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Question 1:

There are several documents created during the creation/posting a transaction in SAP.

Which of the following documents are not specific to Logistics Execution? (Choose three)

A. Transfer order

B. Material document

C. Transfer requirements

D. Inbound delivery

E. Purchase Order

F. Sales order

G. Outbound delivery

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 2:

You receive stock that was purchased for a specific project. The stock should be separated from unrestricted stock of the same material. What do you have to customize in the system?

A. Define a new interim storage type and assign it to the WM movement type.

B. Create an entry in the storage type search table and add the stock category indicator.

C. De-activate the \’addition to stock\’ indicator in the material master data.

D. Create an entry in the storage type search table and add the special stock indicator.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

How is the connection of the organizational units in the warehouse to MM Inventory Management?

A. The assignment of warehouse to a plant

B. The assignment of warehouse to company code

C. The assignment of warehouse to a storage location

D. The assignment of warehouse to a combination of plant and storage location

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

You have been asked to explain the salient features of storage bin master record. Which of the following statement correct? (Choose two)

A. The storage bins are always created within a storage section

B. We can assign a picking area and, where necessary, a fire-containment section for hazardous good management

C. Storage bin can be assigned to a storage type

D. Every storage bin is uniquely identified by coordinates in the storage type, and up to 12 characters are available for constructing the storage bin coordinates

Correct Answer: AB


Question 5:

What are the steps involved in the picking process Using Warehouse Management? (Choose four)

A. Printing of transfer orders

B. Printing of transfer requirements

C. Post goods issue

D. Confirmation of quantities

E. Creation of transfer requirements for outbound delivery

F. Creation of transfer order for outbound delivery

Correct Answer: ACDF


Question 6:

Which of the following statement is correct about the warehouse number? (Choose two)

A. A warehouse number is linked to at least one combination of plant and storage location

B. We can assign a plant-storage combination to two or more warehouse numbers

C. We have to connect every storage location that has been created within a plant, in Inventory Management to a warehouse number

D. We can link several plantand-storage location combinations to one warehouse number

Correct Answer: AD


Question 7:

Your customer has cancelled the order at the last minute. However, the goods for the said order has already been picked, taken to the goods issue area, has to be returned to storage. What are the options available? (Choose three)

A. We can always use the return transfer of the picked quant to the picking bin by default

B. Return transfer of the picked quant to the picking bin

C. Putaway in another storage bin, possibly in another storage type

D. The transaction is available “Return to Stock for Delivery”

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 8:

There are several indicators which are maintained in the material master to control the stock removal activities at material level. Which of these indicators are correct? (Choose three)

A. Special movement indicator

B. Storage type indicator for stock removal

C. Bulk storage indicator

D. Two-step picking indicator

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 9:

How does the system distribute documents between the ERP Central Component (ECC) and decentralized WM?

A. IDocs

B. Radio Frequency (RF)

C. Core Interface (CIF)

D. Transactional Remote Function Call (tRFC) connection

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What are the variants of inventory procedure available in Warehouse Management? (Choose three)

A. Inventory on first putaway

B. Quarterly inventory

C. Annual inventory

D. Continuous inventory

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 11:

Which of the following are valid warehouse activity monitor objects? (Choose three)

A. Open transfer requirements

B. Open posting change notices

C. Unpacked deliveries

D. Blocked bins

E. Unconfirmed transfer orders

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 12:

In which putaway strategies do combination of storage bin types and storage unit types plays a decisive role? (Choose two)

A. Pallets

B. Addition to existing stock

C. Bulk storage

D. Fixed bin

E. Open storage

Correct Answer: AD


Question 13:

What are the reasons for using identification point storage type? (Choose three)

A. Contour control

B. To determine the source storage bin

C. To change the means of transport

D. To verify the system\’s information and the actual contents

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 14:

Which of the following function of the packing stations are correct? (Choose two)

A. We can able to connect computer-controlled scales to transfer the actual weight of a package to the SAP system

B. We need to implement Handling Unit Management in order to use Packaging functions

C. The data entry for the packing station is using scanners

D. The data entry for the packing station is manual like the other transaction in the system

Correct Answer: AC


Question 15:

At which level does the value update of inventory take place after you complete a physical inventory process?

A. WM level

B. Bin level

C. IM level

D. Storage type level

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

During maintenance of a role you notice that the status text for an authorization object indicates status “Changed New”. What does this status text mean?

A. The authorization object has been flagged as a critical object.

B. The authorization object must be maintained again.

C. The authorization object was used to create a new authorization because the initial configuration of the role changed a default value maintained in SU24.

D. The authorization object was used to create a new authorization because the values contained in SU24 differ from the SAP Standard contained in SU25.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

How can you protect a system when you do not want the user assignments for a role to be transported?

A. Restrict import of users in table PRGN_CUST in the target system

B. Restrict import of users in table PRGN_CUST in the development system

C. Restrict access to the user assignment tab in PFCG in the target system

D. Restrict access to the user assignment tab in PFCG in the development system

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following objects allows you to restrict which users can distribute a role to another system using an RFC destination?

A. S_USER_AGR

B. S_USER_SYS

C. S_USER_STA

D. S_USER_AUT

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

The report “Search for Application in Role Menu” can be called via which of the following options? (Choose two.)

A. Transaction RSUSR_ROLE_MENU

B. Transaction SUIM, (Menu node “Change Documents”)

C. Transaction RSUSR_START_APPL

D. Transaction SUIM (menu node “Roles”)

Correct Answer: AD


Question 5:

Which of the following transactions allow you to define role assignments for OData Services that are available on multiple back-end systems? (Choose two.)

