. Export and Import reports by using the archive/unarchive function.

B. Move Calendar, Business Units, List of Values, and Profile Options by using FSM.

C. Clone custom objects in Application Composer

D. Export Compensation Plans to XML

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which descriptive flexfield should you use to update Incentive Compensation Transaction details?

A. CM_TP_TRANSACTIOM_DFP

B. FIC_TRANSACTION_DFF

C. CN_TP_BASETRAHS_DFF

D. XC BASE_TRANS_DFF

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A participant is transferred to another business unit.

Identify the configuration changes required to calculate and pay compensation to the participant in the new business unit.

A. Assign the participant to a new role and resource group.

B. Create a new HR employee record for this participant as transfer across business unit is not supported by the application.

C. Assign the participant to the global business unit and global role,

D. Enter an End Date for the participant record in the current business unit, import participant into the new business unit, and assign appropriate Comp Plan and Paygroup.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which three are reports you can customize few Mobile Commissions?

A. Payments: Payment transactions and related details of the sales participant

B. Credits: Credits and related details of the sales participant

C. Analytics: Details of the recent analysis of the sales participant

D. Disputes: Details of the recent disputes raised by the sales participant

E. Reimbursements: Reimbursements and related details of the sale*, ii.ntic ip.int

Correct Answer: ABD

http://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/tutorial/cloud/r11/wn/r11_sales_wn.htm


Question 6:

A payment plan is to be configured to pay a minimum (draw) flat amount of 8,000 per period, which is nonrecoverable. Payment adjustments must be applied only to commission type earnings, and bonus earnings should not be adjusted by the payment plan.

How should you configure the payment plan?

A. Associate the “Commission” payment group category to \’Commission\’ type plan components. In the Payment Plan, select `Commission\’ from the Payment Group Category drop down, enter 8,000 in the Flat Minimum Amount to Pay Participant field, enter 8,000 in the Maximum Payment field, select “Yes” for the Carry Forward Maximum drop down, and select `No\’ for the Minimum Recovery option.

B. Associate the `Commission\’ Incentive Type (payment group category) to \’Commission\’ type plan components. In the Payment plan, select \’Commission\’ from the Payment Group Category drop down, enter 8,000 in the Flat Minimum Amount to Pay Participant field, and select \’No\’ for the Minimum Recovery option.

C. Associate the \’Commission\’ Incentive Type (payment group category) to \’Commission\’ type plan components. In the Payment Plan, select \’Commission\’ from the Payment Group Category drop down, enter 8,000 in the Flat Minimum Amount to Pay Participant field, and select the `Yes\’ for the Minimum Recovery option and `Immediate\’ for the Recovery Start option.

D. Associate the \’Commission\’ payment group category to “Commission\’ type plan components. In the Payment Plan, select \’Commission\’ from the Payment Group Category drop down, enter 8,000 In the Flat Minimum Amount to Pay Participant field, enter 8,000 in the Maximum Payment field, select \’Yes\’ for the Carry forward Maximum drop down, select `Yes\’ for the Minimum Recovery option, and \’Immediate\’ for the Recovery Start option.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Will the earnings for participants be calculated once their Active End Date has elapsed?

A. Earnings will not be calculated if their Compensation End date has elapsed.

B. Earnings will be calculated foe participants as long as they remain assigned to a compensation plan.

C. Earnings will not be calculated if their Active End Date has elapsed.

D. Earnings will be calculated lot participants as long as they exist m the fusion Incentive Compensation system.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which format must the date column value have In File Based Data Import?

A. YYYY/MM/DD

B. DD/MM/YYYY

C. MM/DD/YYYY

D. Date format is configurable

Correct Answer: D

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel11/salescs_gs/OAFDI/OAFDI1504155.htm#OAFDI309164


Question 9:

You have to write a custom function that accesses the performance measure output. You must pass the following parameters to uniquely identify data and do custom calculations. plan_cooponent_id formaula_id Participant_id Period id In which table should you configure the required columns?

A. CN TP KEASURE_RESULTS_ALL

B. CN SRP_PER_FORM_METRICS_ALL

C. CW_TP_EARNINGS_ALL

D. CM SRP PARTICIPANTS ALL

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/salescs_gs/FACMI/FACMI1417756.htm#FACMI1419062


Question 10:

A company has its classification rules, which are at the same level in the hierarchy, set up as:

Which option shows the credit category or categories that will be assigned to this transaction during the Classification process?

A. COMPUTERS

B. LAPTOP

C. TOSHIBA

D. INTEL

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

You help the Oracle Incentive Compensation administrator select the coned currency options for a business unit where all the transactions are performed in USD. Although some of the workforce is based in the UK and Canada, the company pays the workforce in USD.

How do you set up currencies?

A. Select Operating Currency as USD and select Processing Currency as Operating Currency.

B. Select Operating Currency as USD and select Processing Currency as Participant\’s Home Currency.

C. Select Operating Currency as USD and Processing Currency as USD.

D. Select Processing Currency as USD only. Operating Currency is not mandatory.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Your stand alone SaaS implementation project starts in two weeks. With which four roles must you staff your consulting team?

A. Business Analyst, DBA, Reporting Specialist, Data Specialist

B. System Administrator Business Analyst, Reporting Specialist, Project Manager

C. System Administrator, Business Analyst, DBA, Project Manager

D. Business Analyst, Reporting Specialist, Data Specialist, Project Manager

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

You must create a request set for simplifying the Incentive Compensation processes for your end customer. You asked Oracle Support to put the programs in the following sequence:

1.

Revert Transaction

2.

Run Crediting and Rollup

3.

