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Question 1:

Which are two custom setup options when installing VMware Horizon Agent on a master image? (Choose two.)

A. USB Redirection

B. Windows Media Multimedia Redirection

C. VMWare Horizon Instant Clone Agent

D. Unity Touch

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.3/horizon-virtual-desktops/GUID-61090F90-186F-4932-BB0F-06902F0908B5.html


Question 2:

The vRealize Operations Manager for VMware Horizon dashboards are all blank except for the Horizon Adapter Self Health dashboard. What two actions will resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Add a vRealize Operations for Horizon License Key

B. Associate Horizon objects with the vRealize Operations for Horizon License Key

C. Create an instance of the Horizon Adapter

D. Configure the vRealize Operations for Horizon Broker Agent

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

Which two deployment types are available to the administrator when enabling View Applications in VMware Identity Manager? (Choose two.)

A. Pool-based

B. User-Activated

C. Automatic

D. Manual

Correct Answer: BC

Reference https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Identity-Manager/2.9.1/com.vmware.wsp-resource_29/GUID-0F51186D-624F-4208-818F-A06D5ACE6F3D.html


Question 4:

Which three are valid types of resources that can be integrated with VMware Identity Manager? (Choose three.)

A. Horizon Flex resources

B. Web Applications

C. Citrix-published resources

D. Microsoft Azure resources

E. Horizon 7 resources

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/identity-manager-27/topic/com.vmware.ICbase/PDF/vidm-27-resource.pdf


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

While using vRealize Operations for VMware Horizon you notice that the Horizon RDS Pools Dashboard displays the message in the exhibit. What should be done to resolve the issue?

A. Verify that the vRealize Operations for Horizon Desktops agent is installed on the RDSH servers

B. Set the RDS Pools Dashboard as the default dashboard

C. Ensure that RDS licensing has been configured for the RDS servers

D. Configure the View Events database

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

An administrator is creating an instant clone pool. During the Add pool wizard process, the Administrator gets to the vCenter Server page, selects Instant Clones and notices that the notices that the Next button is grayed out.

A. The administrator does not have sufficient privileges

B. In the wizard, the Administrator must click on the desired vCenter server in the vCenter Server section

C. The administrator must open PowerCLI, issue the cmdlet mkfs -t ext3 /”My Folder”/”My Disks” to add additional space

D. The VMware View Connection Server service is halted and must be restarted

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which three actions does the User Environment Manager Helpdesk Support Tool allow a desktop support engineer to perform? (Choose three.)

A. Backing up a profile archive

B. Searching and select users

C. Resetting and restoring profile archives

D. Restarting the (VMware UEM Service) FlexEngine service

E. Viewing FlexEngine logs

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/pdf/uem-860-helpdesk-admin-guide.pdf


Question 8:

What is the last step that must be completed to prepare a desktop virtual machine for use in a linked clone pool?

A. Install VMTools on the virtual machine

B. Turn on the virtual machine and then take a snapshot

C. Install the Horizon View Agent on the virtual machine

D. Shut down the virtual machine and then take a snapshot

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

How can an administrator lock down access to the User Environment Manager management console?

A. By disabling the Configure ribbon button

B. By using the Lock down access to VMware UEM Management Console policy setting

C. By locking access to the VMware UEM Management Console ADMX template

D. By disabling access to the User Environment, Personalization, Condition Set, and Application Migration ribbons

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/uem-91/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.user.environment.manager-adminguide/GUID-17CD9E09-C817-42BD-A56E-4C85C9879EB1.html


Question 10:

A Microsoft Windows Server Operating System master image is being developed for use as a single-session host. Which two steps must the administrator perform before installing VMware Horizon Agent? (Choose two.)

A. Install the Remote Desktop Services Role

B. Verify that the Remote Desktop Services role is not installed

C. Install Service Pack 1 for Windows Server 2008 R2 or Windows Server 2012 R2

D. Install the Microsoft IIS Service

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-6/6.2/com.vmware.horizon-view.desktops.doc/GUID-5D941C48-C931-4CA5-BA23-8AA0C392A6DE.html


Question 11:

Which two guest virtual machine components provide the best performance in a View virtual desktop? (Choose two.)

A. vmxnet3

B. BusLogic

C. PVSCSI

D. e1000

Correct Answer: CD


Question 12:

During an installation of View Connection Server, the Install HTML Access option setting is not being displayed in the installer. What is the probable cause?

A. FIPS mode is disabled

B. Configure Windows Firewall automatically option is selected

C. IPv6 is selected as Internet Protocol (IP)

D. IPv4 is selected as Internet Protocol (IP)

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/horizon-7-view/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.horizon-view.installation.doc/GUID-9F93A59F-C35F-4388-B3D6-CE4F50D8BAFD.html


Question 13:

What are two required Active Directory permissions for the Instant Clone Domain Admin account? (Choose two.)

A. Read all properties

B. Write all properties

C. Create computer objects

D. Full control

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.0/com.vmware.horizon-view.installation.doc/GUID-E91881F4-F8C0-48A5-A1A4-61577E287E29.html


Question 14:

When preparing a master image for a virtual desktop infrastructure environment, how should disk defragmentation be configured?

A. Run a disk defragmentation and then schedule automatic defragmentation tasks prior to publishing the desktop

B. Do not run a disk defragmentation but schedule automatic defragmentation tasks prior to publishing the desktop

C. Run a disk defragmentation and then disable automatic defragmentation tasks prior to publishing the desktop

D. Do not run a disk defragmentation but disable automatic defragmentation tasks prior to publishing the desktop

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.1/view-71-setting-up-virtual-desktops.pdf


Question 15:

What task is a prerequisite before installing View Composer?

A. Enable TLSv1.0 security protocol

B. Create a database and data source name (DSN)

C. Configure an SSL Certificate for View Composer that is signed by a Certificate Authority (CA)

D. Pair the connection server with the security server

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/horizon-7-view/topic/com.vmware.horizon-view.installation.doc/GUID-4CF63F93-8AEC-4840-9EEF-2D60F3E6C6D1.html


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Question 1:

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A. Global Variable

B. Environment Variable

C. Exposed Process Value

D. Exposed Process Variable

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A developer has an Output Text with control ID \’Output_Text1\’ above a Table in a Coach. Within the Table, there are two columns:

1.

The first column is a Text Control with control ID TextV

2.

The second column is a Button control with control ID \’Button1\’

How would a developer set the value of a Text control to \’Clicked\’ when a Button on the same row is pressed?

A. Set the Text\’s \’On Change\’ Event configuration option to: ${Textl=}.setText(\’clicked\’) ;

B. Set the Button\’s \’On click\’ Event configuration options to: ${Text1=}.setText<\'Clicked\') ;

C. Set the Table\’s \’On custom cell\’ Event configuration option to: ${Text1=}.setText(\’Clicked\’);

D. Set the Text\’s \’On boundary event\’ Event configuration option to: ${Text1=).setText(fClicked\’);

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

The IBM embedded document store should be considered based on which business requirement?

A. Document is not accessed during the process

B. Coaches should be able to display the documents

C. Lifecycle of the document needs to be tied to the process

D. Documents need to be retained long after the process instances are deleted

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

The first component of the Vehicle Details coach is a Text field with the label Search Vehicle in a coach view, which is configured to fire a boundary event. Which one of the events does the BPM application developer need to use so that the Vehicle List table filters to matching vehicle selected from Search Vehicle field?