A. /IWFND/MAINT_SERVICE

B. /UI2/GW_MAINT_SRV

C. /IWFND/GW_SYS_ALIAS

D. /IWFND/GW_CLIENT

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

Which of the following describe the behavior of a reference user when assigned to a user master record? (Choose two.)

A. The reference user roles are directly assigned to the user master record.

B. The roles of the reference user are always hidden.

C. The roles of the reference user can be shown.

D. The user master record references the roles and authorizations assigned to the reference user.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 7:

Which authorization object is required to modify authorization data of derived roles?

A. S_USER_SYS

B. S_USER_AUT

C. S_USER_VAL

D. S_USER_AGR

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which of the following accurately describe a Composite Role? (Choose two.)

A. Transactions cannot be deleted from the menu with the authorizations retained.

B. Authorizations are maintained at the single role level.

C. Menus cannot be adjusted as required.

D. User assignment is maintained at the Composite Role level.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 9:

A PFCG role can be linked to an SAP Organizational Management structure by which object types? (Choose three.)

A. Person

B. Position

C. Job

D. Organizational Unit

E. Task

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 10:

Which of the following illustrate the simplification of user and role maintenance on SAP Cloud? (Choose two.)

A. Read and write access can be restricted.

B. Business users have business roles.

C. Templates are provided for role derivation.

D. Business roles are automatically provisioned.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 11:

Which CDS-related repository object types are provided with ABAP CDS? (Choose three.)

A. CDS View Entity

B. Metadata Extensions

C. SQL View

D. Access Control

E. Data Definition

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 12:

Which of the following accurately describe Solution Manager functionality? (Choose three.)

A. System recommendations provide a worklist of potentially relevant security notes.

B. Configuration validation helps to standardize and harmonize security-related configuration items for ABAP systems only.

C. SAP SOS self-service is a convenient entry point to introduce security monitoring.

D. Configuration validation can check if security policies were applied.

E. SAP EWA provides the most comprehensive security check.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 13:

You want to adjust check indicator values for certain authorization objects delivered by SAP. In which of the following tables should your adjustments be recorded?

A. USOBHASH

B. USOBX

C. USOBT_C

D. USOBX_C

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

You want to limit an authorization administrator so that they can only assign certain authorizations. Which authorization object should you use?

A. S_USER_AGR

B. S_USER_ADM

C. S_USER_TCD

D. S_USER_VAL

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which of the following conditions apply when merging authorizations for the same object? (Choose two.)

A. Changed authorizations can be merged with manual authorizations, as long as the activation status is the same.

B. Changed authorizations can be merged with manual authorizations, even if the activation status is different.

C. Both the activation status and the maintenance status of the authorizations do not match.

D. Both the activation status and the maintenance status of the authorizations match.

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

Which of the following must you implement for high availability in an SAP HANA production system?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. A name server on one active node

B. Index server processes on all nodes

C. Shared file system for all nodes

D. Data replication to the standby nodes

E. A statistics server on one active node

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 2:

Which tool do you use for complex data transformation of SAP ERP data?

Please choose the correct answer. Response:

A. Sybase Replication Server

B. SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)

C. SAP BusinessObjects Explorer

D. SAP BusinessObjects Data Services

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What is the maximum number of master name servers that you can define in a distributed landscape?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. 8

B. 2

C. 3

D. 1

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Using SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT), you are replicating in real-time an SAP ERP system (source system) into an SAP HANA system.

How can you check whether the source system and SLT are synchronized?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. By executing the ABAP program :SAPLATRA_TOOL_TIMES in SLT and the SAP ERP system

B. By comparing the system time of the operating systems in SLT and the SAP ERP system

C. By comparing entries in table TTZCU (Customizing time zones) in SLT and the SAP ERP system

D. By executing the ABAP program :TZCUSTHELP in SLT and the SAP ERP system

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

Which of the following can decrease the startup time of an SAP HANA system after a reboot?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Reducing the number of column tables in the database

B. Reducing the size of the transactional data records

C. Reducing the number of fields in the master data

D. Reducing the size of the row-based tables

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following commands stops the SAP HANA database?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. HDB stop

B. stopsaphdb

C. HDB -stop

D. stop HDB

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

You create an analytic view and want to restrict access to departments with specific values using analytic privileges. Which tasks do you have to perform to accomplish this?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Choose an attribute and define restricted values for it.

B. Assign the analytic privilege to a user or role.

C. Assign values to be restricted to a content table.

D. Assign values to be restricted. Choose at least one information model to assign restrictions.

E. Assign restricted values to the attribute view.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 8:

The statistics server was stopped during an upgrade by the system administrator.

Which of the following parameters in statisticsserver.ini do you modify to restart the statistics server?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. statsconnect in the trace section

B. editing in the statisticsserver_general section

C. active in the statisticsserver_general section

D. statsserv in the trace section

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

What is the recommended approach by SAP when loading tables into SAP HANA from SAP ERP via Data Services?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Use open hub

B. Use the data staging server

C. Use the ABAP application tier

D. Use the Replication Server

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which driver is required for the connection between SAP HANA and SAP BusinessObjects Explorer?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. BICS

B. JDBC

C. ODBO

D. ODBC

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

You need to retrieve data from SAP HANA that is restricted to a certain region and specific users. How can you implement this security strategy?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. By assigning package privileges to the necessary users

B. By assigning analytic privileges to the necessary users

C. By assigning SQL privileges to the necessary users

D. By assigning system privileges to the necessary users

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which of the following can be done by the SAP HANA lifecycle manager?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Copy an SAP HANA system

B. Add an additional SAP HANA system

C. Change the SAP HANA license type

D. Rename an SAP HANA system

E. Uninstall an SAP HANA system

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 13:

You want to make sure that all data accesses to a specific view will be logged in the audit trail.