Run Classify Credits

4.

Calculate

Which are the correct values of the corresponding BU parameters?

A. Rollup using Credit Hierarchy, Classify after crediting

B. Rollup using Credit Hierarchy, Classify before crediting

C. Rollup using Rollup Hierarchy, Classify after crediting

D. Rollup Using = Both, Classify after crediting

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which asset typo must you select for searching web service in Oracle Enterprise Repository?

A. Composite Service

B. Composite

C. ADF Service

D. ADF service Data Object

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A regional sales manager is promoted to a higher position and becomes eligible to receive rollup credit from multiple business units. How should you create a rollup hierarchy rule to receive rollup horn multiple business units?

A. No additional configurations are required because the application accommodates cross-region rollups.

B. Import the manager\’s employee record as a participant In each business unit and copy the rollup hierarchy rules to each business unit.

C. Cross-region rollups are not supported. Managers and salespeople must be participants In the same business unit

D. Import all participants under the manager in all business units and copy the rollup hierarchy rules to each business unit.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which is NOT available for assigning customized navigation flows?

A. Global

B. Group

C. User

D. Role

Correct Answer: C

Navigation flows are categorized as follows for customization:

References: Oracle Cloud, Administering Planning for Oracle Enterprise Planning and Budgeting Cloud , page 7-2


Question 2:

Which LCM Category is required to restore dimensional security?

A. Reporting

B. Groups and Memberships

C. Calculation Manager

D. Planning

Correct Answer: B

In EPM System security mode, Essbase obtains user and group details (including user and group information and provisioning to Essbase applications) from Shared Services References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/EDBAG/dsemain.html#dsemain_6


Question 3:

Which three Financial framework members within the Plan Element dimension allow for forecast and plan data entry? (Choose three.)

A. OFS_Direct Input

B. OFS_Input

C. OFS_Form Entry

D. OFS_Trend

E. OFS_% Increase/(Decrease)

Correct Answer: ABD

OFS_Trend Based Calculation / OFS_Rolling Trend Based Calc–Rules are run on save for driver and trend forms to calculate accounts based on the selected trend. References: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/pbcs_common/EPBCA/EPBCA.pdf


Question 4:

Which two are NOT true with a Planning and Budgeting Cloud (PBCS) application? (Choose two.)

A. Three custom planning applications can be Initialized

B. Four custom reporting applications can be initialized

C. Approvals is not included

D. Groovy calculations are available

Correct Answer: BC

B: These are planning applications, not reporting applications.

C: An approval unit is the basic unit for preparing, annotating, reviewing, and approving plan data. Approval units are combinations of scenario, version, and entity or part of an entity. You can have one scenario/version combination per approval unit. Scenarios and versions are the basis of the review cycle. Approval units submit planning data for a scenario and version.


Question 5:

Which three items are available sources for loading data with Data Management into Oracle Enterprise Planning and Budgeting Cloud (EPBCS)? (Choose three.)

A. Oracle Financials Cloud

B. Oracle EBS

C. HCM Cloud

D. File

E. Oracle Peoplesoft

Correct Answer: ACD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-management- common/erpia/GUIDF8001C5A-A922-43C7-A0C6-4025F1EB7BDF.pdf search on source system type.


Question 6:

Which data map is not used to move data from OEP_WFP to OEP_REP?

A. Headcount Data for Reporting

B. Compensation Data for Reporting

C. FTE Data for Reporting

D. Non Compensation Data for Reporting

Correct Answer: C

For complete reporting on data, Workforce provides data maps, which enable you to push consolidated data from one cube to a reporting cube. For example, you can push compensation data to the reporting cube.

The data maps are:

References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/pbcs_common/EPBUG/wf_reporting_on_data_104x02 54ad2f.htm#EPBUG-GUID-CCDBE3B5-D15E-4E62-834F-A3A6E85B1D47


Question 7:

A company has enabled the Revenue/Gross Margin, Expense, Income Statement, and Balance Sheet options within the Financials framework and has run through the configuration steps. Which are three recommended post configuration tasks? (Choose three.)

A. Defining and managing the Accounts and Drives

B. Modifying account signage for alternate reporting methods

C. Entering exchange rates

D. Planning and Forecast preparation

E. Specifying days in period for driver-based Balance Sheet

F. Running Financials rules to aggregate and calculate the data

Correct Answer: ACD

Perform these steps after enabling Financials features. Etc.

References: Oracle Cloud, Administering Planning for Oracle Planning and Budgeting Cloud, page 5-8


Question 8:

Which three security design principles will help reduce overall security maintenance and troubleshooting, while still balancing security control? (Choose three.)

A. Creating security groups over assigning individual access permissions to users

B. Using inherited permissions

C. Assigning a higher level role than necessary, then scaling back access permissions

D. Assigning global read access to each cube, then fine tuning none and write access within dimensional security

E. Configuring single sign-on (SSO)

Correct Answer: ABE

Single sign-on (SSO) is supported.


Question 9:

To configure `Benefits and Taxes”, which dimension should new members be imported into?

A. Pay Type

B. Component

C. Account

D. Property

Correct Answer: B

Imported Benefits, Taxes, and Additional Earnings using Components on the Workforce Configure page. References: Oracle Cloud, Administering Planning for Oracle Enterprise Planning and Budgeting Cloud, page 6-13


Question 10:

Which two items are NOT provided as configurable in Enterprise Planning and Budgeting Cloud (EPBCS)? (Choose two.)

A. Capital

B. Public

C. Financial Close

D. Financials

E. Strategic Modeling

Correct Answer: AE

Before users can start strategic planning, you must enable Strategic Modeling. There are no configuration tasks required for Strategic Modeling. There are no configuration tasks required for Strategic Modeling.