A. Onload

B. Onclick

C. On input

D. Change the event handler and specify this.context.refreshView();

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Where are bulk user attribute assignments set?

A. Process Admin

B. Process Center

C. Process Designer

D. Process Inspector

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

How can process applications be enabled to create, update, or download ECM documents?

A. Use an external ECM server instead of the internal IBM BPM document store.

B. Select \’Always use this connection information\’ properties of the ECM server definition.

C. Use the Document List or Document Viewer coach views to create, update, or download the documents.

D. Add the \’enable-document-authorization-security-service\’ configuration setting to the 100Custom.xml.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is a valid logging command to print log statements to the client-side browser?

A. print.log(`\’info”)

B. debug.log(“info\’\’)

C. client.log(`\’infon\’\’)

D. console.log(`\’info”)

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which statement is true regarding the Tab index configuration option?

A. It sequences each Tab dynamically for the Tab control.

B. It flags the control to display with the warning color.

C. It only works when the Coach is set to Responsive mode.

D. It sets the sequence index for the control on the form when the user presses their Tab1 keyboard button.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which statement is true about working with system data toolkits?

A. The system data toolkit includes many predefined variable types.

B. Administrative access is required to edit the library items in a system data toolkit.

C. When a new process application is created, the system data toolkit needs to be added as a dependency.

D. Adding a dependency on the system data toolkit allows the creation of custom, localized dashboards with the reusable interface elements.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What are two IBM BPM tools a developer can use to immediately fire a timer event while testing a process instance?

A. The BPMConfig script

B. The Event Manager in the WAS admin console

C. The Process Inspector in the Process Designer

D. The Process Inspector in the Process Admin console

E. The Process Performance Dashboard in the Process Portal

Correct Answer: CD


Question 11:

What would be the first step for a developer asked to replicate functionality from an out-of-the-box IBM BPM Process Portal Dashboard in a new custom coach view?

A. Retrieve the Process Portal .ear file from the WAS console and inspect the file for the desired functionality.

B. Copy the existing coach views and functionality in the Process Portal process application that comes with IBM BPM.

C. Open the Process Portal Dashboard and use the browser\’s developer tools to inspect and recreate the desired functionality.

D. Create a new process application, add the BPM Ul toolkit dependency, and refer to the BPM Ul toolkit controls that were part of the Process Portal Dashboard.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which gateway can be used for a service flow where more than one path can be followed for a specific process instance?

A. Event Gateway

B. Parallel Gateway

C. Exclusive Gateway

D. Decision Task Gateway

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What is the definition of the `\’item\’\’ type shown in the diagram below?

A. It must be completed by process participants

B. It uses JavaScript to access and manipulate data

C. It must be completed by an automated system or service

D. It uses JavaScript APIs to evaluate a condition in a business rule

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which two coach views can a developer use to show a list of ECM documents on a Coach?

A. BPM File List

B. ECM File Uploader

C. Document Explorer

D. BPM Document List

E. ECM Document List

Correct Answer: AE


Question 15:

A developer believes there is an issue with a UCA being invoked. What are two places the developer can look for more information?

A. SystemOut.log

B. Process Admin \’Event Manager\’ page a

C. Process Admin \’Installed Apps\’ page

D. Process Designer \’Process Details\’ page

E. Process Portal \’Process Instance Details\’ page

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

What is an advantage of adopting a microservices strategy in an application development environment?

A. All microservices of an application are always updated at the same time for maintaining consistency in the application

B. Every microservice can be deployed, upgraded, scaled, and restarted independent of other services in the application

C. Microservices are tightly coupled so it is easy to scale all the services at once to meet business demands

D. Microservices provide the application platform to implement DevOps in the organization easily and at low cost

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which role in service portfolio management determines and delivers the services that provide value and strategic advantage to the provider?

A. Cloud Service Account Manager

B. Cloud Automation Engineer

C. Cloud Administrator

D. Cloud Auditor

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit, which represents a consumer environment consisting of multiple VMs running Windows operating systems (OSs).

For compliance reasons, the cloud service provider maintains version control over the OS provided to the consumer. The service provider also ensures that the configurations of the VMs comply with the configuration policy for the OS version. The configuration policy includes the two conditions shown in the exhibit. A monitoring tool verifies VM configurations against the configuration policy and provides the compliance results shown.

What is the percentage of compliance non-adherence?

A. 30.12%

B. 33.34%

C. 58.33%

D. 66.67%

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which management process ensures business continuity by eliminating single points of failure in a data center?

A. Availability management

B. Security management

C. Capacity management

D. Performance management

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which Dell EMC product is used for a disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides inherent source-based data deduplication?

A. NetWorker

B. ProtectPoint

C. Data Domain

D. Avamar

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

The incident management team is unable to determine the root cause of an incident. To which team should the error-correction activity be transferred?

A. Performance Management

B. Change Management

C. Availability Management

D. Problem Management

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What capability is provided by the “Open and extensible” attribute of software-defined infrastructure (SDI)?

A. Uses APIs to integrate multivendor resources into the SDI environment

B. Optimizes resource usage and generates value reports about the SDI environment

C. Provides a control point for the entire SDI environment

D. Provides multitenancy that enables consumers to share resources in the SDI environment

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What is the function of a monitoring and alerting tool?

A. Focus on examining the usage of resources by customers and service providers and provide notification to optimize and manage workloads

B. Control charges for cloud usage by optimizing cloud resource utilization

C. Automate tasks and IT processes and manage the IT environment

D. Enable people to work closely together on a common project, in real time, by making communication among them easier

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What capability does an orchestration workflow provide?

A. Helps administer the cloud infrastructure, such as adding resources to a resource pool, billing, and reporting

B. Helps to consolidate all the IT resources in the cloud environment

C. Enables the administrator to control the underlying physical infrastructure using a single unified management console

D. Creates an automated set of tasks to update the service catalog by cloud consumers without requiring manual intervention

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What is a characteristic of thin LUNs?

A. When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is automatically reclaimed to the pool.

B. When a thin LUN is created, physical storage is fully allocated for it

C. Once a thin LUN is created it cannot be destroyed until all data is deleted from it

D. When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is reserved until an administrator reclaims it

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which product provides key management and a data-at-rest encryption mechanism for private, public, and hybrid clouds?

A. RSA SecurID

B. Dell EMC CloudArray

C. RSA Archer eGRC

D. Dell EMC CloudLink

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

An organization needs to deploy remote replication between two sites that are 100 km (62 miles) apart. The organization requires a near zero recovery point objective.

Which solution would you recommend?

A. Hypervisor-based asynchronous replication

B. Synchronous replication

C. Snapshot replication

D. Asynchronous replication

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which method optimizes network performance by distributing network traffic across the shared bandwidth of all the ISLs?

A. Link aggregation

B. Network zoning

C. Network segmentation

D. Link failover

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which cloud service model is represented in the exhibit?

A. Software as a Service

B. Infrastructure as a Service

C. Platform as a Service

D. Database as a Service

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which process involves determining the optimal resources required to meet seasonal spikes in resource demand?

A. Configuration management

B. Change management

C. Capacity management

D. Incident management

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and medium availability?

A. MAC III

B. MAC IV

C. MAC I

D. MAC II

Correct Answer: D

The various MAC levels are as follows: MAC I: It states that the systems have high availability and high integrity. MAC II: It states that the systems have high integrity and medium availability. MAC III: It states that the systems have basic integrity and availability.