As part of an update of the database schema, the view is dropped and recreated under the same name. What is the consequence for auditing?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. The audit log-object references must be reinitialized.

B. Auditing continues to work for the view.

C. The audit policy needs to be reactivated.

D. Auditing needs to be set up again for the recreated view.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which security settings can you apply in analytic privileges?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Restrict access to hierarchies.

B. Restrict access within an analytic view using measure values.

C. Restrict access within an analytic view using attribute values.

D. Grant access to analytic views.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 15:

Which of the following users allow you to install SAP HANA studio on a Windows client platform?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. ADM users without administrator privileges

B. Domain users with administrator privileges

C. Local users with administrator privileges

D. Local users without administrator privileges

Correct Answer: BC


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Question 1:

Which interface provides single sign-on access for the purpose of administering Data Loss Prevention servers, managing policies, and remediating incidents?

A. Symantec Information Manager

B. Symantec Protection Center

C. Symantec Data Insight

D. Symantec Messaging Gateway

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which action is available for use in Smart Response rules and Automated Response rules?

A. modify SMTP message

B. block email message

C. limit incident data retention

D. post log to a syslog server

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which automated response action can be performed for data loss incidents caused by confidential data found on Windows shares?

A. Block Message

B. Quarantine File

C. User Cancel

D. Notify User

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

An administrator needs to deploy a Symantec Data Loss Prevention solution that will monitor network traffic. Which traffic type is excluded from inspection when using the default configuration?

A. HTTP-get

B. NNTP

C. FTP-put

D. HTTP-post

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which incidents appear in the Network Incident List report when the Network Prevent Action filter is set to Modified?

A. incidents in which confidential content was removed from the body of an SMTP email

B. incidents in which an SMTP email was changed to include one or more SMTP headers

C. incidents in which digital rights were applied to SMTP email attachments containing confidential information

D. incidents in which confidential attachments were removed from an SMTP email

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which server encrypts the message when using a Modify SMTP Message response rule?

A. Encryption Gateway

B. SMTP Prevent server

C. Network Monitor server

D. Enforce server

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A DLP administrator has determined that a Network Discover server is unable to scan a remote file server. Which action should the administrator take to successfully scan the remote file server?

A. restart the discover scan

B. verify that the target file server is a Windows 2008 server

C. use the fully qualified name (FQDN) of the server

D. verify that the file server has .NET services running

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

You have encapsulated the disk for swap partitions and created mirrors under the VxVM control. Which files in /etc get modified when the root disk is encapsulated?

A. vfstab and file system

B. vfstab and rootdisk

C. mnttab and file system

D. volboot and file system

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

An incident response team has determined that multiple incidents are resulting from the same user action of copying sensitive data to USB devices.

Which action should the incident response team take to fix this issue so only one incident per action is detected?

A. Create separate policies for the different detection methods

B. Combine multiple conditions into one compound rule

C. Change which \’Endpoint Destinations\’ are monitored

D. Change the monitor/ignore filters in the agent configuration

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is testing the DLP installation by placing .EML files into the drop folder, but has been unsuccessful in generating any incidents. The administrator is checking the Advanced Server Settings page to see if it can help diagnose

the issue.

What could be causing this problem?

A. BoxMonitor.IncidentWriter setting needs to be set to Test

B. BoxMonitor.FileReader needs to be set to default

C. BoxMonitor.IncidentWriterMemory is set too high

D. BoxMonitor.Channels contains an incompatible entry

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

A company needs to disable USB devices on computers that are generating a number of recurring DLP incidents. It decides to implement Endpoint Lockdown using Endpoint Prevent, which integrates with Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager and Symantec Management Platform. After incidents are still detected from several agents, the company determines that a component is missing.

Which component needs to be added to disable the USB devices once incidents are detected?

A. Control Compliance Suite

B. Workflow Solution

C. pcAnywhere

D. Risk Automation Suite

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized by department. What must be populated to generate this report?

A. remediation attributes

B. sender correlations

C. status groups

D. custom attributes

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region and summarized by department. Which incident information must be populated to generate this report?

A. remediation attributes

B. custom attributes

C. sender correlations

D. status groups

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What should an incident responder select to remediate multiple incidents simultaneously?

A. Smart Response on the Incident Snapshot page

B. Automated Response on an Incident List report

C. Smart Response on an Incident List report

D. Automated Response on the Incident Snapshot page

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

An incident responder is viewing a discover incident snapshot and needs to determine which information to provide to the next level responder. Which information would be most useful in assisting the next level responder with data clean-up?

A. Incident Details: Message Body content

B. Custom Attributes: Most Active User from Data Insight

C. Incident Details: File Owner metadata

D. Access Information: File Permissions

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

What is the correct syntax to count the number of events containing a vendor_action field?

A. count stats vendor_action

B. count stats (vendor_action)

C. stats count (vendor_action)

D. stats vendor_action (count)

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

By default, which of the following fields would be listed in the fields sidebar under interesting Fields?

A. host

B. index

C. source

D. sourcetype

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

When looking at a dashboard panel that is based on a report, which of the following is true?

A. You can modify the search string in the panel, and you can change and configure the visualization.

B. You can modify the search string in the panel, but you cannot change and configure the visualization.

C. You cannot modify the search string in the panel, but you can change and configure the visualization.

D. You cannot modify the search string in the panel, and you cannot change and configure the visualization.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

What type of search can be saved as a report?

A. Any search can be saved as a report

B. Only searches that generate visualizations

C. Only searches containing a transforming command

D. Only searches that generate statistics or visualizations

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What syntax is used to link key/value pairs in search strings?