Question 11:

Which two Essbase options can be changed in PBCS? (Choose two.)

A. The default caches

B. The default CalcTaskDims

C. Aggregate missing values

D. Two-Pass Calculation

Correct Answer: AD

A: You can select a value for the calculator cache

D: Dimension properties such as hierarchy type, two-pass calculations, and data storage options are included in the Advanced Settings Definition. References: Oracle Cloud, Administering Planning for Oracle Planning and Budgeting Cloud


Question 12:

Which three are Enterprise Planning and Budgeting Cloud (EPBCS) features that can be used to help streamline the amount of time a user spends in a web form? (Choose three.)

A. Valid intersections

B. Hide dimension name

C. Action menus

D. User variables

E. Workflow

Correct Answer: ACD

C: Administrators can create right-click (or action) menus and associate them with forms, enabling users to click rows or columns in forms and select menu items.

D: You can define user variables to help planners focus on particular members, such as their department\’s expenses. For example, you can create a form with entities on the rows, and a user variable called Department. You can limit the number of rows displayed on the form by selecting a member for the Department user variable, such as Sales. Later, you can select another value for Department, such as Marketing.

A: Valid intersections let administrators define rules, called valid intersection rules, that filter dimensional intersections for planners when they enter data or select runtime prompts. For example, you can specify that certain programs are valid only for specific departments. Leverage valid intersections to control data entry only to valid intersections. For form design, if the dimensions that are set in the valid intersection are found on the Page, the user will be presented only with valid combinations in the member selector. If the dimensions that are set with valid intersections are found on the column or row, the form designer can suppress invalid intersections completely. When the suppression option isn\’t selected, invalid intersections are set to read only.

References: Oracle Cloud, Administering Planning for Oracle Planning and Budgeting Cloud, pages 16- 1, H-10 https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/pbcs_common/PFUSA/creating_and_updating_menus.htm#PFUSA-f_navigate_workspace_1


Question 13:

Which two options are true when implementing security in Enterprise Planning and Budgeting Cloud (ePBCS)? (Choose two.)

A. Users are restricted from applications by removing application/module security

B. ePBCS roles can be assigned to members in all dimensions

C. The member that is set to read that has a parent with write access to all descendants will result in an access level of read

D. A user that is assigned read and write access to a member will result in write access

Correct Answer: BD

B: Assigning Access to Members To assign access to members:

D: The application checks access permissions at each level, first by user, then by group, based on the member\’s access permissions inheritance relationship. If multiple access permissions exist, the least restrictive access permission is applied (for example, Write access takes precedence over Read access).

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/pbcs_common/PFUSA/assigning_access_to_members .htm https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/pbcs_common/PFUSA/about_effective_access_permis sions_to_shared_members.htm#f_navigate_workspace_570


Question 14:

Which statement is true regarding the process of enabling business process framework?

A. Business process frameworks can be enabled as needed.

B. All business process frameworks must be enabled at the same time.

C. All business process frameworks that are needed must be decided upon upfront and enabled at the same time.

D. Only one business framework can be enabled.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which two operations can be completed in calculation manager? (Choose two.)

A. View and kill requests

B. Delete a reporting application

C. Restructure a planning application

D. Create planning applications

Correct Answer: AC

A: The Sessions window lists active user sessions and requests for the server, application, or database. A user can have more than one session open at any given time. For example, one user may have open sessions on two databases. If you have Administrator or Application Manager permissions, you can end all requests, end all requests for a user, or end a specific request.

C: To restructure a database:

References: Oracle Cloud Designing with Calculation Manager for Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud, page 12-21 https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/epm-common/ECALC/ECALC.pdf


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Question 1:

Which employment model options are available for newly provisioned HCM Cloud environments?

A. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts multiple assignment

B. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier single contract single assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts single assignment

C. 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier single assignment

D. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier single contract single assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You are required to set geography validation for country-specific address style. You have configured the application correctly, but users are still entering addresses in the wrong address format. What can be done to change this?

A. Create a new geography validation.

B. Educate users to use the country-specific address format only.

C. Effective End Date for geography validation is end of time.

D. Set the geography validation level to Error instead of No Validation.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

As an HR Administrator, you want to add an additional assignment for an existing worker. You access the worker\’s information via the Manage Employment task, select Update, and enter an Effective Date, but you are unable to select the Add Assignment action from the Action field drop-down.

What is preventing you from selecting the action?

A. The employee already has multiple assignments within that legal employer.

B. Employment Model 2-Tier multiple assignment have not been enabled at the enterprise and/or the legal entity level.

C. The employee has no active work relationships.

D. The employee has a suspended assignment.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Grade structures (grades, grade rates, and grade ladder) were configured for your customer and the required employee assignment data was migrated to the system. However, there was a change in requirement and the customer decided to delete some grades because they were no longer used. When you try to delete one such grade from the system, the system throws an error.

What are three possible reasons for the system error? (Choose three.)

A. There are assignment records of one or more employees associated with this grade.

B. A grade cannot be deleted and can only be made inactive by changing the status to “Inactive”.

C. The grade has grade rates defined.

D. The grade is linked to a grade ladder.

E. A grade cannot be deleted and can only be end-dated.

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 5:

The HR of Finance Department searches for an employee who is the Finance Auditor. The search is conducted with an effective date of 01-Jan-2015 on the Person Management page. The search does not yield any results.

Identify two reasons for this behavior. (Choose two.)

