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Question 1:

You want to display the value of a shell variable called service after assigning a value as shown:

SERVICE =ACCT S

Which two settings will display the name of the variable and its value?

A. set | grep service

B. echo $SERVICE

C. env | grep SERVICE

D. env $SERVICE

E. set $SERVICE

Correct Answer: BC

C: env – set the environment for command invocation

If no utility operand is specified, the resulting environment shall be written to the standard output, with one name= value pair per line.


Question 2:

Examine these statements and their output taken right after successful install of Oracle Linux:

[[email protected] /] rpm q firstboot Firstboot -1.110.10-1.0.2.e16.x86_64 [root @FAROUT /] # chkconfig – – list firstboot

Firstboot 0:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6;off

[[email protected] /] # /etc/sysconfig/firstboot RUN_FIRSTBOOT=NO What is the conclusion?

A. The option to run firstboot was deselected during Oracle Linux installation.

B. The system was installed with desktop graphical packages and rebooted and the firstboot utility ran successful.

C. Firstboot never ran in any run level because the service is turned off for all run levels.

D. The system was installed without selecting desktop graphical packages, thereby disabling firstboot from running.

Correct Answer: A

Firstboot is set to off for all levels.

Example:

The rm command below remove or delate the firstboot file in order to make sure the firstboot program running when we restart or reboot the Fedora machine.

[[email protected] ~]# rm /etc/sysconfig/firstboot

rm: remove regular file `/etc/sysconfig/firstboot\’? y [[email protected] ~]#

Then check and make sure that firstboot program or firstboot service is run when your Fedora startup/boot up.

Check firstboot services

[[email protected] ~]# chkconfig –list firstboot

firstboot 0:off 1:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6:off

[[email protected] ~]#


Question 3:

Which three settings can be controlled by using the chage breemar command as the root user, to modify the parameters in the /etc/shadow file?

A. The expiration date of the breemar account

B. The number of days after the breemar account is locked, that it becomes expired

C. The maximum number of days that must elapse between password changes by the user breemar before the password becomes invalid

D. The number of days after the breemar account is locked, that it becomes unlocked

E. The minimum number of days that must elapse between password changes by the user breemar

F. The maximum number of failed login attempts on the breemar account before the account is locked

Correct Answer: ACE

A: chage -E, –expiredate EXPIRE_DATE

Set the date or number of days since January 1, 1970 on which the user\’s account will no longer be accessible.

CE: You need to use chage command to setup password aging. The chage command changes the number of days between password changes and the date of the last password change. This information is used by the system to determine when a user must change his/her password.


Question 4:

Which four statements are true about software on the Oracle Public YUM server?

A. It contains Oracle Linux installation ISO images.

B. It contains Oracle Linux binary RPM packages.

C. It contains Oracle Linux errata packages.

D. It contains Oracle Linux source RPM packages.

E. It contains beta Oracle Linux software packages.

F. It does not contain Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel packages.

Correct Answer: BCDF

The Oracle public yum server offers a free and convenient way to install the latest Oracle Linux packages as well as packages from the Oracle VM installation media via a yum client. Oracle provides all errata and updates for Oracle Linux via the Public Yum service, which includes updates to the base distribution, but does not include Oracle-specific software.

F: By default, all new installations of Oracle Linux 6 Update 5 are automatically configured to use the public yum update service. If you subsequently register the system with ULN, the public yum service is automatically disabled.


Question 5:

This MDADM output:

Which two aspects can be determined from this output?

A. A device failed and has been removed from this RAID set.

B. It is no longer possible to write to this RAID set.

C. Read and write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.

D. This RAID set was built without a spare device.

E. Only Write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 6:

Examine the command on its output: [[email protected] ~] # modprobe 璿 nfs Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/nfs_common/nfs_acl.ko insmod /lob/ modules/2.6.39

100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/net/sunrpc/auth_gss/auth_rpcgss.ko Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/fscache/fscache/ko Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/locked.ko Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/nfs/nfs.ko Which two statements are true about the modprobe command?

A. It will load the nfs module if all the modules upon which it depends have been loaded.

B. It displays the dependency resolution for the nfs module and loads all the modules upon which nfs depends before loading the nfs module.

C. It verifies that the nfs module and all other modules that depend on the nfs module are installed.

D. It displays the dependency resolution that would occur if the nfs module were to be loaded using modprobe nfs.

E. It only loads the nfs module if all the modules upon which it depends have not been loaded yet.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://redhat.activeventure.com/8/customizationguide/ch-kernel-modules.html (kernel module utilities)


Question 7:

What is the main advantage of the Oracle Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel compared with the Red Hat compatible kernel?

A. It is more secure and, therefore, more difficult to hack.

B. It has a lower Mean Time Between Failures.

C. It provides higher availability for applications by reducing Mean Time to Recovery.

D. It scales better for more CPUS, memory, and Infiniband network connections.

Correct Answer: D

The Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel, for those who want to leverage the latest features from mainline Linux and boost performance and scalability. The Red Hat Compatible Kernel, for those who prefer strict Red Hat kernel ABI (kABI) compatibility.


Question 8:

Examine this output: # df 璽 nfs Filesystem Size Used Avail Use% Mounted on

o16:export 30G 21G 7.6G 74% /mnt

# 1s -1 /mnt/nfs.sh -rwxr-mr-x. 1 root root 22 May 8 16:37 /mnt/nfs.sh # file /mnt/nfs.sh

/mnt/nfs.sh: Bourne-Again shell script text executables

# /mnt/nfs.sh bash: /mnt/nfs.sh: Permission denied What is the reason for the error?

A. The file system was exported on host o16 using the ROOT_SQUASH option.

B. The /export filesystem was mounted with the NOEXEC option on host o16.

C. The filesystem mounted on /mnt was mounted with the NOEXEC option.

D. The filesystem was exported on host o16 by using the NO_ROOT_SQUASH option.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which two Statements are true concerning the configuration and use of cron and anacron?

A. Anacron jobs are used to make sure cron jobs run if the system had been down when they were meant to run.

B. All crontabs are held in the /etc/cron.d directory.

C. Cron jobs may run as frequently as once a minute.

D. Anacron jobs may run as frequently as once a minute.

E. The crond daemon looks for jobs only in /etc/crontab.

Correct Answer: CE

Note: Anacron is the cron for desktops and laptops.

Anacron does not expect the system to be running 24 x 7 like a server.

When you want a background job to be executed automatically on a machine that is not running 24 x 7, you should use anacron.

Incorrect:

not D: /etc/anacrontab file has the anacron jobs mentioned in the following format.

period delay job-identifier command

Field 1 is Recurrence period: This is a numeric value that specifies the number of days.

1 daily

7 weekly

30 monthly

N This can be any numeric value. N indicates number of days


Question 10:

You have a single network adapter called eth0.