A. action purchase

B. action=purchase

C. action | purchase

D. action equal purchase

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What syntax is used to link key/value pairs in search strings?

A. Parentheses

B. @ or # symbols

C. Quotation marks

D. Relational operators such as =,

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

When a Splunk search generates calculated data that appears in the Statistics tab. in what formats can the results be exported?

A. CSV, JSON, PDF

B. CSV, XML JSON

C. Raw Events, XML, JSON

D. Raw Events, CSV, XML, JSON

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which of the following are functions of the stats command?

A. count, sum, add

B. count, sum, less

C. sum, avg, values

D. sum, values, table

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which search matches the events containing the terms “error” and “fail”?

A. index=security Error Fail

B. index=security error OR fail

C. index=security “error failure”

D. index=security NOT error NOT fail

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/7.3.1/SearchReference/Search


Question 10:

Which of the following is an option after clicking an item in search results?

A. Saving the item to a report

B. Adding the item to the search.

C. Adding the item to a dashboard

D. Saving the search to a JSON file.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

When placed early in a search, which command is most effective at reducing search execution time?

A. dedup

B. rename

C. sort

D. fields

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

In the Splunk interface, the list of alerts can be filtered based on which characteristics?

A. App, Owner, Severity, and Type

B. App, Owner, Priority, and Status

C. App, Dashboard, Severity, and Type

D. App, Time Window, Type, and Severity

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A collection of items containing things such as data inputs, UI elements, and knowledge objects is known as what?

A. An app

B. JSON

C. A role

D. An enhanced solution

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following fields is stored with the events in the index?

A. user

B. source

C. location

D. sourcelp

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following is the recommended way to create multiple dashboards displaying data from the same search?

A. Save the search as a report and use it in multiple dashboards as needed

B. Save the search as a dashboard panel for each dashboard that needs the data

C. Save the search as a scheduled alert and use it in multiple dashboards as needed

D. Export the results of the search to an XML file and use the file as the basis of the dashboards

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

At what layer of the OSI model do routers function on?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 1

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

You are carrying out the last round of testing for your new website before it goes live. The website has many dynamic pages and connects to a SQL backend that accesses your product inventory in a database. You come across a web security site that recommends inputting the following code into a search field on web pages to check for vulnerabilities:

alert(“This is a test.”)

When you type this and click on search, you receive a pop-up window that says:

“This is a test.”

What is the result of this test?

A. Your website is vulnerable to web bugs

B. Your website is vulnerable to CSS

C. Your website is not vulnerable

D. Your website is vulnerable to SQL injection

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

What will the following command accomplish?

A. Test ability of a router to handle over-sized packets

B. Test the ability of a router to handle fragmented packets

C. Test the ability of a WLAN to handle fragmented packets

D. Test the ability of a router to handle under-sized packets

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

You work as a penetration tester for Hammond Security Consultants. You are currently working on a contract for the state government of California. Your next step is to initiate a DoS attack on their network. Why would you want to initiate a DoS attack on a system you are testing?

A. Use attack as a launching point to penetrate deeper into the network

B. Demonstrate that no system can be protected against DoS attacks

C. List weak points on their network

D. Show outdated equipment so it can be replaced

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

After passing her CEH exam, Carol wants to ensure that her network is completely secure. She implements a DMZ, statefull firewall, NAT, IPSEC, and a packet filtering firewall. Since all security measures were taken, none of the hosts on her network can reach the Internet. Why is that?

A. IPSEC does not work with packet filtering firewalls

B. NAT does not work with IPSEC

C. NAT does not work with statefull firewalls

D. Statefull firewalls do not work with packet filtering firewalls

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Jonathan is a network administrator who is currently testing the internal security of his network. He is attempting to hijack a session, using Ettercap, of a user connected to his Web server. Why will Jonathan not succeed?

A. Only an HTTPS session can be hijacked

B. Only DNS traffic can be hijacked

C. Only FTP traffic can be hijacked

D. HTTP protocol does not maintain session

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What will the following URL produce in an unpatched IIS Web Server?

A. Execute a buffer flow in the C: drive of the web server

B. Insert a Trojan horse into the C: drive of the web server

C. Directory listing of the C:\windows\system32 folder on the web server

D. Directory listing of C: drive on the web server

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Larry is an IT consultant who works for corporations and government agencies. Larry plans on shutting down the city\’s network using BGP devices and ombies? What type of Penetration Testing is Larry planning to carry out?

A. Internal Penetration Testing

B. Firewall Penetration Testing

C. DoS Penetration Testing

D. Router Penetration Testing

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Tyler is setting up a wireless network for his business that he runs out of his home. He has followed all the directions from the ISP as well as the wireless router manual. He does not have any encryption set and the SSID is being broadcast. On his laptop, he can pick up the wireless signal for short periods of time, but then the connection drops and the signal goes away. Eventually the wireless signal shows back up, but drops intermittently. What could be Tyler issue with his home wireless network?

A. 2.4 Ghz Cordless phones

B. Satellite television

C. CB radio

D. Computers on his wired network

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Simon is a former employee of Trinitron XML Inc. He feels he was wrongly terminated and wants to hack into his former company\’s network. Since Simon remembers some of the server names, he attempts to run the axfr and ixfr commands using DIG. What is Simon trying to accomplish here?

A. Perform a zone transfer

B. Perform DNS poisoning

C. Send DOS commands to crash the DNS servers

D. Enumerate all the users in the domain

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Why is it a good idea to perform a penetration test from the inside?