A. The employee was a contingent worker until 31-Dec-2014 and will rejoin as an employee on 02-Jan-2015.

B. The employee is working as a contingent worker in Finance Department.

C. The employee has multiple assignments and being a Finance Auditor is a part of the secondary assignment.

D. The employee is working as an employee in Finance Department.

E. The employee is inactive as of 01-Jan-2015.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 6:

Which three options are true about the Global Person model? (Choose three.)

A. Person records cease to exist when a person is terminated from an organization.

B. Person records continue to exist even when the person has no current work relationships in the enterprise and no current contact relationships with other workers.

C. Person records are global, independent of legal employers, and created only once for any person. If the person leaves the enterprise, the person\’s work relationships are terminated.

D. Person records hold information that is personal, such as name, date of birth, and disability information, or that may apply to more than one work relationship, such as national ID.

E. Person records are auto-archived two years after a person is terminated from an organization.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 7:

If multiple people update a performance rating for a competency on a worker\’s profile, what is used to provide a unique identifier for each instance of the competency so that you can determine who provided what rating?

A. instance qualifier

B. content library

C. rating model

D. educational establishment

E. content subscriber

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

As a consultant in your company, you are required to set up names and details of schools, colleges, universities, and so on, so that users can select from this list when entering their qualifications such as degrees.

Identify the correct setup task in Functional Setup Manager > Define Workforce Profiles.

A. Define Talent Profile Content > Manage Content Subscribers

B. Define Talent Profile Content > Manage Profile Content Items

C. Define Talent Profile Content > Manage Educational Establishments

D. Define Talent Profiles > Manage Profile Types

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

You want to use the Tree Management feature of Functional Setup Manager to organize data into hierarchies.

Which option represents seeded tree structures?

A. organization, job, division, geographies

B. organization, job, department, geographies

C. organization, position, division, geographies

D. organization, position, division, establishment

E. organization, position, department, geographies

Correct Answer: E


Question 10:

A human resource specialist creates a checklist template with Category Offboarding and Action Termination. An employee retries from the organization and hence his work relationship is terminated with the legal employer. However, there is no Offboarding checklist allocated to the retired employee in the Manage Allocated Checklist region.

What is the cause for this?

A. The Allocate Checklist seeded process must be run to automatically allocate the checklist to the person.

B. Action Type was not defined for the checklist.

C. Action Reasons were not defined in the checklist.

D. The Action associated with the checklist does not match the Action selected during the termination process.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You are a human resource specialist and a workflow request is showing in your worklist notification even after you approved it (sent it to the second level approver). What are three possible causes of this behavior? (Choose three.)

A. The second level approver might have reassigned the request.

B. The second level approver might have opted for an adhoc route.

C. The second level approver might have approved the request.

D. The second level approver might have rejected the request.

E. The second level approver might have executed a pushback on the request.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 12:

A manager returned from the US Subsidiary after a period of 3 months to his source location of the UK Subsidiary.

Which option should a Human Resource Representative exercise to reinstate the manager\’s records in the source legal employer?

A. Entering the return date will automatically reinstate the record on the return date.

B. Create another assignment with the return date as the effective date.

C. Initiate the End Global Temporary Assignment action and specify a return date. The global temporary assignment is terminated and the assignments in the source legal employer are reinstate automatically on the return date.

D. Deploy a Descriptive Flexfield to capture the return date. Update this segment with the actual return date to reinstate the record.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

A worker in an organization will be holding a new position because the worker holding the position has gone on maternity leave. When the second worker is back from maternity leave, the former will be moved back to his or her old position. His or her payroll and legal reporting will be the same even after the position changes.

Which transfer method should be used for the first movement of the said worker?

A. Global Temporary Assignment

B. Temporary Assignment

C. Global Transfer

D. Transfer

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

As an implementation consultant, you are in the process of setting up geographies in the application. Which three statements are true about defining geographies? (Choose three.)

A. You must identify the top-level of geography as Country and define a geography type.

B. You can only modify all levels of the geography structure before you load geography hierarchy.

C. You must map geography to reporting establishments for reporting purposes.

D. It is mandatory to define geography validations before geography hierarchy can be defined.

E. You must set geography validation for the specific address style for a country.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 15:

An employee\’s job description is “Recruiter” as of 01-Jan-2015. This job was updated in the system to “Consultant” on 01-Feb-2015. The 01-Feb-2015 assignment record is the latest effective dated employment record in the system. On 01Mar-2015, the HR specialist wants to view this employee\’s previous employment details and searches for them on the Person Management page. The HR specialist enters the effective as-of date value as 31-Jan-2015 with the search

keyword “Recruiter” because the employee was working as a recruiter on 31st Jan 2015. The search returns no rows.

What is causing this?

A. The Person Management page search does not support Job attribute keywords.

B. The Update Person Search Keyword process has updated the latest effective dated job attribute in the keyword record.

C. The Update Person Search Keyword process has associated the effective dates with the job attributes in the keyword record resulting in search discrepancies.

D. The Update Person Search keyword process has failed on 01-Mar-2015 but ran successfully the previous day.

E. The Person Management page search does not support date-effective keywords.

F. The Update Person Search keyword process has failed on 31-Jan-2015 but ran successfully the next day.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which employment model options are available for newly provisioned HCM Cloud environments?

A. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts multiple assignment

B. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier single contract single assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts single assignment

C. 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier single assignment

D. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier single contract single assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

The Human Resource Representative of the organization is trying to set up the grade rates. During the process, she realizes that the grades were created without steps. Identify two options for adding rates to the grade. (Choose two.)