DEVICE = eth0 BOOTPROTO=DHCP HWADR=BC:305B:C5:63;F1 NM_CONTROLLED=no ONBOOT=YES TYPE=Ethernet PEERDNS=no UUID=C9dba2e8-9faf-4b77-bbe2-92dd81dda1f9

Which two Statement:; are true concerning eth0 based on this configuration?

A. DHCP is used to obtain a lease on an IP address.

B. The dhclient command may only be used to obtain a lease at boot time.

C. dhclient does not override the contents of /etc/resolv.conf.

D. DNS is not used to resolve host names for this adapter.

E. dhclient overrides the contents of /etc/resolv.conf.

Correct Answer: A

A: BOOTPROTO=DHCP

C: PEERDNS=answer

where answer is one of the following:

yes — Modify /etc/resolv.conf if the DNS directive is set. If using DHCP, then yes is the default.

no — Do not modify /etc/resolv.conf.

Note: The “/etc/resolv.conf” file is used to configure the location of the DNS servers to be used for name resolution.


Question 11:

You want sendmail to deliver mail for these users:

[email protected] to mailbox jsmith1 [email protected] to mailbox jsmith2 [email protected] to mailbox jsmith3

In which sendmail configuration database can this requirement be defined?

A. /etc/aliases

B. /etc/mail/userdb

C. /etc/mail/virtusertable

D. /etc/mail/domaintable

E. /etc/mail/genericstable

Correct Answer: C

/etc/mail/virtusertable

This database file maps mail addresses for virtual domains and users to real mailboxes. These mailboxes can be local, remote, aliases defined in /etc/mail/aliases, or files. This allows multiple virtual domains to be hosted on one machine.

The following example demonstrates how to create custom entries using that format:

[email protected] root

[email protected] [email protected]

@example.com joe


Question 12:

Which two conditions should be met in order to successfully configure an openssh client on Oracle Linux?

A. The openssh-server package must not be installed.

B. The openssh package must be installed.

C. The sshd daemon must not be started.

D. The openssh-client package must be installed.

E. The ssh-agent must be started.

F. ssh keys must be generated by any user using the ssh client.

Correct Answer: BD

To connect to an OpenSSH server from a client machine, you must have the openssh-clients and openssh packages installed on the client machine.


Question 13:

You use the chkconfig command to administer one of the services on your Oracle Linux system:

[[email protected] ~]# chkconfig vncserver off [[email protected] ~] #

No changes have been made to the init script for the service.

Which two statements are true regarding the effects of Issuing this command?

A. The vncserver service is shut down.

B. The vncserver service configuration is disabled only for those run levels for which it is currently enabled.

C. The vncserver service configuration is disabled for run levels 2, 3, 4 and 5.

D. The vncserver service remains in the same state it was in before the command was issued.

E. The vncserver service configuration is disabled for run levels 3 and 5 only.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: http://www.oracle-base.com/articles/linux/configuring-vnc-server-on-linux.php


Question 14:

Examine the commands used by root to create the chrooted environments in the /jail directory:

# mkdir /jail/bin/jail/lib64

# cp /bin/bash/jail/bin

linux-vdso.so.1 => (0x00007fff68dff000)

libtinfo.so.5 => /lib64/libtinfo.so.5 (0x00000033e00000)

lid1.so.2 => /lib64/libc.so.6 (0x00000033e1600000)

/lib64/id-linix-86-64.so.2 (0x00000033e0e00000)

# cp /lib64/libtinfo.so.5/jail/lib64

# cp /lib64/libd1.so.6 /jail/lib64

# cp /lib64/libc.so.6 /jail/lib64

# cp /lib64/id-linux-x86-64.so.2 /jail/lib64

The user root then issues this command:

# chroot /jail

What is the output from the cd, pwd, and 1s commands?

A. bash-4.1# cd bash-4.1# pwd /root bash-4.1# 1s bash” 1s: command not found

B. bash-4.1# cd bash: cd: /root: No such file or directory bash-4.1# pwd / bash-4.1 # 1s bash: 1s: command not found

C. bash-4.1# cd bash: cd: command not found bash: pwd: command not found bash-4.1# 1s

D. bash: 1s; # cd bash: cd: /root: unable to access chrooted file or directory /root bash-4.1# pwd / bash-4.1 # 1s bin lib64

E. bash-4.1# cd bash: cd: /root: No such file or directory bash-4.1# pwd / bash-4.1# 1s bin lib64

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is the purpose of setting ONPARENT = no in an Interface configuration file located in /etc/sysconfig/ network-scripts?

A. To prevent a network interface from being brought up during system startup

B. To prevent a slave network interface from being brought up during system startup

C. To prevent an alias network interface from being brought up during system startup

D. To prevent a master network interface from being brought up during system startup

Correct Answer: C

The ONBOOT directive tells the network initialization scripts not to start a given interface.

If you need to stop a virtual interface from starting when the network interfaces are initialized, you need to set ONPARENT instead of ONBOOT to no.

Reference: Keep IP Aliases from Starting at Boot


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Question 1:

What information does the file modules.dep provide?

A. A list of all modules available to the kernel.

B. A list of modules required by each module.

C. A list of devices and their module name.

D. A list of modules compiled for this kernel.

E. A list of modules the kernel needs to run.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which of the following is a valid location in the automount configuration, when a Windows share needs to be made availabletothesystem?

A. \\server\sharename

B. ://server/sharename

C. server:/sharename

D. :server/sharename

E. \\\\server\\sharename

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which command would you use to apply a diff file to an original?

A. patch > diff-file

B. patch < diff-file

C. patch << diff-file

D. cat diff-file >> kernel

E. cat diff-file << kernel

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

DNSSEC is used for?

A. Encrypted DNS queries between nameservers.

B. Cryptographic authentication of DNS zones.

C. Secondary DNS queries for local zones.

D. Defining a secure DNS section.

E. Querying a secure DNS section.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Considering the following kernel IP routing table now, which of the following commands must be remove the route to the network l0.l0.1.0/24? Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface

200.207.199.162 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 ppp0

172.16.87.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0

192.168.246.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth1

10.10.1.0 192.168.246.11 255.255.255.0 UG 0 0 0 eth1

127.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 U 0 0 0 lo

0.0.0.0 200.207.199.162 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 ppp0

A. route del

10.10.1.0

B. route del 10.10.1.0/24

C. route del -net 10.10.1.0/24

D. route del 10.10.1.0/24 gw

192.168.246.11

E. route del -net

10.10.1.0

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

What is the difference between zImage and bzImage targets when compiling a kernel?

A. zImage is compressed using gzip, bzImage is compressed using bzip2

B. zImage is for 2.4 series kernels, bzImage is for 2.6 series kernels

C. zImage is loaded into low memory, bzImage is loaded into high memory

D. zImage is limited to 64k, bzImage is not

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

WhichofthesewayscanbeusedtoonlyallowaccesstoaDNSserverfrom specifiednetworks/hosts?