Question 2:

Which of the following coding practices are helpful in simplifying code? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a single complex function.

B. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursions, and GoTo statements.

C. Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow proper coding standards.

D. Processes should have multiple entry and exit points.

Correct Answer: ABC

The various coding practices that are helpful in simplifying the code are as follows: Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow the proper coding standards. Software should implement the functions that are defined in the software specification. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursion, and GoTo statements. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a complex function. The processes should have only one entry point and minimum exit points. Interdependencies should be minimum so that a process module or component can be disabled when it is not needed, or replaced when it is found insecure or a better alternative is available, without disturbing the software operations. Programmers should use object-oriented techniques to keep the code simple and small. Some of the object-oriented techniques are object inheritance, encapsulation, and polymorphism. Answer: D is incorrect. Processes should have only one entry point and the minimum number of exit points.


Question 3:

Which of the following methods does the Java Servlet Specification v2.4 define in the HttpServletRequest interface that control programmatic security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. getCallerIdentity()

B. isUserInRole()

C. getUserPrincipal()

D. getRemoteUser()

Correct Answer: BCD

The various methods of the HttpServletRequest interface are as follows: getRemoteUser(): It returns the user name that is used for the client authentication. The value of the getRemoteUser() method returns null if no user is authenticated. isUserInRole(): It determines whether the remote user is granted a specified user role. The value of the isUserInRole() method returns true if the remote user is granted the specified user role; otherwise it returns false. getUserPrincipal(): It determines the principle name of the current user and returns the java.security.Principal object. The java.security.Principal object contains the remote user name. The value of the getUserPrincipal() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer: A is incorrect. It is not defined in the HttpServletRequest interface. The getCallerIdentity() method is used to obtain the java.security.Identity of the caller.


Question 4:

You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis?

A. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances.

B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances.

C. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible.

D. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis.

Correct Answer: C

Of all the choices only this answer is accurate. The PMBOK clearly states that the data must be accurate and unbiased to be credible. Answer: D is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer: A is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data.


Question 5:

You work as the senior project manager in SoftTech Inc. You are working on a software project using configuration management. Through configuration management you are decomposing the verification system into identifiable, understandable, manageable, traceable units that are known as Configuration Items (CIs). According to you, which of the following processes is known as the decomposition process of a verification system into Configuration Items?

A. Configuration status accounting

B. Configuration identification

C. Configuration auditing

D. Configuration control

Correct Answer: B

Configuration identification is known as the decomposition process of a verification system into Configuration Items. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed. Answer: D is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item\’s attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Configuration control is a means of ensuring that system changes are approved before being implemented. Only the proposed and approved changes are implemented, and the implementation is complete and accurate. Answer: A is incorrect. The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration auditing is the quality assurance element of configuration management. It is occupied in the process of periodic checks to establish the consistency and completeness of accounting information and to validate that all configuration management policies are being followed. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation.


Question 6:

Which of the following are the common roles with regard to data in an information classification program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Editor

B. Custodian

C. Owner

D. User

E. Security auditor

Correct Answer: BCDE

The following are the common roles with regard to data in an information classification program: Owner Custodian User Security auditor The following are the responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program: Determining what level of classification the information requires. Reviewing the classification assignments at regular time intervals and making changes as the business needs change. Delegating the responsibility of the data protection duties to the custodian. The following are the responsibilities of the custodian with regard to data in an information classification program: Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data Performing data restoration from the backups when necessary Controlling access, adding and removing privileges for individual users The users must comply with the requirements laid out in policies and procedures. They must also exercise due care. A security auditor examines an organization\’s security procedures and mechanisms.


Question 7:

The Phase 1 of DITSCAP CandA is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the CandA level of effort, identify the main CandA roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Negotiation

B. Registration

C. Document mission need

D. Initial Certification Analysis

Correct Answer: ABC

The Phase 1 of DITSCAP CandA is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the CandA level of effort, identify the main CandA roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. The Phase 1 starts with the input of the mission need. This phase comprises three process activities: Document mission need


Question 8:

Which of the following tools is used to attack the Digital Watermarking?

A. Steg-Only Attack

B. Active Attacks

C. 2Mosaic

D. Gifshuffle

Correct Answer: C

2Mosaic is a tool used for watermark breaking. It is an attack against a digital watermarking system. In this type of attack, an image is chopped into small pieces and then placed together. When this image is embedded into a web page, the web browser renders the small pieces into one image. This image looks like a real image with no watermark in it. This attack is successful, as it is impossible to read watermark in very small pieces. Answer: D is incorrect. Gifshuffle is used to hide message or information inside GIF images. It is done by shuffling the colormap. This tool also provides compression and encryption. Answer: B and A are incorrect. Active Attacks and Steg- Only Attacks are used to attack Steganography.


Question 9:

Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?

A. DoD 8910.1

B. DoD 7950.1-M

C. DoDD 8000.1

D. DoD 5200.22-M

E. DoD 5200.1-R

Correct Answer: B

The various DoD directives are as follows:

DoD 5200.1-R: This DoD directive refers to the \’Information Security Program Regulation\’. DoD 5200.22-M: This DoD directive refers the \’National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual\’. DoD 7950.1-M: This DoD directive refers to the

\’Defense Automation Resources Management Manual\’. DoDD 8000.1: This DoD directive refers to the \’Defense Information Management (IM) Program\’. DoD 8910.1: This DoD directive refers to the \’Management and Control of Information

Requirements\’.


Question 10:

Della works as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. She wants to establish configuration management and control procedures that will document proposed or actual changes to the information system. Which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 CandA methodology will define the above task?

A. Initiation

B. Security Certification

C. Continuous Monitoring

D. Security Accreditation

Correct Answer: C

The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 CandA are as follows:

Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls

and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors

the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.


Question 11:

Which of the following authentication methods is used to access public areas of a Web site?

A. Anonymous authentication

B. Biometrics authentication

C. Mutual authentication

D. Multi-factor authentication

Correct Answer: A

Anonymous authentication is an authentication method used for Internet communication. It provides limited access to specific public folders and directory information or public areas of a Web site. It is supported by all clients and is used to access unsecured content in public folders. An administrator must create a user account in IIS to enable the user to connect anonymously. Answer: D is incorrect. Multi-factor authentication involves a combination of multiple methods of authentication. For example, an authentication method that uses smart cards as well as usernames and passwords can be referred to as multi-factor authentication. Answer: C is incorrect. Mutual authentication is a process in which a client process and server are required to prove their identities to each other before performing any application function. The client and server identities can be verified through a trusted third party and use shared secrets as in the case of Kerberos v5. The MS-CHAP v2 and EAP-TLS authentication methods support mutual authentication. Answer: B is incorrect. Biometrics authentication uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user.


Question 12:

Which of the following terms ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data?

A. Non-repudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authentication

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: B

Integrity ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data. Answer: D is incorrect. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access. Administrators can provide confidentiality by encrypting data. Answer: A is incorrect. Non-repudiation is a mechanism to prove that the sender really sent this message. Answer: C is incorrect. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a person or network host.


Question 13:

Which of the following types of obfuscation transformation increases the difficulty for a de- obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version?