A. It is easier to hack from the inside

B. It is never a good idea to perform a penetration test from the inside

C. To attack a network from a hacker\’s perspective

D. Because 70% of attacks are from inside the organization

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

An “idle” system is also referred to as what?

A. PC not being used

B. PC not connected to the Internet

C. Bot

D. Zombie

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

You have compromised a lower-level administrator account on an Active Directory network of a small company in Dallas, Texas. You discover Domain Controllers through enumeration. You connect to one of the Domain Controllers on port 389 using ldp.exe. What are you trying to accomplish here?

A. Poison the DNS records with false records

B. Enumerate MX and A records from DNS

C. Enumerate domain user accounts and built-in groups

D. Establish a remote connection to the Domain Controller

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

After undergoing an external IT audit, George realizes his network is vulnerable to DDoS attacks. What countermeasures could he take to prevent DDoS attacks?

A. Enable BGP

B. Disable BGP

C. Enable direct broadcasts

D. Disable direct broadcasts

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Kyle is performing the final testing of an application he developed for the accounting department. His last round of testing is to ensure that the program is as secure as possible. Kyle runs the following command. What is he testing at this point?

#include

#include

int main(int argc, char *argv[])

{

char buffer[10];

if (argc < 2)

{

fprintf(stderr, “USAGE: %s string\n”, argv[0]);

return 1;

}

strcpy(buffer, argv[1]);

return 0;

}

A. Buffer overflow

B. Format string bug

C. Kernal injection

D. SQL injection

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

What value does the HP ProLiant 3D Sea of Sensors technology provide?

A. Visibility into and control over energy usage to decrease power and cooling costs

B. Continuous monitoring of users to enable early detection of suspicious activity and security threats

C. Ability to monitor traffic and process high-priority packets first, improving overall performance

D. Remote visibility into servers\’ operating systems, which simplifies server management

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA3-9650ENW.pdf (page 2)


Question 2:

Which benefits differentiate HP servers from competitors\’ servers? (Select two.)

A. HP is the only vendor that unifies UNIX and x86 hardware.

B. HP servers include a Get Virtual Guarantee.

C. HP servers feature autonomic management and tier 1 capabilities at mid-range prices.

D. HP servers have a 33% lower Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).

E. HP servers support open standards, rather than proprietary technologies.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

What is a distinct value of HP storage solutions for customers with a small IT group?

A. HP deduplication technologies minimize the amount of data that administrators need to manage.

B. HP embeds energy optimization technologies within all storage systems, saving maintenance costs.

C. HP can offer converged storage, networking, and server solutions with integrated management.

D. HP 3PAR thin provisioning technologies automatically deploy data protection across the data center.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A customer is considering whether moving toward the cloud makes sense for their business. How does the HP Cloud Optimizer help the customer meet their IT initiatives?

A. It automatically aligns the physical network with the needs of connected virtual machines (VMs).

B. It flattens the cloud networking environment so that it better supports mobile data.

C. It manages the support relationship with the cloud service provider

D. It simplifies moving applications and data between a private data center and the cloud.

Correct Answer: D

CloudOpt enables easier onboarding and migration to the cloud by accelerating data movement and application access. (Study guide p.35)


Question 5:

A customer needs a campus LAN networking solution that supports traditional desktops and wireless devices. How can you distinguish HP from competing solutions?

A. Explain that HP does not offer wireless solutions because its networks work with the customer\’s choice of wireless vendor.

B. Explain that HP provides simplified network solutions based on open standards that unify management of wired and wireless connectivity.

C. Explain that HP provides the only end-to-end solution based on proprietary wireless optimization technologies.

D. Explain that competitors only offer 1- or 2-tier solutions, but HP offers full 3-tier wired and wireless solutions.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/networking/solutions/wlan/index.aspx


Question 6:

What should you do in the final stage (stage 5) of a server sales opportunity?

A. State the value of the HP server solution for the customer; differentiate the HP solution from the competition.

B. Provide the customer with the \’HP Just Right Guide\’ or -HP Simply IT Solutions Guide\’ to help them design the solution.

C. Plan all the products and services that the customer will require; explain the cost of the solution.

D. Help the customer plan for virtualization by highlighting HP server technologies and benefits.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A company has implemented a Converged Infrastructure and needs a solution that can manage server, storage, networking, and data center. Which management solution will allow the company to manage their entire Converged Infrastructure?

A. HP Insight Management

B. HP OneView

C. HP IMC Smart Connect Virtual Appliance Edition

D. HP Matrix OE

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.1cloudroad.com/hp-oneview-managing-the-converged-infrastructure- data-center/


Question 8:

A company requires data protection for 70TB of data. The solution should provide fast disaster recovery and require relatively low bandwidth. Which HP storage solution best meets these needs?

A. HP StoreVirtual VSA

B. HP MSL Tape Libraries

C. HPStoreServ7000

D. HP StoreOnce 4000

Correct Answer: C

http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-9238ENW.pdf (p.1) ” Scalable to 76TB usable depending on model, Low-bandwidth replication for Disaster Recovery (DR)” (Study guide p.17)


Question 9:

If your customer needs to improve connectivity and bandwidth allocation online, which HP technology would you recommend?