A. Using the limit{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

B. Using the allow-query{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

C. Using the answer only{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

D. Using the answer{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

E. Using the query access{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which of these commands allows you to use shared libraries that are in /usr/local/lib?

A. export LD_PRELOAD=/usr/local/lib

B. exportLD_LIBRARY_PATH=/usr/local/lib

C. ldconfig /usr/local/lib

D. ldd /usr/local/lib

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which TWO archiving formats are used to create an initramfs image?

A. gzip

B. tar

C. rar

D. cpio

E. bzip2

Correct Answer: AD


Question 10:

How can you manually add an entry to your system\’s ARP cache?

A. Directly edit /etc/arp-cache

B. Run add-arp hostname FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

C. Run ping -a hostname

D. Run arp -s hostname FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

E. Edit arp.conf and restart arpd

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which tool can be used to control the runtime behavior of udev?

A. udev

B. udevctl

C. udevadm

D. udevconfig

E. udevclient

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

How can DMA be enabled for the device /dev/hda?

A. echo “l” >/proc/ide/hda/dma

B. sysctl -w dev.ide.dma=l

C. dma add /dev/hda

D. hdparm -d l /dev/hda

E. insmod dma dev=/dev/hda

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

To restore the kernel source to the previous, unpatched, version, which of the following commands could be used?

A. patch–restore

B. patch –remove

C. patch -U

D. patch–undo

E. patch -R

Correct Answer: E


Question 14:

If the current directory is /root and the kernel source is located in /usr/src/linux, which of the following commands should be used to apply the patch /tmp/foopatch?

A. cat /tmp/foopatch I patch -p0

B. cd/usr/src/linux;cat/tmp/foopatchIpatch-p0

C. cd/usr/src/linux; cat/tmp/foopatch I patch

D. cd/usr/src/linux;patch-pl</tmp/foopatch

E. cd/usr/src/linux;patch-pl>/tmp/foopatch

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

The Linux kernel is loaded successfully by the boot loader. However, straight after the kernel mounts the root filesystem, the boot process stops and an error message regarding init is shown. Which of the following actions is the best one to be used in order to identify and fix the problem?

A. The administrator reboots the system with a recovery disk and checks the root file system for errors with fsck.

B. The administrator reboots the system with a recovery disk and restores from a backup.

C. The administrator reboots the system and tells the kernel, through the boot loader prompt, to use /bin/bash as the initial process.

D. The administrator reboots the system with a recovery disk and installs a new kernel.

E. The administrator reboots the system and tells init, through the boot loader prompt, to use a different runlevel.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

What is the term used to describe the cost of the solution after the solution has been implemented in production by a vendor?

A. Total ownership costing

B. Lifecycle maintenance fees

C. Sustainability fees

D. Total cost of ownership

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Enterprise analysis creates just five outputs.

Which one of the following is an output of the enterprise analysis tasks?

A. Assumptions and constraints

B. Stakeholder concerns

C. Solution performance assessment

D. Solution approach

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What plan will describe the stakeholder groups, communication needs, and the level of formality that is appropriate for the requirements?

A. Requirements management plan

B. Project management plan

C. Scope management plan

D. Business analysis communication plan

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

You are the business analyst for a smaller project where there are few requirements. Management would still like you to create a method to trace the few requirements for this project.

What type of matrix would be best in this instance?

A. Roles and responsibility matrix

B. RACI matrix

C. Coverage matrix

D. Requirements trace matrix

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

You are the business analyst for your organization and have many solutions available to an identified problem. You would like a way to quickly and fairly determine which solution is the best choice for your organization.

Which of the following approaches would allow you to determine the top-rated solutions for your organization?

A. Scoring system

B. Acceptance and evaluation criteria

C. Vendor assessment

D. Voting system

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

When an organization is using a change-driven approach to business analysis, how are communications managed?

A. Communications in a change-driven approach to business analysis focus more on the frequency of communication.

B. Communications in a change-driven approach typically use face-to-face channels.

C. Communications in a change-driven approach focus more on formal communications.

D. Communications in a change-driven approach are all ad hoc.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Nancy has asked you to trace a particular requirement for her.

What does \’to trace a requirement\’ mean?

A. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links risk, cost, quality, and scope elements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by the team and to solution components.

B. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links business requirements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by the team and to solution components.

C. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links business requirements to components in the project\’s work breakdown structure.

D. Tracing a requirement means to track a requirements from its first identification all the way to its completion to see what issues, risks, costs, quality, and defects have surrounded the requirement

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

When do change requests generally increase in a project?

A. During the project\’s launch.

B. Towards the beginning of the project.

C. During the project scope management processes.

D. Towards the end of the project.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Ben is the business analyst for his organization. Ben is currently working on a solution to improve a laser printer. He has taken the laser printer apart, identified each component, and documented each component\’s purpose.

What type of requirements organization is Ben doing in this scenario?

A. Process modeling

B. Data modeling

C. Functional decomposition

D. Scope modeling

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What part of defining the business needs process will evaluate the ends that the organization is seeking to achieve?

A. Business goals and objectives

B. Alternative identification

C. Solution assessment

D. Requirements

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Wanda is the business analyst for her organization and she is currently working on the specify and model requirements process. One of the elements of this process is the documentation of the textual requirements.

Wanda must describe the capabilities of the solution, any conditions that must exist for the requirements to operate, and what third component of the textual requirement?

A. Any constraints that may prevent the solution from fulfilling the requirement

B. Write in the active voice

C. Describe a situation or problem

D. Express only one requirement at a time

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

The business analysis approach generally defines all of the following attributes except for which one?

A. Requirements for solutions acceptance

B. Deliverables

C. Team roles

D. Analysis technique

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Gary is the business analyst for his organization and he is preparing a presentation about the requirements for a large software development project.

Before Gary makes the presentation what should he do as part of his preparation for the presentation?

A. Determine an appropriate format for the presentation.

B. Confirm that he has the authority to host the presentation.

C. Confirm that the stakeholders have signed off on the requirements.

D. Hire a scribe to keep the minutes of the meeting.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

You are the business analyst for your organization and are creating the solution scope definition.

Which of the following should be included in the solution scope definition?

A. Business case

B. Technical dependencies

C. Elicitation techniques

D. Organization readiness assessment

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What business analysis element tries to identify as many potential options as possible to meet the business objectives and fill identified gaps in capabilities?

A. Ranking of approaches

B. Decision analysis

C. Documentation of assumptions and constraints

D. Alternative generation

Correct Answer: D


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With control Plane security (CPSec) enabled, Aruba Aps connect to controllers with which protocol?

A. GRE

B. HTTPs

C. IPsec

D. PPTP

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A network is configured with two local controllers in each area for redundancy VRRP is used as the redundancy protocol.

In this situation, how do the Aps determine if an active VRRP controller has failed, thus initiating a reconnection to the virtual IP address?