A. Preventive transformation

B. Data obfuscation

C. Control obfuscation

D. Layout obfuscation

Correct Answer: A

Preventive transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot


Question 14:

Which of the following is a standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system?

A. FITSAF

B. FIPS

C. TCSEC

D. SSAA

Correct Answer: C

Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) is a United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system. TCSEC was used to evaluate, classify, and select computer systems being considered for the processing, storage, and retrieval of sensitive or classified information. It was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria international standard originally published in 2005. The TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD Rainbow Series publications. Answer: D is incorrect. System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA) is an information security document used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems. The SSAA is part of the Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process, or DITSCAP (superseded by DIACAP). The DoD instruction (issues in December 1997, that describes DITSCAP and provides an outline for the SSAA document is DODI 5200.40. The DITSCAP application manual (DoD8510.1- M), published in July 2000, provides additional details. Answer: A is incorrect. FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. It provides an approach for federal agencies. It determines how federal agencies are meeting existing policy and establish goals. The main advantage of FITSAF is that it addresses the requirements of Office of Management and Budget (OMB). It also addresses the guidelines provided by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIsT). Answer: B is incorrect. The Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) are publicly announced standards developed by the United States federal government for use by all non-military government agencies and by government contractors. Many FIPS standards are modified versions of standards used in the wider community (ANSI, IEEE, ISO, etc.). Some FIPS standards were originally developed by the U.S. government. For instance, standards for encoding data (e.g., country codes), but more significantly some encryption standards, such as the Data Encryption Standard (FIPS 46-3) and the Advanced Encryption Standard (FIPS 197). In 1994, NOAA (Noaa) began broadcasting coded signals called FIPS (Federal Information Processing System) codes along with their standard weather broadcasts from local stations. These codes identify the type of emergency and the specific geographic area (such as a county) affected by the emergency.


Question 15:

Which of the following refers to a process that is used for implementing information security?

A. Classic information security model

B. Five Pillars model

C. Certification and Accreditation (CandA)

D. Information Assurance (IA)

Correct Answer: C

Certification and Accreditation (CandA or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The CandA process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some CandA processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls. Answer: D is incorrect. Information Assurance (IA) is the practice of managing risks related to the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information or data and the systems and processes used for those purposes. While focused dominantly on information in digital form, the full range of IA encompasses not only digital but also analog or physical form. Information assurance as a field has grown from the practice of information security, which in turn grew out of practices and procedures of computersecurity. Answer: A is incorrect. The classic information security model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. The classic information security model, also called the CIA Triad, addresses three attributes of information and information systems, confidentiality, integrity, and availability. This C-I-A model is extremely useful for teaching introductory and basic concepts of information security and assurance; the initials are an easy mnemonic to remember, and when properly understood, can prompt systems designers and users to address the most pressing aspects of assurance. Answer: B is incorrect. The Five Pillars model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. It was promulgated by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) in a variety of publications, beginning with the National Information Assurance Glossary, Committee on National Security Systems Instruction CNSSI-4009. Here is the definition from that publication: “Measures that protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and non-repudiation. These measures include providing for restoration of information systems by incorporating protection, detection, and reaction capabilities.” The Five Pillars model is sometimes criticized because authentication and non-repudiation are not attributes of information or systems; rather, they are procedures or methods useful to assure the integrity and authenticity of information, and to protect the confidentiality of the same.


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Question 1:

Huawei X6000 high-density server has 3 types server node.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which server does Huawei FusionCube 6000 use?

A. X6800

B. E9000

C. RH8100V3

D. RH5885

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Huawei 8100 V5 is an 8U 8-socket rack server.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

What is NVMe SSD?

A. Memory

B. PCIeSSD

C. SATA

D. HDD

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

What are the two main competitors of Huawei FusionCube overseas? (Multiple Choice)

A. Nutanix

B. Oracle Exadata

C. HP

D. DELL

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

Which kinds of RAID do Huawei V5 rack servers support? (Multiple Choice) A. RAID0

B. RAID1

C. RAID5

D. RAID6

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 7:

What is the maximum number of full-height full-length dual-slot GPU cards supported by Huawei 2288H V5?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What is the maximum number of NVMe SSD disks supported by Huawei 2488 V5?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 24

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which firmware can be upgraded by using the eSight Server? (Multiple Choice)

A. BMC

B. BIOS

C. NICFW

D. NIC driver

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 10:

Which is the full-width and 4-socket server node of Huawei E9000 blade server?

A. CH140 V3

B. CH220 V3

C. CH222 V3

D. CH242 V3

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Huawei RH8100 V3 cascades two 4-socket servers into one 8-socket server.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What is the most suitable workloads of 5288 V3 servers?

A. Computing

B. Storage

C. Network

D. In-memory DB

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which server does Huawei FusionCube 6000C use?

A. X6800

B. E9000

C. X6000

D. RH2288H

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What kinds of hard disk specifications does RH8100 V3 support (Multiple Choice)

A. 8 x 2.5-inch hard disks

B. 12 x 2.5-inch hard disks

C. 24 x 2.5-inch hard disks

D. 12 x 3.5-inch hard disks

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 15:

Which of these are hot-swappable on Huawei V5 rack servers? (Multiple Choice)

A. PSU

B. M.2SSD

C. PCIecard

D. Hard drive

Correct Answer: ABCD


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Question 1:

NetApp corporate pitch states that NetAPP brings which benefit to the complex world of enterprise data management?

A. eliminates risk in an enterprise environment

B. has lowest cost per TB

C. provides unmatched simplicity

D. completely removes complexity

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

In addition to selling the hardware and software for a NetApp solution, which NetApp Global Service should you include?

A. SupportEdge

B. ConsultingEdge

C. CustomerEdge

D. PartnerEdge

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Thin provisioning, based on NetApp FlexVol technology, is a storage allocation-on-demand functionality. Which three benefits does it provide to customers? (Choose three.)

A. improved application performance

B. reduced capital expenses for software

C. improved storage utilization

D. reduced capital expenses for storage

E. simplified storage capacity planning

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 4:

A common customer response to a NetApp SQL Server solution is “I need a Microsoft- certified solution.” What is the most appropriate response to this statement?

A. NetApp has a strong presence on the Windows Hardware Compatibility site and is a Microsoft Gold Partner.

B. NetApp has several thousand customers running databases on NetApp storage systems.

C. NetApp supports multiple databases and Microsoft SQL server is one of those.

D. NetApp has experience in large-scale enterprise deployments, operating in more than 5,000 data centers worldwide.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which three benefits is a customer likely to derive when using the NetApp SnapManager for Exchange solution in their messaging environment? (Choose three.)

A. virus-free email and attachments

B. recovery in minutes

C. classified and categorized email

D. simplified management with automated backups

E. quicker and easier storage provisioning

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 6:

NetApp SnapManager software enables efficient backups to be completed in _____.

A. seconds

B. minutes

C. hours

D. days

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

What are three reasons why a customer should consider using NetApp for their Microsoft Exchange environment? (Choose three.)

A. NetApp solutions are integrated with Microsoft technologies.

B. Microsoft installation and service is included with NetApp solutions.

C. NetApp solutions are Microsoft-supported platforms.

D. Use of NetApp solutions results in special pricing on Microsoft products.

E. NetApp is a Microsoft Gold Certified Partner.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 8:

What are two benefits of using NetApp Protection Manager? (Choose two.)