A. HP Virtual Request Pools

B. HP Matrix Operating Environment

C. HP Data Center Smart Grid

D. HP FlexFabric Network

Correct Answer: D

http://www8.hp.com/h20195/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA5-4072ENW.pdf?ver=1.0


Question 10:

Match each service with the correct HP care package.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Explanation/Reference:

Collaborative Support provides reactive hardware support plus basic software diagnosis support and 3rd party collaboration Support Plus and Support Plus 24 provides integrated reactive hardware and software support (Study guide p.17)

Benefits of HP Proactive Care Personalized Support Option (Study guide p.18)

A technical expert who knows the customer


Question 11:

Match each description of a business to the appropriate stage in the Small Business growth path.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Explanation/Reference:

Building momentum

Firmly in growth mode


Question 12:

Match each HP server product or feature with the customer phase for which it brings the most value.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Explanation/Reference:

Gaining efficiency (Study guide p.42)

HP Servers

HP Smart Update

Automated system maintenance-systematic server updates

Deploys updates 3x faster, with 93% less downtime during online updates

Starting out (Study guide p.40)

HP Servers:

HP MicroServer

Server performance but at a PC price

Space saving


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Question 1:

Which configuration item accepts named VLANs as a parameter? (Select three )

A. RADIUS Server attributes for role derivation

B. Authentication Server attributes for server derivation

C. User Role for single VLAN

D. Port trunk configuration

E. Firewall session rule

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 2:

Which AP Group configuration feature should be enabled on an Aruba Mobility Controller to support client last roaming?

A. Fast BSS Transition

B. Client Match

C. Fast Connect

D. Fast Adaptive Transition

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An administrator implements a WLAN virtual AP (VAP) to authenticate employee access on Aruba Mobility Controller in a master-local topology. However, when testing wireless access from a Windows client the administrator sees the pop-up window show in the exhibit:

What should the administrator do to solve this problem?

A. Add a client certificate from the same CA used to obtain the controller\’s certificate on the Windows client.

B. Add the root certificate for the corresponding controller identity certificate on the windows client.

C. Configure the client\’s certificate as a trusted certificate on the Windows client.

D. Define the controller\’s certificate as a trusted certificate on the windows client.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

An administrator plans to deploy a Remote AP (RAP) for a new branch office. The AP Group will have one Virtual AP (VAP) profile for guests and one VAP profile for employees. All employee traffic will be sent to the corporate office. The guest traffic should be forwarded directly to the internet from the RAP.

Which RAP operating mode should the administrator configure for the guest VAP?

A. Bridge

B. Tunnel

C. Source NAT

D. Split-Tunnel

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: http://www.airheads.eu/aruba/attachments/aruba/Aruba- VRDs/44/1/Aruba RAP VRD.pdf


Question 5:

What does an AP in Hybrid Spectrum mode do?

A. Puts the selected band in spectrum mode and services clients on the other band.

B. has all Aps in AP-group scan home channel and service clients.

C. countries to serve clients as an AP while it scans and analyzes traffic

D. makes the AP a spectrum monitor, but does not affect other Aps in the AP-group.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Refer to Exhibit: A company deploys centralized licensing with centralized licensing redundancy. An administrator verifies that the centralized licensing is operational. Local controllers obtain licensing from the centralized license servers. The current network environment consists of:

*

79 Aps connected to the three local controllers.

*

64 Aps connected to the 3600 controller.

*

15 Aps connected to the two 7010 controller.

The activity and standby license servers were inadvertently connected to the same power source. The power source fails one day. The administrator then adds a newly purchased AP to the network while the license servers are still down. The

new AP then boots up and attempts to connect to the 3600 local controller.

What happens to this AP?

A. The 3600 uses the hardware-based AP license to allow the AP to associate to the controller.

B. the 3600 fails to obtain the correct licensing and will not allow the AP to associate to the controller.

C. the 3600 uses its own local software licensing to allow the AP to associate to the controller.

D. The available license count is reset and the 3600 obtains the correct licensing from the new active licensing server.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An administrator installs a new Remote AP (RAP) at a branch office. This RAP will connect to the corporate office\’s Aruba Mobility Controller in the DMZ from across the internet. The administrator will need to make some rule changes on the firewall to allow for this connectivity.

Which protocol or protocols will the administrator have to permit on the firewall for the RAP to successfully connect to and send users wireless 802.1x data to the corporate office?

A. IPSec/NAT-T and PAPI, but not GRE

B. GRE, but not IPSec/NAT-T or PAPI

C. IPSEC/NAT-T, but not GRE or PAPI

D. PAPI and GRE, but not IPSec/NAT-T

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

As an administrator user which type of role based management users can be created on Aruba controllers that have no access to CLI commands?

A. Supporting-Generation user

B. Maintenance user

C. network-operation user

D. Airwave Management user.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which description of the adaptive Radio Management (ARM) spectrum Load Balancing feature is accurate? (Select two) A. It is enabled by default.

B. It only affects the association of new clients.

C. It is available only on 5GHz radios.

D. It is disabled by default.

E. It is available only on 2.4 GHz radios.

Correct Answer: BD

Explanation: http://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_60/UserGuide/ARM.php


Question 10:

An administrator configures a Virtual AP (VAP) profile for an AP Group Which profiles must the administrator reference in the VAP configuration so that the VAP is functional and the WLAN can be used to connect wireless users to the network? (Select two.)

A. AAA

B. Radio Settings

C. SSID

D. VLAN Profile

E. System Profile

Correct Answer: AC

http://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_64_Web_Help/Content/ArubaFrameSty les/VirtualAPs/Virtual_AP_Profiles.htm


Question 11:

What does Adaptive Radio Management (ARM) allow controllers to provision?

A. Optimal channels and power settings for Aps

B. lower power when unauthorized Aps are detected

C. configured radio bands

D. radio type of the AP

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

An administrator sets up a captive portal tor guest access with these specifications:

*

VLAN 18 for the guest users will terminate on the controller and will not extend into the corporate network.

*

Aps that advertise the guest SSID will tunnel traffic to the controller, and the controller will authenticate the users.

*

Once the users are authenticated, the user traffic will be translated to a different VLAN before it is forwarded to the corporate network to reach the internet.