A. First add the rates for each step, then add the grade to a grade ladder.

B. Add the rates separately using the Manage Grade Rates task.

C. Use the Default Grade rates that are available upon creating grades.

D. First add the grade to a grade ladder, then add the rates for each step.

E. Add the rates at the same time as when you add the grade using the Manage Grades task.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 3:

An IT company\’s consulting department based in Bangalore goes for two team outing events every year. However, the support department, also based in Bangalore, goes for four team outing events every year. All employees in these departments go for the respective team outing events.

How should you define the calendar years?

A. Use Line Manager Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

B. Use Organization Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

C. Use Absence Approval Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

D. Use Geographic Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

E. Use Project Manager Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which three options are true regarding Grade Ladders? (Choose three.)

A. Grade Ladders are used to group grades or grades with steps.

B. Five types of Grade Ladders are available.

C. A Grade Ladder can be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.

D. Two types of Grade Ladders are available.

E. A Grade Ladder cannot be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 5:

You are required to set geography validation for country-specific address style. You have configured the application correctly, but users are still entering addresses in the wrong address format. What can be done to change this?

A. Create a new geography validation.

B. Educate users to use the country-specific address format only.

C. Effective End Date for geography validation is end of time.

D. Set the geography validation level to Error instead of No Validation.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

As an Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud implementation consultant, you are configuring an enterprise structure for an organization that has undergone major restructing. The client wants to you to make multiple versions of the enterprise structure so that they can decide on a final one that suits them based on proper analysis and comparison.

What should you do meet this requirement of the client?

A. Configure multiple enterprise structures by using the Establish Enterprise Structure guided flow. Analyze and compare them by using the configuration review pages, including the Technical Summary Report, before loading the final one.

B. Create and load one enterprise structure at a time through Establish Enterprise Structure, analyze the structure and, if it does not suit the client, use the rollback option before creating another structure.

C. Configure multiple enterprise structures and load all of them simultaneously so that analysis and comparison can be done.

D. Design the enterprise structure by using individual tasks available for each of the organizations and keep changing it until the final structure is agreed upon.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An enterprise operates in a country where contract information is required for employees.

What type of employment model can the enterprise use?

A. multiple assignments

B. contract assignment

C. single assignment

D. single assignment with contracts

E. multiple assignments with contracts

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

The HR of Finance Department searches for an employee who is the Finance Auditor. The search is conducted with an effective date of 01-Jan-2015 on the Person Management page. The search does not yield any results.

Identify two reasons for this behavior. (Choose two.)

A. The employee was a contingent worker until 31-Dec-2014 and will rejoin as an employee on 02-Jan-2015.

B. The employee is working as a contingent worker in Finance Department.

C. The employee has multiple assignments and being a Finance Auditor is a part of the secondary assignment.

D. The employee is working as an employee in Finance Department.

E. The employee is inactive as of 01-Jan-2015.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 9:

If multiple people update a performance rating for a competency on a worker\’s profile, what is used to provide a unique identifier for each instance of the competency so that you can determine who provided what rating?

A. instance qualifier

B. content library

C. rating model

D. educational establishment

E. content subscriber

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

When configuring a checklist application task what value must be select to ensure you will only be able to select from a list of employee tasks verses manager tasks?

A. Ensure the owner field is set to employee.

B. Ensure the eligibility profile linked to the task contains criteria the include only active employees.

C. Ensure the owner and performer are both set to employee.

D. Ensure the performer field is set to employee.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

You are an HR specialist and want to add new values to a lookup. You have access to the specific work area, but are unable to perform the activity.

Identify the correct statement about this.

A. You cannot add new lookup codes and meanings to the existing lookup types.

B. You can access the task for profile options from the Setup and Maintenance menu.

C. The system administrator must enable the lookup before it is modified in the work area.

D. Oracle applications contain certain predefined system lookups that are locked for editing.

E. You can create new lookup types but cannot modify the existing ones.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

As an implementation consultant, you have defined multiple grades for each job and position. While defining assignments, users must be able to select a grade only from the list that has been defined for the job or position. However, all grades are available.

What is the cause for this?

A. PER_DEFAULT_GRADE_FROM_JOB_POSITION is set to Yes at user level.

B. PER_DEFAULT_GRADE_FROM_JOB_POSITION is set to No at site level.

C. PER_ENFORCE_VALID_GRADES is set to Yes at site level.

D. GRADE_PAY_RATE_TYPE is set to No at site level.

E. PER_ENFORCE_VALID_GRADES is set to No at site level.

Correct Answer: E


Question 13:

A multinational construction company, headquartered in London, has operations in five countries. It has its major operations in the US and UK and small offices in Saudi Arabia, UAE, and India. The company employs 3,000 people in the UK and US and 500 people in the remaining locations. The entire workforce in India falls under the Contingent Worker category.

How many Legislative Data Groups (LDGs), divisions, legal employers, and Payroll Statutory Units (PSUs) need to be configured for this company?

A. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five legal employers, and four PSUs (all except India)

B. four LDGs (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five divisions (one for each country), four legal employers (all except India), and five PSUs

C. five LDGs, five divisions, five legal employers, and five PSUs

D. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), two legal employers, and PSUs (US and UK only, because the workforce is very small in the other countries)

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

As an implementation consultant, you are in the process of setting up geographies in the application. Which three statements are true about defining geographies? (Choose three.)

A. You must identify the top-level of geography as Country and define a geography type.

B. You can only modify all levels of the geography structure before you load geography hierarchy.

C. You must map geography to reporting establishments for reporting purposes.

D. It is mandatory to define geography validations before geography hierarchy can be defined.

E. You must set geography validation for the specific address style for a country.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 15:

A customer has a requirement to add a new Action when hiring Part-Time Employees. What is the correct option?