A. VRRP keepalives

B. GRE keepalives

C. PAPI keepalives

D. IPSec keepalives

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An administrator sets up Layer 3 roaming between controllers in a mobility domain. Which method is used to forward traffic from a foreign agent (FA) back to the user\’s home agent (HA)?

A. GRE Tunneling

B. PAPI Tunneling

C. IPSec tunneling

D. VLAN switching

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

An administrator supports a wireless network that includes Aruba Mobility controllers and Aruba Aps. The network has on Virtual AP (VAP) profile configured for employees and one VAP profile configured for guests. The network has 200 employees now, but, because of rapid expansion and the move to a brand new campus network, the number of employees is expected to increase to over 500. The administrator wants to continue to use only two VAPs to keep the WLAN implementation simple.

Which feature should the administrator implement for the employee VAP that will allow it to scale to a large number of users?

A. Source NAT

B. VLAN Mobility

C. VLAN Pools

D. IP Mobility

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: http://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/vrd/RAPVRD_version_8.pdf


Question 5:

Refer to Exhibit: A company deploys centralized licensing with centralized licensing redundancy. An administrator verifies that the centralized licensing is operational. Local controllers obtain licensing from the centralized license servers. The current network environment consists of:

*

79 Aps connected to the three local controllers.

*

64 Aps connected to the 3600 controller.

*

15 Aps connected to the two 7010 controller.

The activity and standby license servers were inadvertently connected to the same power source. The power source fails one day. The administrator then adds a newly purchased AP to the network while the license servers are still down. The

new AP then boots up and attempts to connect to the 3600 local controller.

What happens to this AP?

A. The 3600 uses the hardware-based AP license to allow the AP to associate to the controller.

B. the 3600 fails to obtain the correct licensing and will not allow the AP to associate to the controller.

C. the 3600 uses its own local software licensing to allow the AP to associate to the controller.

D. The available license count is reset and the 3600 obtains the correct licensing from the new active licensing server.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What is the default method for sending centralized licensing messages between master and local controllers?

A. through clear, unencrypted information

B. with PAPI

C. with CPSec

D. with IPSec site-to-site VPN tunnels

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An administrator receives a new Aruba Mobility Controller at its factory default configuration. The administrator accesses the console of the controller and answers the questions in the initial setup script. The administrator then logs into the controller through a web browser and runs the controller wizard to complete the initial setup of the controller.

Which action can only be performed through the CLI?

A. Set the date and time.

B. Disable controller interfaces

C. Add AP licenses

D. identify the controller switch mode.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

An administrator manages a network that uses windows computers. The administrator wants to perform both user and machine authentication and use an AAA RADIUS server to perform the authentication. The AAA server is also configured to pass back a user role that should be used by the Aruba Mobility Controller.

What happens when user or machine authentication succeeds or fails in this situation?

A. if user authentication fails and machine authentication succeeds. The machine authentication default user role is applied to the user\’s session.

B. if both user and machine authentication succeed the server-derived role is applied to the user\’s session.

C. if user authentication succeed and machine authentication fails, the server derived role is applied to the user\’s session.

D. if both user and machine authentication fail, the machine authentication default machine role is applied to the user\’s session

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which of the following could be used to set a user\’s post-authentication role or VLAN association? (Choose two)

A. AAA default role for authentication method

B. Server Derivation Rule

C. Vendor Specific Attributes

D. AP Derivation Rule

E. The Global AAA profile

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

As illustrated in the above diagram and screen capture, a wireless hacker injects messages into your network to detach a client from your Aruba AP.

What action should you take to identify and prevent the Intruder from connecting to your system?

A. enable Detect disconnect Station Attack

B. enable Spoofed Deauth Blacklist C. take no action as there is no protection against this form of attack

D. take no action as the Aruba system ignores this attack because it is against the client

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

An Aruba 650 controller is functioning as a standby Master. How many APs can it control while in standby mode?

A. 0

B. 16

C. 24

D. 128

E. 256

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

In the above diagram, the system shows two Aruba access points and a wired user.

Which VLAN(s) do NOT need to be configured on link A between the L2 switch and router to support the wireless users?

A. 101 and 102

B. 101 and 103

C. 102 and 103

D. only 101

E. only 103

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

With Visual RF location tracking, show location history can be set for a maximum of?

A. 1 hour

B. 6 hours

C. 24 hours

D. 12 hours

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

When configuring a server group containing 3 servers, a customer Chooses \’fail through mode\’. What other configuration option has to be enabled on the controller for this to work with 802.1x authentication?

A. Machine authentication

B. EAP Termination

C. Server group fall through mode

D. MAC authentication

E. Round robin or top down mode

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

If machine authentication passes and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?

A. employee

B. denyall

C. guest

D. logon

E. no role is assigned

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

After creating several volumes, you notice that the hosting aggregates immediately show a decrease in available space.

Which volume setting would prevent this outcome?

A. space guarantee set to “volume”

B. space SLO set to “semi-thick”

C. space guarantee set to “none”

D. space SLO set to “thick”

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

You want to prepare your ONTAP cluster and your ESXi cluster to connect NFS datastores over a 10-GbE network using jumbo frames.

In this scenario, which three configurations would accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

A. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 1500 for your ESXi hosts

B. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9000 for your ONTAP cluster

C. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 1500 for your ONTAP cluster

D. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9000 for your ESXi hosts

E. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9216 for your switches

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 3:

Which two storage efficiency features are enabled by default on AFF systems? (Choose two.)

A. volume-level inline deduplication

B. aggregate-level compression

C. LUN-level compression

D. aggregate-level inline deduplication

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.dot-cm-vsmg/GUIDC1E3029E-1514-4579-939B-67160E849632.html


Question 4:

When you perform an upgrade using ONTAP System Manager 9.8, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The images must be manually uploaded to the cluster by using the ONTAP System Manager interface

B. The latest available images will appear in the ONTAP System Manager interface

C. The images will be automatically uploaded to the cluster by using the ONTAP System Manager interface from the NetApp Support site

D. The update history is available within the ONTAP System Manager interface

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

Click the Exhibit button.

You have an SVM-DR relationship as shown in the exhibit. You are given a new requirement to use SnapMirror Synchronous (SM-S) for the data volumes in NFS-SVM-01.

In this scenario, which solution is supported to enable SM-S in ONTAP 9.8 software?

A. Set up new SM-S relationships from the FAS2720 to a new destination

B. Set up NetApp Cloud Sync with a cloud broker in AWS to replicate to a new destination

C. Modify the existing SVM-DR policy to use sync mode

D. Set up new SM-S relationships from the AFF A220 to a new destination

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which two types of capacity tiers are supported with FabricPool aggregates in ONTAP 9.8? (Choose two.)

A. StorageGRID Object Storage

B. S3 Object Store

C. SWIFT Object Store

D. NFS Export

Correct Answer: AB


Question 7:

Click the Exhibit button.