A. centralized management of multiple NetApp devices

B. simplified management for D2D backup and restore

C. simplified management for data replication

D. centralized chargeback reporting

Correct Answer: BC


Question 9:

What can a customer use to quickly manage the full recovery process following a database corruption?

A. RAID-DP

B. SnapMirror

C. SnapManager

D. SnapRestore

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What are two ways in which NetApp solutions can help businesses? (Choose two.)

A. by improving business processes

B. by adopting new technology

C. by gaining a competitive advantage

D. by lowering the hardware requirements

Correct Answer: AC


Question 11:

Which three customer challenges does a NetApp storage solution for a NAS environment address? (Choose three.)

A. SAN fabric costs

B. disruptive storage provisioning

C. server platform deployment

D. storage utilization

E. data sharing between UNIX and Windows

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 12:

Which three customer situations indicate an opportunity exists for consolidation or file services on NetApp storage technology in a Windows environment? (Choose three.)

A. The customer\’s existing Windows environment is complex and contains multiple servers.

B. The customer needs data privacy and intellectual property protection.

C. The customer requires simplification of backup and recovery procedures.

D. The customer requires identification, understanding, and classification of data.

E. The customer needs to reduce administrative and overhead costs.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 13:

PartnerCenter provides which three NetApp University learning tools to help partners learn about NetApp and grow their businesses? (Choose three.)

A. Channel Training Web Streams (short videos)

B. Sales EBL Library (SELL)

C. PartnerGear Program

D. technical web events and field training

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 14:

NetApp is in the Leadership quadrant of the Gartner Magic Quadrant for Mid-Range Enterprise Disk Arrays rating of storage vendors. This is their highest rating and pertains to _____.

A. strategic business partnerships

B. financial stability

C. completeness of vision and ability to execute

D. world-class service and support

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which three can serve as data migration tools? (Choose three.)

A. SnapMirror

B. MultiStore

C. SnapRestore

D. Virtual File Manager

E. RelicatorX

Correct Answer: ADE


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Question 1:

Which step can be taken to ensure that only FortiAP devices receive IP addresses from a DHCP server on FortiGate?

A. Change the interface addressing mode to FortiAP devices.

B. Create a reservation list in the DHCP server settings.

C. Configure a VCI string value of FortiAP in the DHCP server settings.

D. Use DHCP option 138 to assign IPs to FortiAP devices.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

In the WTP profile configuration shown in the exhibit, the AP profile is assigned to two FAP-320 APs that are installed in an open plan office.

1.

The first AP has 32 clients associated to the 5GHz radios and 22 clients associated to the 2.4GHz

radio.

2.

The second AP has 12 clients associated to the 5GHz radios and 20 clients associated to the 2.4GHz radio.

A dual band-capable client enters the office near the first AP and the first AP measures the new client at −33 dBm signal strength. The second AP measures the new client at −43 dBm signal strength.

In the new client attempts to connect to the corporate wireless network, to which AP radio will the client be associated?

A. The second AP 5GHz interface.

B. The first AP 2.4GHz interface.

C. The first AP 5GHz interface.

D. The second AP 2.4GHz interface.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which two EAP methods can use MSCHAPV2 for client authentication? (Choose two.)

A. PEAP

B. EAP-TTLS

C. EAP-TLS

D. EAP-GTC

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fauth/3-3/Content/FortiAuthenticator 3_3 Admin% 20Guide/500/501_EAP.htm


Question 4:

Which two statements about the use of digital certificates are true? (Choose two.)

A. An intermediate CA can sign server certificates.

B. An intermediate CA can sign another intermediate CA certificate.

C. The end entity\’s certificate can only be created by an intermediate CA.

D. An intermediate CA can validate the end entity certificate signed by another intermediate CA.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

802.1X port authentication is enabled on only those ports that the FortiSwitch security policy is assigned to.

Which configurable items are available when you configure the security policy on FortiSwitch? (Choose two.)

A. FSSO groups

B. Security mode

C. User groups

D. Default guest group

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

A wireless network in a school provides guest access using a captive portal to allow unregistered users to self-register and access the network. The administrator is requested to update the existing configuration to provide captive portal authentication through a secure connection (HTTPS) to protect and encrypt guest user credentials after they receive the login information when registered for the first time.

Which two changes must the administrator make to enforce HTTPS authentication? (Choose two.)

A. Provide instructions to users to use HTTPS to access the network.

B. Create a new SSID with the HTTPS captive portal URL.

C. Enable Redirect HTTP Challenge to a Secure Channel (HTTPS) in the user authentication settings

D. Update the captive portal URL to use HTTPS on FortiGate and FortiAuthenticator

Correct Answer: BD


Question 7:

An administrator is deploying APs that are connecting over an IPsec network. All APs have been configured to connect to FortiGate manually. FortiGate can discover the APs and authorize them. However, FortiGate is unable to establish CAPWAP tunnels to manage the APs.

Which configuration setting can the administrator perform to resolve the problem?

A. Decrease the CAPWAP tunnel MTU size for APs to prevent fragmentation.

B. Enable CAPWAP administrative access on the IPsec interface.

C. Upgrade the FortiAP firmware image to ensure compatibility with the FortiOS version.

D. Assign a custom AP profile for the remote APs with the set mpls-connectionoption enabled.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

A host machine connected to port2 on FortiSwitch cannot connect to the network. All ports on FortiSwitch are assigned a security policy to enforce 802.1X port authentication. While troubleshooting the issue, the administrator runs the debug command and obtains the output shown in the exhibit.

Which two scenarios are the likely cause of this issue? (Choose two.)

A. The host machine is not configured for 802.1X port authentication.

B. The host machine does not support 802. 1X authentication.

C. The host machine is quarantined due to a security incident.

D. The host machine is configured with wrong VLAN ID.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD46428


Question 9:

What action does FortiSwitch take when it receives a loop guard data packet (LGDP) that was sent by itself?

A. The receiving port is shut down.

B. The sending port is shut down

C. The receiving port is moved to the STP blocking state.

D. The sending port is moved to the STP blocking state

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.scribd.com/document/468940309/Secure-Access-6-0-Study-Guide-Online-pdf


Question 10:

Default VLANs are created on FortiGate when the FortiLink interface is created. By default, which VLAN is set as Allowed VLANs on all FortiSwitch ports?

A. Sniffer VLAN

B. Camera VLAN

C. Quarantine VLAN

D. Voice VLAN

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which statement correctly describes the quest portal behavior on FortiAuthenticator?

A. Sponsored accounts cannot authenticate using guest portals.

B. FortiAuthenticator uses POST parameters and a RADIUS client configuration to map the request to a guest portal for authentication.

C. All guest accounts must be activated using SMS or email activation codes.

D. All self-registered and sponsored accounts are listed on the local Users GUI page on FortiAuthenticator.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Examine the sections of the configuration shown in the following output:

What action will the FortiGate take when using OCSP certificate validation?

A. FortiGate will reject the certificate if the OCSP server replies that the certificate is unknown.

B. FortiGate will use the OCSP server 10.0.1.150 even when the OCSP URL field in the user certificate

contains a different OCSP server IP address.

C. FortiGate will use the OCSP server 10.0.1.150 even when there is a different OCSP IP address in the ocsp-override-serveroption under config user peer.

D. FortiGate will invalidate the certificate if the OSCP server is unavailable.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibits.