A. Create an additional Action type Hire Part-Time Employee and do not associate it with any Action type.

B. Create an additional Action Hire Part-Time Employee and associate it with any Action type Hire an Employee.

C. Create an additional Action Reason Hire Part-Time Employee and associate it with any Action type Manage Employee.

D. Create an additional lookup with the value Hire Part-Time Employee.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

By using the asynchronous MySQL Replication architecture, data can be replicated to slaves. Identify three use cases of MySQL Replication.

A. MySQL Replication Connector/J (ReplicationDriver) is provided to allow read capability on slave and write capability on master.

B. MySQL Enterprise Backup will back up from Slave automatically.

C. It provides multi-master access where the application can write and read data across the database servers.

D. It allows backup to be done on the slave without impacting the master.

E. You can create a slave server for reporting applications, which get only read access to the slave servers. It off-loads the master server. Additional servers allow different database server configuration.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 2:

The MySQL pluggable authentication plug-in for Windows is enabled and configured. The following command is executed on a MySQL Server: CREATE USER `SQL_admin\’@\’%\’ IDENTIFIED WITH authentication_windows AS `joe, henry, “Power Users”\’;

Which two statements are valid?

A. When any of the named users is using a Linux Client, the user can access the MySQL Server from a MYSQL Client with the password configured in MySQL.

B. User Joe may log in to a Windows Client and then access the MySQL Server from a MySQL Client without being asked about a password.

C. When any of the named users is using a Linux Client, the user can access the MySQL Server from s MySQL Client with the password configured in the Windows Active Directory.

D. When any of the named users is using a Java application based on his or her Windows Client, no authentication is necessary to log in to MySQL.

E. Logins are granted only if the user\’s client application and the corresponding MySQL instance are on the same IP address.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

You get a Maintenance notification about your Oracle MySQL Cloud Service. What are the implications?

A. There are no maintenance operations planned. You need to do them manually.

B. Depending on the planned outage, you may not be affected by it. You need to read the maintenance details in the support notice.

C. You need to agree to the maintenance windows. If not, you are not affected by the outage.

D. You can expect an outage of your MySQL Cloud Service during the planned time.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A keyfile has been generated as follows: # openssl rand 32 -hex >keyfile # cat keyfile 6a1d325e6ef0577f3400b7cd624ae574f5186d0da2eeb946895de418297ed75b

You are required to do a backup on the MySQL database using MySQL Enterprise Backup with encryption.

Which option can perform the backup with the keyfile provided in order to encrypt the backup files?

A. # mysqlbackup – – backup-image=/backups/image.enc – – encrypt – -key-file= keyfile – -backup-dir=/var/tmp/backup backup-to-image

B. # mysqlbackup- – encrypt – -key-file=keyfile – -backup-dir=/var/tmp/backup backup

C. # mysqlbackup – – backup-image=/backups/image.enc – – encrypt- – encrypt-key=keyfile – – backup-dir=/var/tmp/backup backup-to-image

D. # mysqlbackup – – backup-image=/backups/image.enc – – encrypt – -key=keyfile – -backup-dir=/var/tmp/backup backup-to-image

E. # mysqlbackup- – encrypt – -key-file=keyfile – -backup-dir=/var/tmp/backup ?timestamp backup

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/mysql-enterprise-backup/4.1/en/meb-encryption.html


Question 5:

You use MySQL Enterprise Monitor for a group of MySQL servers. In recent weeks, the MySQL Enterprise Monitor has slowed down significantly.

Which two preventative actions should you take if your number of monitored MySQL instances has changed?

A. Increase the disk space with at least 10% of the database size.

B. Increase the necessary operating system swap space (Linux): mkswap /dev/sdx; swapon/dev/sdx, /etc/fstab.

C. Increase the amount of RAM available to the JVM installed with Tomcat. The JVM memory settings are defined by the JAVA_OPTS line of the setenv file, which sets the environment variables for Tomcat (–JvmMs/-Xms and -JvmMx/-Xmx).

D. Tune the InnoDB Buffer Pool of the MySQL Enterprise Monitor Repository database. This can have a significant impact on performance (innodb_buffer_pool_size).

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.6/en/innodb-buffer-pool.html


Question 6:

Your newly created MySQL Cloud Service is not available from your application. Select the two correct options that apply.

A. You forgot to create the correct SSL/TLC certificate during the setup process.

B. The `opc\’ user can be used to access MySQL only with the created SSH-Key.

C. Only `root\’ is allowed to access from non-localhost.

D. The MySQL instance is still in the “Creation” process.

E. You forgot to enable port 3306.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 7:

Which command in MySQL Utility can perform and start replication among a slave and multiple masters?

A. mysqlrplcheck

B. mysqlrplms

C. mysqlrpladmin

D. mysqlreplicatems

E. mysqlreplicate

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/mysql-utilities/1.5/en/mysqlrplms.html


Question 8:

Which three installation options are available for installing the MySQL Enterprise Monitor/Agent on Linux?

A. A GUI for installing MySQL Enterprise Monitor, Agent, and a MySQL Repository database

B. A CLI-based wizard MySQL Enterprise Monitor, Agent, and a MySQL Repository database

C. A script (with an option file) for installing MySQL Enterprise Monitor, Agent, and a MySQL Repository database

D. A MySQL Enterprise Monitor to remotely deploy the MySQL Monitor Agent

E. A browser-based wizard to remotely deploy the MySQL Monitor Agent

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 9:

Name three ways in which customers can receive notifications such as outages, configuration changes, database emergencies, and other information on their Database as a Service instances.