When the administrator sets up this solution, the users fails to see the captive portal web page for authentication and cannot access the internet. The administrator determines the problem is that the guest VLAN does not have any ports associated to it on the controller.

Which CLI command should the administrator implement to resolve the issue?

A. interface vlan 19 no shutdown

B. vlan 18 operstate up

C. vlan 18 enable

D. interface blan 19 operstate up.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

An administrator purchases some new Aps for branch offices. Currently the Aps at the branch offices connect to local Aruba Mobility Controller at the corporate office across a private WAN. The network is managed with the Aruba AirWave management platform. The administrator wants to ensure that when the new Aps are plugged in and booked up the Aps can automatically discover and register with the AirWave server and obtain AP Group configuration.

Which Aruba tool should the administrator use?

A. Clearpass

B. Activate

C. Central

D. Meridan

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

An administrator currently has one Aruba Mobility Controller in the network. Because of the company\’s rapid growth, the administrator plans to purchase three additional controllers that will be configured in a local operating mode. The administrator wants to protect the messages between the existing master controller and three local controllers.

Which Aruba Mobility controller feature needs to be configured to provide this protection?

A. Control Plane Security (CPSec)

B. Domain controls

C. IPSec tunnels

D. Digital certificates

Correct Answer: C

Topic 2, Main Pool Questions Set B


Question 15:

Which ARM feature addresses the issue of sticky clients by moving clients to associate to APs with better 802.11 signal quality?

A. Co-Channel interference mitigation

B. Airtime Fairness

C. ClientMatch

D. Coordinated access to a single channel

E. Band Steering

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

In Pega Customer Decision HubTM, the characteristics of an action are defined by using

A. properties

B. logos

C. plain text

D. banners

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

To calculate the total number of customer responses of four actions in a group, you must use________________.

A. four Group By components

B. one Group By component

C. four Set Property components

D. one Set Property component

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

MyCo, a telecom company, wants to present their customers on Facebook with customer- centric mobile internet offers. What action must MyCo take to meet this business requirement?

A. Place a paid ad

B. Make a call

C. Send an email

D. Create a Facebook post

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

MyCo, a telecom company, wants to send promotional emails to give away phone accessories. The accessories can only be given away in batches of 50. When the stock in a batch is completed, a new batch can be promoted again.

You have decided to use volume constraint to limit the number of actions in a batch. To meet the business requirement, what Reset Interval setting do you select?

A. When accessed

B. Manual

C. Daily

D. Reset Interval does not matter for this scenario

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

U Bank wants to offer credit cards only to low-risk customers. The customers are divided into various risk segments from Good to Very Poor. The risk segmentation rules that the business provides use the Average Balance and the customer Credit Score.

As a decisioning consultant, you decide to use a decision table and a decision strategy to accomplish this requirement in Pega Customer Decision HubTM.

Using the decision table, which label is returned for a customer with a credit score of 240 and an average balance 35000?

A. Fair

B. Good

C. Very Poor

D. Poor

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

MyCo, a telecom company, introduced fiber optic service in the northern region of the country. They want to advertise this service on their website by using a banner and target the customers living in that area.

What do you need to configure in the Next-Best-Action Designer to implement this requirement?

A. Applicability rules

B. Audience

C. Prioritization formula

D. Customer segment

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

The following decision strategy outputs the most profitable shoe a retailer can sell. The profit is the selling Price of the shoe, minus the Cost to acquire the shoe.

The details of the shoes are provided in the following table:

What is the number of outputs that each component has?

A. Set-Property=1, Results=4

B. Set-Property=4, Results=4

C. Set-Property=1, Results=1

D. Set-Property=4, Results=1

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

U Bank, a retail bank, follows all engagement policy best practices to present credit card offers on their website. The bank has introduced a new credit card offer, the Rewards card. Anna, an existing customer, currently holds a higher value card. Premier Rewards, and does not see the new Rewards card offer.

What condition possibly prevents Anna from seeing the new Rewards card offer?

A. Applicability

B. Suppression rules

C. Suitability

D. Eligibility

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

As a decisioning consultant, you advise the board on the business issues for which they must use the Next-Best-Action strategy.

Which three business issues do you recommend? (Choose Three)

A. Collections

B. Service

C. Retention

D. Resource Planning

E. Accounting

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 10:

U Bank wants to offer credit cards only to low-risk customers. The customers are divided into various risk segments from Good to Very Poor. The risk segmentation rules that the business provides use the Average Balance and the customer Credit Score.

As a decisioning consultant, you decide to use a decision table and a decision strategy to accomplish this requirement in Pega Customer Decision HubTM.

Which property allows you to use the risk segment computed by the decision table in the decision strategy?

A. pxOutcome

B. pxResu/t

C. pxSegment

D. pxRiskSegment

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

MyCo, a telecom company, notices that when customers call to check on bill status, 80% of the time, they received the wrong offer promotion, leading to customer dissatisfaction. The company decides to boost customers\’ needs in the prioritization formula, to improve sales in the current quarter.

Which arbitration factor do you configure to implement the requirement?

A. Context weighting

B. Propensity

C. Business weighting

D. Action value

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

MyCo, a mobile company, uses Pega Customer Decision HubTM to display offers to customers on its website. The company wants to present more relevant offers to customers based on customer behavior. The following diagram is the action hierarchy in the Next- Best-Action Designer.

The company wants to present offers from both the groups and arbitrate across the two groups to select the best offer based on customer behavior. As a decisioning consultant, what must you do to present offers from the two groups?