Examine the firewall policy configuration and SSID settings.

An administrator has configured a guest wireless network on FortiGate using the external captive portal. The administrator has verified that the external captive portal URL is correct. However, wireless users are not able to see the captive portal login page.

Given the configuration shown in the exhibit and the SSID settings, which configuration change should the administrator make to fix the problem?

A. Enable the captive-portal-exemptoption in the firewall policy with the ID 11.

B. Apply a guest.portal user group in the firewall policy with the ID 11.

C. Disable the user group from the SSID configuration.

D. Include the wireless client subnet range in the Exempt Source section.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

Examine the configuration of the FortiSwitch security policy profile.

If the security profile shown in the exhibit is assigned on the FortiSwitch port for 802.1X.port authentication, which statement is correct?

A. Host machines that do support 802.1X authentication, but have failed authentication, will be assigned the guest VLAN.

B. All unauthenticated users will be assigned the auth-fail VLAN.

C. Authenticated users that are part of the wired-users group will be assigned the guest VLAN.

D. Host machines that do not support 802.1X authentication will be assigned the guest VLAN.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

Examine the network topology shown in the exhibit.

Which port should have root guard enabled?

A. FortiSwitch A, port2

B. FortiSwitch A, port1

C. FortiSwitch B, port1

D. FortiSwitch B, port2

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiswitch/6.4.2/administration-guide/364614/spanningtree-protocol


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Question 1:

Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT:

A. A third-party identity provider.

B. The customer organization.

C. The SaaS provider.

D. A user.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold their contract?

A. Consult the company\’s exit plan.

B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.

C. Re-host all critical applications on the company\’s internal servers.

D. Evaluate the company\’s strategic options for an alternative provider

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following is an important new skill for an IT organization to develop in the context of cloud computing?

A. Provisioning services

B. Incident management

C. Technology upgrade monitoring

D. Security and risk management

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?

A. Assemble functional requirements for application development

B. Configure application clusters with Web services

C. Enable and disable load balancers

D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Cloud computing _____________capital cost to variable cost.

A. increases

B. reduces

C. shifts

D. equates

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that information by any party.

A. companies, others

B. companies, themselves

C. individuals, others

D. individuals, themselves

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which of the following IT processes is likely to become more important due to the adoption of cloud computing?

A. Capacity management

B. Troubleshooting management

C. Project management

D. Request fulfillment management

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

How can an organization successfully implement a SaaS strategy?

A. Manage the risks associated with bringing in external providers

B. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers

C. Open up internal databases with Web service access for easier access

D. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines to increase security

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?

A. Pay as you go agreements

B. Short-term financial commitment

C. Tailor-made applications based on client needs

D. Vendor lock-in potential

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?

A. It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared

B. It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other

C. It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced

D. It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in a given time?

A. Network bandwidth

B. Network QoS

C. Network latency

D. Network speed

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

How can the internal IT department successfully react to cloud computing?

A. By becoming an external cloud provider

B. By becoming an internal cloud provider

C. By outsourcing all IT services

D. By solely focusing on security issues

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which of the following applications is MOST suitable for a cloud computing pilot?

A. Applications that are currently expensive to maintain because of interconnections

B. Applications that are easy to migrate and have some business value

C. Applications with high risk and little business value

D. Legacy applications that are coupled to specific hardware and systems software

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Why do management tools introduce a risk?

A. The management tools present a vendor lock-in

B. The management tools are indispensible above a specific scale of operation

C. The migration may not be successful

D. Too many software licenses are needed

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

How do demand management processes change with the introduction of SaaS?

A. New vendors have to be accommodated

B. Users can procure SaaS solutions themselves

C. The number of virtual machines can fluctuate with demand

D. Maintenance will become easier

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

By using the asynchronous MySQL Replication architecture, data can be replicated to slaves. Identify three use cases of MySQL Replication.

A. MySQL Replication Connector/J (ReplicationDriver) is provided to allow read capability on slave and write capability on master.

B. MySQL Enterprise Backup will back up from Slave automatically.

C. It provides multi-master access where the application can write and read data across the database servers.

D. It allows backup to be done on the slave without impacting the master.

E. You can create a slave server for reporting applications, which get only read access to the slave servers. It off-loads the master server. Additional servers allow different database server configuration.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 2:

The MySQL pluggable authentication plug-in for Windows is enabled and configured. The following command is executed on a MySQL Server: CREATE USER `SQL_admin\’@\’%\’ IDENTIFIED WITH authentication_windows AS `joe, henry, “Power Users”\’;

Which two statements are valid?

A. When any of the named users is using a Linux Client, the user can access the MySQL Server from a MYSQL Client with the password configured in MySQL.

B. User Joe may log in to a Windows Client and then access the MySQL Server from a MySQL Client without being asked about a password.

C. When any of the named users is using a Linux Client, the user can access the MySQL Server from s MySQL Client with the password configured in the Windows Active Directory.

D. When any of the named users is using a Java application based on his or her Windows Client, no authentication is necessary to log in to MySQL.

E. Logins are granted only if the user\’s client application and the corresponding MySQL instance are on the same IP address.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

You get a Maintenance notification about your Oracle MySQL Cloud Service. What are the implications?

A. There are no maintenance operations planned. You need to do them manually.

B. Depending on the planned outage, you may not be affected by it. You need to read the maintenance details in the support notice.

C. You need to agree to the maintenance windows. If not, you are not affected by the outage.

D. You can expect an outage of your MySQL Cloud Service during the planned time.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A keyfile has been generated as follows: # openssl rand 32 -hex >keyfile # cat keyfile 6a1d325e6ef0577f3400b7cd624ae574f5186d0da2eeb946895de418297ed75b

You are required to do a backup on the MySQL database using MySQL Enterprise Backup with encryption.

Which option can perform the backup with the keyfile provided in order to encrypt the backup files?

A. # mysqlbackup – – backup-image=/backups/image.enc – – encrypt – -key-file= keyfile – -backup-dir=/var/tmp/backup backup-to-image

B. # mysqlbackup- – encrypt – -key-file=keyfile – -backup-dir=/var/tmp/backup backup

C. # mysqlbackup – – backup-image=/backups/image.enc – – encrypt- – encrypt-key=keyfile – – backup-dir=/var/tmp/backup backup-to-image

D. # mysqlbackup – – backup-image=/backups/image.enc – – encrypt – -key=keyfile – -backup-dir=/var/tmp/backup backup-to-image

E. # mysqlbackup- – encrypt – -key-file=keyfile – -backup-dir=/var/tmp/backup ?timestamp backup

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/mysql-enterprise-backup/4.1/en/meb-encryption.html


Question 5:

You use MySQL Enterprise Monitor for a group of MySQL servers. In recent weeks, the MySQL Enterprise Monitor has slowed down significantly.

Which two preventative actions should you take if your number of monitored MySQL instances has changed?

A. Increase the disk space with at least 10% of the database size.

B. Increase the necessary operating system swap space (Linux): mkswap /dev/sdx; swapon/dev/sdx, /etc/fstab.

C. Increase the amount of RAM available to the JVM installed with Tomcat. The JVM memory settings are defined by the JAVA_OPTS line of the setenv file, which sets the environment variables for Tomcat (–JvmMs/-Xms and -JvmMx/-Xmx).

D. Tune the InnoDB Buffer Pool of the MySQL Enterprise Monitor Repository database. This can have a significant impact on performance (innodb_buffer_pool_size).