A Linux host with the 10.0.1.24 IP address is unable to mount the VOL_A volume using NFSv3. Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?

A. The volume is in read-only

B. The logical interface does not allow the NFSv3 protocol

C. The host IP address does not match the export policy rule

D. The volume is not mounted in the namespace

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

A user wants existing data in a FlexVol created in ONTAP 9.1 to be placed into a FlexGroup volume with ONTAP 9.8.

In this scenario, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Use SnapMirror to replicate data from FlexVol to FlexGroup

B. Use XCP to copy data from a FlexVol to a FlexGroup

C. You can convert the FlexVol volume to a FlexGroup volume

D. A FlexVol to FlexGroup conversion is not supported

Correct Answer: AC


Question 9:

Click the Exhibit button.

After an ONTAP upgrade, you notice that several cluster LIFs are not on their home ports as shown in the exhibit.

Which LIF option would change this outcome?

A. the failover-policy option

B. the data-protocol option

C. the subnet-name option

D. the auto-revert option

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

A customer wants to migrate a series of LUNs from a third-party array to a FAS. In this scenario, which two tools would the customer use? (Choose two.)

A. XCP

B. NKS

C. ADP

D. FLI

Correct Answer: AD

Migrate a series of LUNs from a third-party array to a FAS.


Question 11:

Click the Exhibit button.

A user cannot save a file on an ONTAP SMB share.

Referring to the exhibit, which action allows the user to save the file?

A. Synchronize the ONTAP Cluster time to the Active Directory time

B. Let the user save the file to a writeable location

C. Set the user permission for the share to write

D. Allow the file type *.rtf in the CIFS Server fpolicy

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Your company requires WORM archiving of data on their ONTAP cluster. The data must not be able to be deleted even by an administrator.

Which ONTAP feature fulfills this requirement?

A. SnapVault software

B. SnapMirror software

C. SnapLock Enterprise

D. SnapLock Compliance

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://doc.agrarix.net/netapp/doc/Archive and Compliance Management% 20Guide.pdf (9)


Question 13:

Click the Exhibit button.

You are caching on-premises ONTAP volumes into the cloud with Cloud Volumes ONTAP as shown in the exhibit.

In this scenario, which two protocols are supported? (Choose two.)

A. NVMe

B. SMB

C. NFS

D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm/pdfs/sidebar/Manage_Cloud_Volumes_ONTAP.pdf


Question 14:

Click the Exhibit button.

You have a 2-node NetApp FAS2750 ONTAP cluster. You create a new 20-GB LUN in a new 100-GB volume and write 10 GB of data to the LUN. No storage efficiencies are enabled for the volume or aggregate.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. ONTAP reports that the volume is using 10 GB of its containing aggregate

B. ONTAP reports the volume as 20% full

C. ONTAP reports that the volume is using 100 GB of its containing aggregate

D. ONTAP reports the volume as 10% full

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

Which two statements are true about NVMe? (Choose two.)

A. NQNs are added to namespaces

B. LUNs are mapped to initiator groups

C. Namespaces are mapped to subsystems

D. NQNs are added to subsystems

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.dot-cm-sanag/GUID52A6B6A1-61F8-4845-91CB-B13A1526CC30.html


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Question 1:

You are speaking with a customer who has a large multi-site enterprise, and limited IT staff to support a new communications system. They like the idea of housing the primary call control in a reliable data center, but do not have such an environment. In their business today. Local survivability is critical as reliable communications is a core function of their business. Based on these factors, which IP OfficeTM deployment model would meet the customer requirements?

A. Private Cloud

B. Public Cloud

C. Hybrid Cloud

D. On-Premise

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

In an IP Office environment, which one can be run on the Vantage device?

A. Vantage Connect Client

B. Avaya IXTM Workplace Client

C. Avaya Equinox Attendant

D. IP Office Web Client

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

With Avaya Spaces, which statement is true about the what users can do?

A. Guest level users can only text chat other users.

B. All levels of users can text chat and video call.

C. Only Member level users and above can video call.

D. Only the Owner/Admin level users can video call.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

What is one of the features of the Avaya VantageTM K165 that makes it different than the Avaya Vantage K175?

A. It has visible mechanical buttons.

B. It has a smaller touch screen.

C. It does not Include a camera.

D. It is not an all glass device.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

With the Basic level of account In Avaya Spaces, which statement about what users can do is true?

A. They can have direct online video calling but no video conferences.

B. They can host online video conferences with a maximum of 5 participants.

C. They can host online video conferences with a maximum of 15 participants.

D. They can host online voice conferences with a maximum of 15 participants.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Your customer wants WIFI connectivity.

What Is the least costly Avaya DC- IP Phone model that supports WIFI connectivity?

A. J179

B. J169

C. J139

D. J129

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Your customer wants to create wallboards.

In addition to the Basic Avaya Call Reporting license, what is required to provide wallboard templates?

A. Realtime

B. Voice Recording Library

C. Custom reports

D. Agent Dashboards

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Your customer wants to edit the standard reports.

In addition to the Basic Avaya Call Reporting license, what is required to allow your customer to change

some of the 50 standard reports?

A. Recording Library

B. Agent Dashboards

C. Realtime

D. Custom reports

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

With Avaya Equinox?Meetings online is the maximum number of participants for a Preferred VMR?

A. 50 participants

B. 25 participants

C. 100 participants

D. 500 participants

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which statement is true about the various levels and the file sharing capabilities of Avaya Spaces users?

A. Only Member level users and above can share files.

B. Only Owner/Admin level users can share files.

C. All levels of users can share files.

D. File sharing is not a capability within Avaya Spaces.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Your customer would like to use Deskphone mode, also called Shared Control, and they want to know if

they need to replace any of their deskphones.

Which phone does not support Shared Call Control?

A. 1100 Series

B. J129

C. DECT R4

D. 1200 Series

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

With the Avaya J100 Series IXTM IP phones, which feature requires PoE Class 2?

A. The JBM24/JEM24 button module

B. The color display

C. The J100 wireless module

D. The built-in volume boost

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

With the Avaya IX\'” Workplace Client, what is required to provide point-to-point audio and video calls?

A. One user with Office Worker licence, one user with Power User licence

B. Two users with Avaya Equinox?Meetings Online virtual meeting rooms

C. Two users with Avaya Equinox?Conferencing host licences

D. Two users with Power User licences

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

For Avaya Equinox Meetings Online, In addition to capacity differences, which feature Is only offered in the Pro VMR?

A. Video room systems as participants

B. Web browser connectivity

C. Live broadcast for 750 viewers

D. Recording and playback

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

With the Avaya IXTM Workplace Client, what is the minimum Avaya Spaces account that Is required send and receive Instant messages?

A. Basic

B. Plus

C. Business

D. Platinum

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

To obtain protected files on a live machine with FTK Imager, which evidence item should be added?