A. Enable an engagement policy for the second group.

B. Set contact limits for both the groups.

C. Map a real-time container to the Top-level or Issue-level.

D. Create a decision strategy at the Issue-level.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

U Bank wants to offer credit cards only to customers with a low-risk profile. The customers are divided into various risk segments from AAA to CCC. The risk segmentation rules that the business provides use the Age and the customer Credit Score based on the following table. The bank uses a scorecard model to determine the customer Credit Score.

As a decisioning consultant, how do you implement the business requirement?

A. Add the risk segmentation rules in the Results tab of the scorecard rule.

B. Add a decision table to a decision strategy and pass the credit score as the parameter.

C. Add a decision table to a decision strategy and reference it in the scorecard component. D. Add three contact policies that correspond to the three risk segments.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

U Bank, a retail bank, wants to send promotional emails related to credit card offers to their qualified customers. The business intends to use the same action flow template with the desired flow pattern for all the credit card actions.

What do you configure to implement this requirement?

A. Output template

B. Dynamic template

C. File template

D. Email treatment

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

U Bank has recently introduced a few mortgage offers that are presented to qualified customers on its website. The business now wants to prevent offer overexposure, as overexposure negatively impacts the customer experience.

Select the correct suppression rule for the requirement: If a customer is presented on the website with the same offer five times in the last 14 days, do not show the same offer to that customer for the next 10 days.

A. Suppress an action for 10 days if there are five impressions for any channel in the last 14 days

B. Suppress a group of actions for 10 days if there are five impressions for any channel in the last 10 days

C. Suppress an action for 10 days if there are five impressions for web channel in the last 14 days

D. Suppress an action for 14 days if there are five rejects for web channel in the last 10 days

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Directly connected to the specified port of the peer device, does not forward any packets, but which port is the port that receives BPDUs to monitor network changes?

A. Root Port

B. Designated Port

C. Alternate Port

D. Disable Port

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Among the following IP addresses, which IPs can\’t be obtained by a PC via DHCP? (multiple choice)

A. 224.0.0.1

B. 10.0.1.128/25

C. 169.254.136.228

D. 12.2.2.3/30

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 3:

Which of the following is the correct description of the configuration BPDU generation? (multiple choice)

A. As long as the port is enabled with STP, the configuration BPDU will be sent from the designated port at regular intervals.

B. When the root port receives the configuration BPDU, the device where the root port resides will copy a configuration BPDU to each of its designated ports.

C. When the designated port receives a configuration BPDU that is worse than itself, it will immediately send its own BPDU to the downstream device.

D. The topology of the non-root bridge changes. The BPDU is notified by configuring the BPDU.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 4:

Asynchronous Response Mode (ARM) is a way of allowing any node to initiate a transfer.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following is the Ethernet_II frame structure?

A. Source MAC destination MAC protocol type data FCS

B. Destination MAC source MAC protocol type data FCS

C. Source MAC destination MAC packet length data FCS

D. Destination MAC source MAC packet length data FCS

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is the correct statement about free ARP? (multiple choice)

A. By sending a free ARP, you can confirm whether the IP address has a conflict.

B. The free ARP packet format belongs to the AR request packet.

C. Free ARP helps update old IP address information

D. The free ARP packet format belongs to the ARP reply packet.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 7:

Similar to the OSI model, the TCP/IP model also uses a hierarchical structure. Is the TCP/IP model divided into several levels?

A. Four

B. Five

C. Six

D. Seven

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

If there is a routing loop in the network, then the packet will be forwarded on the loop link until the loop is eliminated.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following statements about Frame Relay is correct? (multiple choice)

A. DLCI is only valid on the local interface and the peer interface directly connected to it.

B. PVC is a virtual connection that can only be established between DCEs

C. The frame relay address mapping table stores the mapping relationship between the peer IP address and the DLCI of the next hop.

D. The reverse address resolution protocol can obtain the corresponding DLCI through the peer IP.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 10:

A permanent virtual circuit is to provide a fixed virtual circuit to the user. Once the circuit is established, the link water is valid, unless the administrator manually deletes it. PVC is used for frequent and stable traffic transmission between the two ends.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

In VRP, what are the following statements about RIP route aggregation?

A. RIP V1 supports route aggregation by default. You can disable route aggregation when needed.

B. RIP V2 supports off route aggregation.

C. RIP V1 does not support CIDR

D. RIP V2 supports subnet route aggregation

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 12:

How many insulated copper wires are discharged together and then twisted together in a regular way to form a twisted pair?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 8

D. 16

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which configuration method can be used to add the trunk port ethernet0/1 of the switch to VLAN 4? (multiple choice)

A. [Switch]vlan 4 [Switch-vlan4]port ethernet 0/1

B. [Switch]vlan 4 [Switch-Ethernet0/1]port trunk pvid vlan 4

C. [Switch]vlan 4 [Switch-vlan4]port trunk ethernet 0/1

D. [Switch]vlan 4 [Switch -Ethernet0/1]port trunk permit vlan 4

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 14:

Regarding the process of terminal users accessing the Internet, what are the correct descriptions below? (multiple choice)

A. The user initiates an Internet access request, and the Layer 2 device of the access network establishes a Layer 2 connection for the user and transparently transmits the request to the upper BRAS device.

B. The access network does not control the user, but simply establishes a Layer 2 connection to transparently transmit user information to the upper device.

C. SR is responsible for the authentication, authorization, and assignment of IP addresses to users.

D. After the user authentication succeeds, the BRAS routes the user packet to the upstream device, that is, the aggregation layer device.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 15:

What is the packet that the STP downstream device uses to notify the upstream device that the network topology changes?

A. Agency BPDU

B. TCN BPDU

C. Discover BPDUs

D. Reverse BPDU

Correct Answer: B