A. Email

B. SMS

C. Notification tab on the dashboard

D. Browser pop-ups

E. Direct support call from an Oracle representative

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 10:

You are required to set up a backup user ([email protected]) on the MySQL Database. The user should have the backup and restore privileges and additional privileges required for using transportable tablespaces (TTS). To back up and restore InnoDB tables.

Which syntax accomplishes this?

A. CREATE USER `mysqlbackup\’@localhost\’IDENTIFIED BY `new-password\’;

B. CREATE USER `mysqlbackup\’@localhost\’ IDENTIFIED BY `new-password\’; GRANT RELOAD ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_progress TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, SELECT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_history TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT REPLICATION CLIENT ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT SUPER ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’ localhost; GRANT PROCESS ON *.* `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’;

C. CREATE USER `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’ IDENTIFIED BY `new-password\’; GRANT RELOAD ON *.* TO `\’mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_progress TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, SELECT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_history TO `mysqlbackup\’@localhost\’;

D. CREATE USER `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’ IDENTIFIED BY `new-password\’; GRANT RELOAD ON *.* to `mysqlbackup\’@localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, DROP, UPDATE ON, mysql.backup_progress TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, SELECT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_history TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT REPLICATION CLIENT ON *.* to `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT SUPER ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT PROCESS ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT LOCK TABLES, SELECT, CREATE, ALTER ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_sbt_history TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’;

E. CREATE USER `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’ IDENTIFIED BY `new-password\’; GRANT RELOAD ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_progress TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, SELECT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_history TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT REPLICATION CLIENT ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’;

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You are using the InnoDB engine and the innodb_file_per_table option is set. You delete a significant number of a large table named INVENTORY.

What command will reorganize the physical storage of table data and associated index data for the INVENTORY table, in order to reduce storage space and improve I/O efficiency?

A. ANALYZE TABLE INVENTORY;

B. mysqlcheck INVENTORY

C. mysqldump INVENTORY

D. OPTIMIZE TABLE INVENTORY;

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.7/en/optimize-table.html


Question 12:

You need to load the MySQL Enterprise Audit plug-in at database startup and prevent the audit plug-in from being removed at run time.

Which two options should you include in the MySQL configuration file?

A. audit_log_permanent=ON

B. audit-log=FORCE_PLUS_PERMANENT

C. plugin-load=audit_log.so

D. plugin-audit=ON, ALWAYS

E. LOAD PLUGIN=AUDIT_LOG

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.7/en/audit-log-installation.html


Question 13:

Assume that MySQL Enterprise Monitor is configured to monitor MySQL 5.6 or a later instance. Which three features are available?

A. Deploying MySQL Agent on supported target operating system

B. Tracing import and export with mysqldump

C. Monitoring the availability of the MySQL instance

D. Creating E-Mail Alerts and SNMP Traps for MySQL Warnings

E. Starting and Stopping the MySQL Instance

F. Analyzing executed MySQL queries

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 14:

You have three machines with MySQL Databases running on Linux platform.

Which backup procedures would allow online and remote backup of the MySQL Database on three machines to a connected Storage NFS?

A. 1. Mount the Remote Storage NFS volume to each of the three machines with proper privilege for the backup OS user to have all access.

2.

Install MySQL Enterprise Backup on machine which is used to start the backup.

3.

Start mysqlbackup on only one machine with the installation to back up the databases for the three machines to the mounted volume using – -backup-dir and by giving –hosts=machine1:port1, machine2:port2, machine3:port3.

4.

Validate the backups using the mysqlbackup program to ensure that the backups created are valid.

B. 1. Mount the Remote Storage NFS volume to each of the three machines with proper privilege for the backup OS user to have all access.

2.

Install MySQL Enterprise Backup on all three machines.

3.

Start mysqlbackup on all machines to back up the database to the mounted volume using – -backup-dir.

4.

Validate the backup using the mysqlbackup program to ensure that the backup created is valid.

C. 1. Mount the Remote Storage NFS volume to each of the three machines with proper privilege for the backup OS user to have all access.

2.

Install MySQL Enterprise Backup on the machine that is used to start the backup.

3.

Start mysqlbackup on only one machine with the installation to back up the databases for the three machines to the mounted volume using – – backup-dir and by specifying — config-files=my1.cnf, my2.cnf, my3.cnf.my1.cnf, my2cnf, and my3.cnf are the MySQL Database Configuration files on the three machines.

4.

Validate the backup by using the mysqlbackup program to ensure that the backup created is valid.

D. 1. Mount the Remote Storage NFS volume to each of the three machines with proper privilege for the backup OS user to have all access.

2.

Install MySQL Workbench on a separate machine, which is used to connect to the three machines to back up and restore.

3.

Startup MySQL backup from MySQL Workbench to back up the three databases.

4.

Validate the backup by using MySQL Workbench to ensure that the backup created is valid.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

How do you restrict a user named joe from being able to connect from any IP address to a MySQL database?

A. Insert Joe\’s name into the mysql.user_restriction table, and issue the FLUSH PRIVILEGES command.

B. You cannot deny access to a user based on his or her username.

C. CREATE USER `joe\’@%\’ DENY ALL PRIVILEGES

D. UPDATE mysql.user SET Password=PASSWORD (`Invalid\’) WHERE User= `joe\’;

E. CREATE USER `joe\’@\’0.0.0.0\’SET Password=PASSWORD (`%!%\’)

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

On which three entities can proration be disabled? (Choose three.)

A. Calculation Rule Business Object

B. Bill Factor

C. Calculation Rule

D. Rate Version Calculation Group

E. Rate Schedule

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 2:

The base package usage transaction business object is represented by D2-UsageTransaction. The usage calculation engine or process drives the specifics of the usage to be calculated on this business object.