A. image file

B. currently booted drive

C. server object settings

D. profile access control list

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

You create two evidence images from the suspect\’s drive: suspect.E01 and suspect.001.

You want to be able to verify that the image hash values are the same for suspect.E01 and suspect.001 image files. Which file has the hash value for the Raw (dd) image?

A. suspect.001.txt

B. suspect.E01.txt

C. suspect.001.csv

D. suspect.E01.csv

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which three items are contained in an Image Summary File using FTK Imager? (Choose three.)

A. MD5

B. CRC

C. SHA1

D. Sector Count

E. Cluster Count

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 4:

In which Overview tab container are HTML files classified?

A. Archive container

B. Java Code container

C. Documents container

D. Internet Files container

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

You want to search for two words within five words of each other.

Which search request would accomplish this function?

A. apple by pear w/5

B. June near July w/5

C. supernova w/5cassiopeia

D. supernova bycassiopeia w/5

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

You are asked to process a case using FTK and to produce a report that only includes selected graphics. What allows you to display only flagged graphics?

A. List by File Path

B. List File Properties

C. Graphic Thumbnails

D. Supplementary Files

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which data in the Registry can the Registry Viewer translate for the user? (Choose three.)

A. calculate MD5 hashes of individual keys

B. translate the MRUs in chronological order

C. present data stored in null terminated keys

D. present the date and time of each typed URL

E. View Protected Storage System Provider (PSSP) data

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 8:

What are two functions of the Summary Report in Registry Viewer? (Choose two.)

A. adds individual key values

B. is a template for other registry files

C. displays investigator keyword search results

D. permits searching of registry values based on key headers

Correct Answer: AB


Question 9:

In FTK, a user may alter the alert or ignore status of individual hash sets within the active KFF. Which utility is used to accomplish this?

A. KFF Alert Editor

B. ADKFF Library Selector

C. Hash Database File Selector

D. Hash Database Recovery Engine

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which two Registry Viewer operations can be conducted from FTK? (Choose two.)

A. list SAM file account names in FTK

B. view all registry files from within FTK

C. createsubitems of individual keys for FTK

D. export a registry report to the FTK case report

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

Click on the Exhibit button.

Which activity will this execution transfer to if an error occurs at the CheckInventory activity?

A. IncomingOrder

B. End

C. RespondNotAvailable

D. CatchInventory

E. CatchAllOthers

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which utility should you use to delete all deployed process files from a domain before using it for testing?

A. Domain Utility

B. Tester

C. AppManage

D. Migration

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

An HTTP Receiver is overloaded and you with to throttle the number of incoming HTTP requests. What are two ways to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. use the bw.plugin.http.server.minProcessors property

B. set FlowLimit on the entire engine

C. use the bw.plugin.http.server.maxProcessors property

D. set FlowLimit for the particular process

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

Which variable type should you use for a project connecting to multiple databases using JDBC Connections if a different set of databases is used for testing and production?

A. Process Variable

B. Global Variable

C. Job Shared Variable

D. System Variable

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which Global Variable option should you check to make the Global Variable visible and configurable in TIBCO Administrator?

A. Type

B. Service

C. Deployment

D. Constraint

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Multiple applications and a TIBCO EMS server are in the same Administrator domain. When using a secondary domain server, which three functions are available? (Choose three.)

A. delete an application

B. create queue or topic

C. delete a queue or topic

D. purge a queue or topic

E. deploy an application

F. undeploy an application

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 7:

Click the Exhibit button.

Which two statements are valid about this process? (Choose two.)

A. An otherwise transition should be added to this process for unknown test cases.

B. This process must be restructured because it is not valid to have more than eight transitions.

C. A group placed around the Start and all Map activities can unify the error handling.

D. Because all transitions must be evaluated, there is overhead in the process.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

You wish to allow a message selector to be changed at runtime. Which JMS activity should you use?

A. Get JMS Queue Message

B. JMS Topic Publisher

C. JMS Queue Sender

D. Reply To JMS Message

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

The ActiveEnterprise Adapter Palette supports which transport types?

A. Tibrv Certified and JMS Queue

B. Tibrv Network and Tibrv Certified

C. HTTP and Tibrv Certified

D. JMS Route and JMS Queue

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which three actions can be taken directly from the Project tab in the TIBCO Designer startup panel? (Choose three.)

A. Reopen Project

B. Add Users to Project

C. New Project From Template

D. Validate Project

E. New Empty Project

F. Deploy Project

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 11:

Click the Exhibit button.

You need to map the “any element” data in Activity A to a structured object in Activity B. What should you use?

A. Type Cast

B. Coercion

C. Auto-Map

D. Merge

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which two methods does ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks support for storing trusted certificates? (Choose two.)

A. in a project

B. in an alias library

C. in PKCS12 format

D. in KeyStore format

E. in a design time library

Correct Answer: AE


Question 13:

What are the server options for an HTTP Connection shared resource?

A. JBOSS and HTTP Component

B. Tomcat and GlassFish

C. HTTP Component and Tomcat

D. WebLogic and JBOSS

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which statement is true about how a database connection pool is created when implementing connection pooling?

A. It is created for a JDBC Connection Resource across multiple engines.

B. One is created for each JDBC Connection Resource for an engine.

C. It is created for a domain.

D. One is created for all JDBC Connection Resources for an engine.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

When a loaded process begins with a Start activity that requires input, what are two ways to automatically load the data when you click the Supply Input Data to Starter button? (Choose two.)

A. from a file

B. from a project

C. from a process

D. from a Read File activity

Correct Answer: CD


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Question 1:

Which employment model options are available for newly provisioned HCM Cloud environments?

A. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts multiple assignment

B. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier single contract single assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts single assignment

C. 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier single assignment

D. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier single contract single assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment

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Question 2:

The Human Resource Representative of the organization is trying to set up the grade rates. During the process, she realizes that the grades were created without steps. Identify two options for adding rates to the grade. (Choose two.)

A. First add the rates for each step, then add the grade to a grade ladder.

B. Add the rates separately using the Manage Grade Rates task.

C. Use the Default Grade rates that are available upon creating grades.

D. First add the grade to a grade ladder, then add the rates for each step.

E. Add the rates at the same time as when you add the grade using the Manage Grades task.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 3:

An IT company\’s consulting department based in Bangalore goes for two team outing events every year. However, the support department, also based in Bangalore, goes for four team outing events every year. All employees in these departments go for the respective team outing events.

How should you define the calendar years?

A. Use Line Manager Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

B. Use Organization Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

C. Use Absence Approval Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

D. Use Geographic Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

E. Use Project Manager Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which three options are true regarding Grade Ladders? (Choose three.)