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.6/en/innodb-buffer-pool.html


Question 6:

Your newly created MySQL Cloud Service is not available from your application. Select the two correct options that apply.

A. You forgot to create the correct SSL/TLC certificate during the setup process.

B. The `opc\’ user can be used to access MySQL only with the created SSH-Key.

C. Only `root\’ is allowed to access from non-localhost.

D. The MySQL instance is still in the “Creation” process.

E. You forgot to enable port 3306.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 7:

Which command in MySQL Utility can perform and start replication among a slave and multiple masters?

A. mysqlrplcheck

B. mysqlrplms

C. mysqlrpladmin

D. mysqlreplicatems

E. mysqlreplicate

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/mysql-utilities/1.5/en/mysqlrplms.html


Question 8:

Which three installation options are available for installing the MySQL Enterprise Monitor/Agent on Linux?

A. A GUI for installing MySQL Enterprise Monitor, Agent, and a MySQL Repository database

B. A CLI-based wizard MySQL Enterprise Monitor, Agent, and a MySQL Repository database

C. A script (with an option file) for installing MySQL Enterprise Monitor, Agent, and a MySQL Repository database

D. A MySQL Enterprise Monitor to remotely deploy the MySQL Monitor Agent

E. A browser-based wizard to remotely deploy the MySQL Monitor Agent

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 9:

Name three ways in which customers can receive notifications such as outages, configuration changes, database emergencies, and other information on their Database as a Service instances.

A. Email

B. SMS

C. Notification tab on the dashboard

D. Browser pop-ups

E. Direct support call from an Oracle representative

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 10:

You are required to set up a backup user ([email protected]) on the MySQL Database. The user should have the backup and restore privileges and additional privileges required for using transportable tablespaces (TTS). To back up and restore InnoDB tables.

Which syntax accomplishes this?

A. CREATE USER `mysqlbackup\’@localhost\’IDENTIFIED BY `new-password\’;

B. CREATE USER `mysqlbackup\’@localhost\’ IDENTIFIED BY `new-password\’; GRANT RELOAD ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_progress TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, SELECT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_history TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT REPLICATION CLIENT ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT SUPER ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’ localhost; GRANT PROCESS ON *.* `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’;

C. CREATE USER `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’ IDENTIFIED BY `new-password\’; GRANT RELOAD ON *.* TO `\’mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_progress TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, SELECT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_history TO `mysqlbackup\’@localhost\’;

D. CREATE USER `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’ IDENTIFIED BY `new-password\’; GRANT RELOAD ON *.* to `mysqlbackup\’@localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, DROP, UPDATE ON, mysql.backup_progress TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, SELECT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_history TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT REPLICATION CLIENT ON *.* to `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT SUPER ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT PROCESS ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT LOCK TABLES, SELECT, CREATE, ALTER ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_sbt_history TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’;

E. CREATE USER `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’ IDENTIFIED BY `new-password\’; GRANT RELOAD ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_progress TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT CREATE, INSERT, SELECT, DROP, UPDATE ON mysql.backup_history TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’; GRANT REPLICATION CLIENT ON *.* TO `mysqlbackup\’@\’localhost\’;

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You are using the InnoDB engine and the innodb_file_per_table option is set. You delete a significant number of a large table named INVENTORY.

What command will reorganize the physical storage of table data and associated index data for the INVENTORY table, in order to reduce storage space and improve I/O efficiency?

A. ANALYZE TABLE INVENTORY;

B. mysqlcheck INVENTORY

C. mysqldump INVENTORY

D. OPTIMIZE TABLE INVENTORY;

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.7/en/optimize-table.html


Question 12:

You need to load the MySQL Enterprise Audit plug-in at database startup and prevent the audit plug-in from being removed at run time.

Which two options should you include in the MySQL configuration file?

A. audit_log_permanent=ON

B. audit-log=FORCE_PLUS_PERMANENT

C. plugin-load=audit_log.so

D. plugin-audit=ON, ALWAYS

E. LOAD PLUGIN=AUDIT_LOG

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.7/en/audit-log-installation.html


Question 13:

Assume that MySQL Enterprise Monitor is configured to monitor MySQL 5.6 or a later instance. Which three features are available?

A. Deploying MySQL Agent on supported target operating system

B. Tracing import and export with mysqldump

C. Monitoring the availability of the MySQL instance

D. Creating E-Mail Alerts and SNMP Traps for MySQL Warnings

E. Starting and Stopping the MySQL Instance

F. Analyzing executed MySQL queries

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 14:

You have three machines with MySQL Databases running on Linux platform.

Which backup procedures would allow online and remote backup of the MySQL Database on three machines to a connected Storage NFS?

A. 1. Mount the Remote Storage NFS volume to each of the three machines with proper privilege for the backup OS user to have all access.

2.

Install MySQL Enterprise Backup on machine which is used to start the backup.

3.

Start mysqlbackup on only one machine with the installation to back up the databases for the three machines to the mounted volume using – -backup-dir and by giving –hosts=machine1:port1, machine2:port2, machine3:port3.

4.

Validate the backups using the mysqlbackup program to ensure that the backups created are valid.

B. 1. Mount the Remote Storage NFS volume to each of the three machines with proper privilege for the backup OS user to have all access.

2.

Install MySQL Enterprise Backup on all three machines.

3.

Start mysqlbackup on all machines to back up the database to the mounted volume using – -backup-dir.

4.

Validate the backup using the mysqlbackup program to ensure that the backup created is valid.

C. 1. Mount the Remote Storage NFS volume to each of the three machines with proper privilege for the backup OS user to have all access.

2.

Install MySQL Enterprise Backup on the machine that is used to start the backup.

3.

Start mysqlbackup on only one machine with the installation to back up the databases for the three machines to the mounted volume using – – backup-dir and by specifying — config-files=my1.cnf, my2.cnf, my3.cnf.my1.cnf, my2cnf, and my3.cnf are the MySQL Database Configuration files on the three machines.

4.

Validate the backup by using the mysqlbackup program to ensure that the backup created is valid.

D. 1. Mount the Remote Storage NFS volume to each of the three machines with proper privilege for the backup OS user to have all access.

2.

Install MySQL Workbench on a separate machine, which is used to connect to the three machines to back up and restore.

3.

Startup MySQL backup from MySQL Workbench to back up the three databases.

4.

Validate the backup by using MySQL Workbench to ensure that the backup created is valid.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

How do you restrict a user named joe from being able to connect from any IP address to a MySQL database?

A. Insert Joe\’s name into the mysql.user_restriction table, and issue the FLUSH PRIVILEGES command.

B. You cannot deny access to a user based on his or her username.

C. CREATE USER `joe\’@%\’ DENY ALL PRIVILEGES

D. UPDATE mysql.user SET Password=PASSWORD (`Invalid\’) WHERE User= `joe\’;

E. CREATE USER `joe\’@\’0.0.0.0\’SET Password=PASSWORD (`%!%\’)

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which statement adds a column with the largest integer data type?

A. ALTER TABLE SCIENTIFIC ADD scientific_value BIGINT;

B. ALTER TABLE SCIENTIFIC ADD scientific_value INTEGER;

C. ALTER TABLE SCIENTIFIC ADD scientific_value DECIMAL(15,10);

D. ALTER TABLE SCIENTIFIC ADD scientific_value DECIMAL(10,10);

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Assume that MySQL Enterprise Monitor is configured to monitor MySQL 8.0.10 or a later instance. Which three features are available?