Based on this, which three configuration areas will have an impact on the usage calculation process? (Choose three.)

A. VEE rule

B. TOU map

C. Usage Rule

D. Factor Override

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E38983_04/PDF/MDM_Configuration_Guide_v2_1_0_3.pdf


Question 3:

Which describes derived values and their relationship with Final Measurements?

A. Final Measurements can have multiple derived values, which represent other values for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

B. Derived values can have multiple Final Measurements, which represent other values for the same Initial Measurement Date/Time.

C. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents an alternative for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

D. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents the Initial Measurement for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

What happens when a device\’s measuring components are reconfigured (a new measuring component will be read) at a service point?

A. A device with a new configuration type is created.

B. The original installation event is updated with the “removal” (expire old device configuration).

C. A device with a new configuration type is created. Moreover, a new installation event is created to `install” (new device configuration).

D. The original installation event is updated with the “removal” (expire old device configuration) and a new installation event is created to “install” (new device configuration).

E. A new installation event is created to “install” (new device configuration).

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

You are configuring a VEE group to include rules to be executed when loading the initial measurement data (IMD).

What is the VEE group directly associated with?

A. Device Type and Measuring Component Type

B. Measuring Component Type

C. Device Type

D. Usage Type

E. Device Configuration Type

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E38983_04/PDF/MDM_Configuration_Guide_v2_1_0_3.pdf (151 152)


Question 6:

Using a base-supplied algorithm type, what is payment distribution priority typically determined by?

A. Customer Class and Service Agreement Type

B. Payment Type Debt Age

C. Debt Age

D. Service Agreement Type\’s Priority and Debt Age

E. Customer Class and Debt Age

Correct Answer: E


Question 7:

Your client has installed scalar devices to measure the solar energy generated (Export) and the energy received (Import) from the National Grid. This data is stored in separate measuring components (registers).

The validation rules are generally the same for both measuring components, but there is one exception. The Negative Consumption check applies only to energy received (import). Which two are possible configurations resulting in the Negative Consumption rule being checked for energy received (import) only? (Choose two.)

A. Modify the base VEE rule.

B. Remove the Negative Consumption check from the VEE group.

C. Create two different VEE groups.

D. Use Eligibility Criteria.

E. Use the Skip Flag in the VEE rule.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 8:

Your client has the following requirements:

Many customers are installing their own solar electrical generation equipment. When these customers generate more electricity than required for their own use, the surplus can he exported back to the power grid.

In order to measure this generation, we have installed special scalar devices. These devices have separate registers to measure the energy generated (export) and the energy received (import) from the National Grid. Both reads will be stored in kWh, but the import is subtractive and export is consumptive.

What solution should you choose to configure the measuring component types for these specific requirements?

A. Create two service points: one for subtractive import and the other for consumptive export.

B. Create one new measuring component type for creating two measuring components (one for import and the other for export) that will be linked to one scalar device.

C. Create one new measuring component type for creating a new measuring component that will be linked to two different scalar devices (one for import and the other for export).

D. Create two new measuring component types (one for subtractive import and the other for consumptive export) to enable the creation of two measuring components that will be linked to one scalar device.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

When configuring the Get Scalar Details usage rule, which three attributes can be defined to retrieve scalar values? (Choose three.)

A. Unit of Measure

B. Device ID

C. Service Quantity Identifier

D. Time of Use

E. Service Point ID

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 10:

Which two plug-in spots can call the rating functionality using base package-supplied algorithm types? (Choose two.)

A. Adjustment Type – Adjustment FT Creation

B. Billable Charge Template

C. Bill Segment Type – Bill Segment Create

D. Adjustment Type – Generate

E. Bill Segment Type – Bill Segment FT Creation

Correct Answer: AE


Question 11:

If a customer makes a payment for more than what is due for the account, which entity contains the logic for how this overpayment should be handled?

A. Tender Type

B. Installation Options

C. Customer Class

D. Pay Segment Type

E. Service Agreement Type

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18733_01/pdf/E18368_V1_01.pdf


Question 12:

How many bill segment-related financial transactions do pay plans have?

A. depends on the number of payments that is part of the pay plan

B. one

C. depends on the number of bills that will contain the customer\’s pay plan commitments

D. none

E. unlimited

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

For a customer to receive a Subscription communication, what must they have?

A. an active address contact preference

B. an active address type preference

C. an active person contact preference

D. an active account contact preference

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which configuration steps are required to derive loss-adjusted kWh on a measuring component based on a loss factor value related to a service point?

A. Configure a Service Point Characteristic Type and derivation algorithm, and then associate the algorithm to the Measuring Component Type and the characteristic value to the service point.

B. Configure an SQI and the derivation algorithm, and then associate the algorithm to the Measuring Component Type and SQI to the service point.

C. Configure a factor and derivation algorithm, and then associate the factor to the Measuring Component Type and the derivation algorithm to the service point.

D. Configure a factor and derivation algorithm, and then associate both to the Measuring Component Type and service point.

E. Configure a Service Point Characteristic Type, factor, derivation algorithm, and Service Quantity Identifier (SQI), and then associate the SQI and derivation algorithm to the Measuring Component Type and the characteristic value to the service point.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which entity defines the type of collection process to start based on age of debt, amount of debt, and type of customer?

A. Debt Class

B. Customer Class

C. Collection Class Control

D. Collection Class

E. Collection Process Template

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E28945_01/4.3 Collect Revenue/CCandB URM 4.3.2.1.pdf