A. Grade Ladders are used to group grades or grades with steps.

B. Five types of Grade Ladders are available.

C. A Grade Ladder can be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.

D. Two types of Grade Ladders are available.

E. A Grade Ladder cannot be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 5:

You are required to set geography validation for country-specific address style. You have configured the application correctly, but users are still entering addresses in the wrong address format. What can be done to change this?

A. Create a new geography validation.

B. Educate users to use the country-specific address format only.

C. Effective End Date for geography validation is end of time.

D. Set the geography validation level to Error instead of No Validation.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

As an Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud implementation consultant, you are configuring an enterprise structure for an organization that has undergone major restructing. The client wants to you to make multiple versions of the enterprise structure so that they can decide on a final one that suits them based on proper analysis and comparison.

What should you do meet this requirement of the client?

A. Configure multiple enterprise structures by using the Establish Enterprise Structure guided flow. Analyze and compare them by using the configuration review pages, including the Technical Summary Report, before loading the final one.

B. Create and load one enterprise structure at a time through Establish Enterprise Structure, analyze the structure and, if it does not suit the client, use the rollback option before creating another structure.

C. Configure multiple enterprise structures and load all of them simultaneously so that analysis and comparison can be done.

D. Design the enterprise structure by using individual tasks available for each of the organizations and keep changing it until the final structure is agreed upon.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An enterprise operates in a country where contract information is required for employees.

What type of employment model can the enterprise use?

A. multiple assignments

B. contract assignment

C. single assignment

D. single assignment with contracts

E. multiple assignments with contracts

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

The HR of Finance Department searches for an employee who is the Finance Auditor. The search is conducted with an effective date of 01-Jan-2015 on the Person Management page. The search does not yield any results.

Identify two reasons for this behavior. (Choose two.)

A. The employee was a contingent worker until 31-Dec-2014 and will rejoin as an employee on 02-Jan-2015.

B. The employee is working as a contingent worker in Finance Department.

C. The employee has multiple assignments and being a Finance Auditor is a part of the secondary assignment.

D. The employee is working as an employee in Finance Department.

E. The employee is inactive as of 01-Jan-2015.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 9:

If multiple people update a performance rating for a competency on a worker\’s profile, what is used to provide a unique identifier for each instance of the competency so that you can determine who provided what rating?

A. instance qualifier

B. content library

C. rating model

D. educational establishment

E. content subscriber

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

When configuring a checklist application task what value must be select to ensure you will only be able to select from a list of employee tasks verses manager tasks?

A. Ensure the owner field is set to employee.

B. Ensure the eligibility profile linked to the task contains criteria the include only active employees.

C. Ensure the owner and performer are both set to employee.

D. Ensure the performer field is set to employee.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

You are an HR specialist and want to add new values to a lookup. You have access to the specific work area, but are unable to perform the activity.

Identify the correct statement about this.

A. You cannot add new lookup codes and meanings to the existing lookup types.

B. You can access the task for profile options from the Setup and Maintenance menu.

C. The system administrator must enable the lookup before it is modified in the work area.

D. Oracle applications contain certain predefined system lookups that are locked for editing.

E. You can create new lookup types but cannot modify the existing ones.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

As an implementation consultant, you have defined multiple grades for each job and position. While defining assignments, users must be able to select a grade only from the list that has been defined for the job or position. However, all grades are available.

What is the cause for this?

A. PER_DEFAULT_GRADE_FROM_JOB_POSITION is set to Yes at user level.

B. PER_DEFAULT_GRADE_FROM_JOB_POSITION is set to No at site level.

C. PER_ENFORCE_VALID_GRADES is set to Yes at site level.

D. GRADE_PAY_RATE_TYPE is set to No at site level.

E. PER_ENFORCE_VALID_GRADES is set to No at site level.

Correct Answer: E


Question 13:

A multinational construction company, headquartered in London, has operations in five countries. It has its major operations in the US and UK and small offices in Saudi Arabia, UAE, and India. The company employs 3,000 people in the UK and US and 500 people in the remaining locations. The entire workforce in India falls under the Contingent Worker category.

How many Legislative Data Groups (LDGs), divisions, legal employers, and Payroll Statutory Units (PSUs) need to be configured for this company?

A. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five legal employers, and four PSUs (all except India)

B. four LDGs (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five divisions (one for each country), four legal employers (all except India), and five PSUs

C. five LDGs, five divisions, five legal employers, and five PSUs

D. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), two legal employers, and PSUs (US and UK only, because the workforce is very small in the other countries)

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

As an implementation consultant, you are in the process of setting up geographies in the application. Which three statements are true about defining geographies? (Choose three.)

A. You must identify the top-level of geography as Country and define a geography type.

B. You can only modify all levels of the geography structure before you load geography hierarchy.

C. You must map geography to reporting establishments for reporting purposes.

D. It is mandatory to define geography validations before geography hierarchy can be defined.

E. You must set geography validation for the specific address style for a country.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 15:

A customer has a requirement to add a new Action when hiring Part-Time Employees. What is the correct option?

A. Create an additional Action type Hire Part-Time Employee and do not associate it with any Action type.

B. Create an additional Action Hire Part-Time Employee and associate it with any Action type Hire an Employee.

C. Create an additional Action Reason Hire Part-Time Employee and associate it with any Action type Manage Employee.

D. Create an additional lookup with the value Hire Part-Time Employee.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference. Which method or feature should you use?

A. Database Replay

B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report

C. Active Session History (ASH) report

D. SQL Performance Analyzer

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E24628_01/server.121/e17635/tdppt_degrade.htm


Question 2:

What can be automatically implemented after the SQL Tuning Advisor is run as part of the Automated Maintenance Task?

A. statistics recommendations

B. SQL profile recommendations

C. SQL statement restructure recommendations

D. creation of materialized views to improve query performance

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e16638/sql_tune.htm#PFGRF028


Question 3:

Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMm) is enabled for your database instance, but parameters for the managed components are not defined.

You execute this command:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE = 100M;

Which statement is true?

A. The minimum size for the standard buffer cache is 100 MB.

B. The maximum size for the standard buffer cache is 100 MB.

C. The minimum space guaranteed in the buffer cache for any server process is 100 MB.

D. The maximum space in the buffer cache that can be released for dynamic distribution is 100 MB.

E. The minimum size for all buffer caches is 100 MB.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

You have a production Oracle 12c database running on a host.

You want to install and create databases across multiple new machines that do not have any Oracle database software installed. You also want the new databases to have the same directory structure and components as your existing 12c

database.

The steps in random order:

1.Create directory structures similar to the production database on all new machines. 2.Create a response file for Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) with the same configurations as the production database.

3.Create a database clone template for the database.

4.Run the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database.

5.Run OUI in graphical mode on each machine.

6.Run OUI in silent mode using the OUI response file.

Identify the required steps in the correct sequence to achieve the requirement with minimal human intervention.

A. 2, 1, 6, and 4

B. 2, 3, and 6

C. 3, 1, 5, and 6

D. 2, 3, 1, and 6

E. 1, 5, and 4

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which two statements are true about a common user?