A. creating e-mail alerts and SNMP traps for MySQL warnings

B. starting and stopping the MySQL instance

C. analyzing executed MySQL queries

D. deploying MySQL agent on supported target operating system

E. monitoring the availability of the MySQL Instance

F. tracing import and export with mysqldump

Correct Answer: ADF


Question 3:

MySQL Enterprise Masking and De-identification can hide or obfuscate sensitive data, by controlling how the data appears. Which three are MySQL Enterprise Masking and De-identification functions?

A. misspelling

B. strict or relaxed masking

C. random data substitution

D. whitelisting and substitution

E. dictionary substitution

Correct Answer: BCE

Robust Data Masking Functions MySQL Enterprise Masking and De-identification can hide or obfuscate sensitive data, by controlling how the data appears. It features robust masking algorithms including selective masking, blurring, random data substitution and other special techniques for credit card numbers, account numbers and other personally identifiable information, enabling IT departments to maintain structural rules to de-identify values. MySQL Enterprise Masking and De-identification functions include:

1.

Selective Masking – Obscures a particular portion of numbers or strings such as phone numbers, and payment card numbers.

2.

Strict or Relaxed Masking – Implement strict or relaxed masking to obfuscate data.

3.

Random Data Substitution – Replace real values with random values while maintaining format consistency.

4.

Blurring – Add a random variance to existing values such as randomized numeric ranges for salaries.

5.

Dictionary Substitution – Randomly replace values from task specific dictionaries. ?Blacklisting and Substitution – Replace specifically blacklisted data, but leave non-blacklisted in place.

https://www.mysql.com/products/enterprise/masking.html#:~:text=Robust Data Masking%2 0Functions,controlling how the data appears.andtext=Random Data Substitution – Replace real,values% 20while maintaining format consistency.


Question 4:

You have been using mysqldump for logical backups of your MySQL databases. Your MySQL database size has been growing. Which two options can reduce the backup size and speed up the backup time?

A. Use mysqldump with – -incremental together with the – -compress option to back up incrementally based on previous full backup and compress the incremental backup files.

B. Use mysqldump with the – -changesonly option.

C. Use MySQL Enterprise Backup with the – -size=compress to compress the backup file.

D. Use MySQL Enterprise Backup with the – – incremental policy to back up incrementally based on previous full backup.

E. Use MySQL Enterprise Backup with the – -compress option to compress the backup files and use – – compress-level to select the level of compression.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 5:

Which statement would you use to remove the population column from the city table?

A. ALTER TABLE city DROP population;

B. DELETE population FROM city;

C. ALTER TABLE city DELETE population;

D. ALTER TABLE city LESS population;

E. DROP population FROM city;

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You just installed MySQL by Using a Package Manager on Linux. Where are the default InnoDB redo log files stored?

A. /usr/mysql

B. /var/lib/mysql

C. /var/lib/mysql/innodb

D. /usr/bin/logs

E. /usr/redo

F. /etc/my.cnf

Correct Answer: E

https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/8.0/en/innodb-redo-log.html


Question 7:

You want to create an encrypted table. So, you enter this command:

CREATE TABLE \’test_encryption2% (

\’id\’ int(10) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT,

\’server_name\’ varchar(15) NOT NULL,

PRIMARY KEY (\’id\’) ) ENGINE=MYISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=l DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 ENCRYPTION = \’Y1;

You receive the following error:

ERROR 1031 (HY000): Table storage engine for `test_encryption2\’ doesn\’t have this option Which statement correctly explains the reason for this error?

A. You cannot use the AUTO_INCREMENT option to create an encrypted table. This is what is causing the error.

B. The term “server_name” is a reserved MySQL term. You cannot use it for the new table. This is what is causing the error.

C. The encryption feature only works with InnoDB tables. You are creating a MylSAM table, and it is causing the error.

D. The test_encryption2 already exist. You are not using the correct option to recreate it and it is causing the error.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which three components can MySQL InnoDB Cluster use to Achieve database high availability?

A. MySQL Servers with Group Replication to replicate data to all members of the cluster.

B. MySQL Online Hot Backup to keep data consistent and always ready to be used.

C. MySQL Shell to create and administer InnoDB Clusters using the built-in AdminAPI.

D. MySQL X Plugin to enable MySQL to use the X Protocol to speed up and monitor data replication.

E. MySQL Router to ensure client requests are load balanced and routed to the correct servers.

Correct Answer: ACE

Deploy MySQL InnoDB Clusters for high availability


Question 9:

What is true about MySQL Enterprise Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)?

A. Data is encrypted automatically, in real time, after it is written to storage.

B. Enables data-at-rest encryption by encrypting the physical files of the database.

C. Encryption key is stored in a centralized key memory location

D. Tablespace keys are managed manually behind the scenes.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Your newly-created Oracle Cloud Infrastructure instance is not available for login in. Which is a valid reason for this issue?

A. You forgot to enable port 3306.

B. The opc user can be used to access MySQL only with the created SSH-Key.

C. Only root is allowed to access from non-localhost.

D. You forgot to create the correct SSL/TLC certificate during the setup process.

E. The OCI instance is still in the “creation” process.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You need to change the password level for a test system. Which two allow to change this level before you create new test user/passwords?

A. Add validate_password=\’new level\’ in the [security] section of the MySQL configuration file.

B. SET GLOBAL validate_password_policy=\’new level\’;

C. SET GLOBAL force_password_complex_policy=0;

D. Add validate_password_policy=\’new level\’ in the [mysqld] section of the MySQL configuration file.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

Which best describes database horizontal scale-out architecture deployment in MySQL in a read- heavy environment?

A. Allocating more CPU to the database instance to improve throughput performance.

B. Deploy MySQL read-only slaves utilizing replication so that the slaves can be used for reads.

C. Increasing the memory capacity so that there is a larger pooling buffer to increase the database read performance.

D. Adding more MySQL servers and sharing the same dacadir on a shared storage component like NFS.

E. Increasing the storage capacity so that the database can store more data to scale.

Correct Answer: E


Question 13:

You need to load the MySQL Enterprise Audit plug-in at database startup and prevent the audit plug- in from being removed at run time. Which two options should you include in the MySQL configuration file?

A. audit_log_permanent=ON

B. audit-log=FORCE_PLUS_PERMANENT

C. plugin-load=audit_log.so

D. plugin-audit=ON, ALWAYS

E. LOAD PLUGIN=AUDIT_LOG

Correct Answer: AB


Question 14:

You execute this statement: SELECT NULL=NULL; What is the result?

A. FALSE

B. NULL

C. 0

D. TRUE

E. 1

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

You establish MySQL Enterprise Server on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure connection via Secure Shell (SSH)

For accessing a new MySQL Enterprise Edition on an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Instance you ” Add SSH key ” information during the OCI instance setup. You want to use Putty from your Windows Client to install MySQL.

What are the correct steps to accomplish this?

A. Open Port 22 on your OCI Instance and convert the private key to ppk format. This new private key can be used for authentication.

B. Use the provided private key for authentication.

C. Convert the private key to ppk format first and use the new private key for authentication.

D. Open Port 22 on your OCI Instance and configure Putty with the ssh private key.

Correct Answer: A