A. A common user connected to a pluggable database (PDB) can exercise privileges across other PDBs.

B. A common user with the create user privilege can create other common users, as well as local users.

C. A common user can be granted only a common role.

D. A common user can have a local schema in a PDB.

E. A common user always uses the global temporary tablespace that is defined at the CDB level as the default temporary tablespace.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

Which three statements are true about persistent lightweight jobs?

A. A user cannot set privileges on them.

B. They generate large amounts of metadata.

C. They may be created as fully self-contained jobs.

D. They must reference an existing Scheduler Program.

E. The are useful when users need to create a large number of jobs quickly.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 7:

Which three statements are true about compression of backup sets?

A. Compressed backups can only be written to media.

B. Binary compression creates performance overhead during a backup operation.

C. Unused blocks below the high-water mark are not backed up.

D. Compressed backups cannot have section size defined during a backup operation

E. It works only for locally managed tablespaces.

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 8:

You issue the RMAN commands:

RMAN> CONFIGURE DEFAULT DEVICE TYPE TO disk;

RKAN> CONFIGURE DEVICE TYPE DISK BACKUP TYPE TO COPY;

RMAN>CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP ON;

RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;

Which three tasks are performed by the BACKUP DATABASE command?

A. switching the online redo log file

B. backing up all data files as image copies and archive log files, and deleting those archive log files

C. backing up only the used blocks in the data files

D. backing up all used and unused blocks in the data files

E. backing up all archived log files and marking them as obsolete

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 9:

A complete database backup to media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?

A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.

B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.

C. Configure large pool if not already done.

D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.

E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by media manager.

F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.

Correct Answer: BCD

Tuning RMAN Backup Performance: Procedure Many factors can affect backup performance. Often, finding the solution to a slow backup is a process of trial and error. To get the best performance for a backup, follow the suggested steps in this section: Step 1: Remove RATE Parameters from Configured and Allocated Channels Step 2: If You Use Synchronous Disk I/O, Set DBWR_IO_SLAVES Step 3: If You Fail to Allocate Shared Memory, Set LARGE_POOL_SIZE Step 4: Tune RMAN Tape Streaming Performance Bottlenecks Step 5: Query V$ Views to Identify Bottlenecks Reference:https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmtunin.htm#BRADV172


Question 10:

For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?

A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog

B. available archived redo log files

C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete

D. backups of tablespaces

E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation: About the LIST Command: The primary purpose of the LIST command is to list backup and copies. For example, you can list: -Backups and proxy copies of a database, tablespace, datafile, archived redo log, or control file Backups that have expired -Backups restricted by time, path name, device type, tag, or recoverability -Archived redo log files and disk copies Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmreprt.htm#BRADV89585


Question 11:

You want to export the pluggable database (PDB) hr pdb1 from the multitenant container database (CDB)CDB1 and import it into the cdb2 CDB as the emp_pdb1 PDB.

Examine the list of possible steps required to perform the task:

1.Create a PDB named emp_pdb1.

2.Export the hr_pdb1 PDB by using the full clause.

3.Open the emp_pdb1 PDB.

4.Mount the emp_pdb1 PDB.

5.Synchronize the emp_pdb1 PDB in restricted mode.

6.Copy the dump file to the Data Pump directory.

7.Create a Data Pump directory in the emp_pdb1 PDB.

8.Import data into emp_pdb1 with the full and remap clauses.

9.Create the same tablespaces in emp_pdb1 as in hr_pdb1 for new local user objects.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, and 8

B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

C. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

D. 2, 1, 3, 5, 7, 6, and 8

Correct Answer: C

Because the step 2 says that you perfom an expdp with the full clause and you don\’t need to create the tablespaces when you perform the impdp. FULL=yes will export tablespace definitions. So no need step 9.

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10501_01/server.920/a96652/ch01.htm


Question 12:

You wish to create jobs to satisfy these requirements:

1.

Automatically bulk load data from a flat file.

2.

Rebuild indexes on the SALES table after completion of the bulk load.

How would you create these jobs?

A. Create both jobs by using Scheduler raised events.

B. Create both jobs using application raised events.

C. Create one job to rebuild indexes using application raised events and another job to perform bulk load using Scheduler raised events.

D. Create one job to rebuild indexes using Scheduler raised events and another job to perform bulk load by using events raised by the application.

Correct Answer: C

The bulk loader would be started in response to a file watcher scheduler event and the indexes would be rebuilt in response to an application event raised by the bulk loader. Your application can raise an event to notify the Scheduler to start a job. A job started in this way is referred to as an event-based job. The job can optionally retrieve the message content of the event. References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/scheduse008.htm#CHDIAJEB https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/scheduse005.htm#CIABIEJA


Question 13:

Your Oracle 12c multitenant container database (CDB) contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). In the PDB hr_pdb, the common user c##admin and the local user b_admin have only the connect privilege.

You create a common role c##role1 with the create table and select any table privileges.

You then execute the commands:

SQL> GRANTc##role1 TO##Madmin CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL>CONNsys/[email protected]_PDB as sysdba

SQL> GRANTc##role1TO b_admin CONTAINER=CURRENT;

Which two statements are true?

A. C##admin can create and select any table, and grant the c##role1 role to users only in the root container.

B. B_admin can create and select any table in both the root container and Hr_pdb.

C. c##admin can create and select any table in the root container and all the PDBs.

D. B_admin can create and select any table only in hr_pdb.

E. The grant c##role1 to b_admin command returns an error because container should be set to ALL.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

You want RMAN to make duplicate copies of data files when using the backup command.

What must you set using the RMAN configure command to achieve this?

A. MAXSETSIZE TO 2;

B. DEVICE TYPE DISK PARALLELISM 2 BACKUP TYPE TO BACKUPSET;

C. CHANNEL DEVICE TYPE DISK FORMAT \’/disk1/%U\’ , \’/disk2/%U\’;

D. DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE DISK TO 2;

Correct Answer: D

Configuring Backup Duplexing You can use the CONFIGURE … BACKUP COPIES command to specify how many copies of each backup piece should be created on the specified device type for the specified type of file. This type of backup is known as a duplexed backup set. The CONFIGURE settings for duplexing only affect backups of datafiles, control files, and archived logs into backup sets, and do not affect image copies. NOT A The CONFIGURE MAXSETSIZE command limits the size of backup sets created on a channel. This CONFIGURE setting applies to any channel, whether manually allocated or configured, when the BACKUP command is used to create backup sets. The default value is given in bytes and is rounded down to the lowest kilobyte value. Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmconfa.htm#BRADV137


Question 15:

Which three types of failures are detected by the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA)?

A. loss of a non-critical data file

B. loss of a control file

C. physical data block corruption

D. logical data block corruption

E. loss of an archived redo log file

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmrepai.htm#BRADV89716