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Question 1:

Which configuration item accepts named VLANs as a parameter? (Select three )

A. RADIUS Server attributes for role derivation

B. Authentication Server attributes for server derivation

C. User Role for single VLAN

D. Port trunk configuration

E. Firewall session rule

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 2:

Which AP Group configuration feature should be enabled on an Aruba Mobility Controller to support client last roaming?

A. Fast BSS Transition

B. Client Match

C. Fast Connect

D. Fast Adaptive Transition

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An administrator implements a WLAN virtual AP (VAP) to authenticate employee access on Aruba Mobility Controller in a master-local topology. However, when testing wireless access from a Windows client the administrator sees the pop-up window show in the exhibit:

What should the administrator do to solve this problem?

A. Add a client certificate from the same CA used to obtain the controller\’s certificate on the Windows client.

B. Add the root certificate for the corresponding controller identity certificate on the windows client.

C. Configure the client\’s certificate as a trusted certificate on the Windows client.

D. Define the controller\’s certificate as a trusted certificate on the windows client.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

An administrator plans to deploy a Remote AP (RAP) for a new branch office. The AP Group will have one Virtual AP (VAP) profile for guests and one VAP profile for employees. All employee traffic will be sent to the corporate office. The guest traffic should be forwarded directly to the internet from the RAP.

Which RAP operating mode should the administrator configure for the guest VAP?

A. Bridge

B. Tunnel

C. Source NAT

D. Split-Tunnel

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: http://www.airheads.eu/aruba/attachments/aruba/Aruba- VRDs/44/1/Aruba RAP VRD.pdf


Question 5:

What does an AP in Hybrid Spectrum mode do?

A. Puts the selected band in spectrum mode and services clients on the other band.

B. has all Aps in AP-group scan home channel and service clients.

C. countries to serve clients as an AP while it scans and analyzes traffic

D. makes the AP a spectrum monitor, but does not affect other Aps in the AP-group.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Refer to Exhibit: A company deploys centralized licensing with centralized licensing redundancy. An administrator verifies that the centralized licensing is operational. Local controllers obtain licensing from the centralized license servers. The current network environment consists of:

*

79 Aps connected to the three local controllers.

*

64 Aps connected to the 3600 controller.

*

15 Aps connected to the two 7010 controller.

The activity and standby license servers were inadvertently connected to the same power source. The power source fails one day. The administrator then adds a newly purchased AP to the network while the license servers are still down. The

new AP then boots up and attempts to connect to the 3600 local controller.

What happens to this AP?

A. The 3600 uses the hardware-based AP license to allow the AP to associate to the controller.

B. the 3600 fails to obtain the correct licensing and will not allow the AP to associate to the controller.

C. the 3600 uses its own local software licensing to allow the AP to associate to the controller.

D. The available license count is reset and the 3600 obtains the correct licensing from the new active licensing server.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An administrator installs a new Remote AP (RAP) at a branch office. This RAP will connect to the corporate office\’s Aruba Mobility Controller in the DMZ from across the internet. The administrator will need to make some rule changes on the firewall to allow for this connectivity.

Which protocol or protocols will the administrator have to permit on the firewall for the RAP to successfully connect to and send users wireless 802.1x data to the corporate office?

A. IPSec/NAT-T and PAPI, but not GRE

B. GRE, but not IPSec/NAT-T or PAPI

C. IPSEC/NAT-T, but not GRE or PAPI

D. PAPI and GRE, but not IPSec/NAT-T

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

As an administrator user which type of role based management users can be created on Aruba controllers that have no access to CLI commands?

A. Supporting-Generation user

B. Maintenance user

C. network-operation user

D. Airwave Management user.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which description of the adaptive Radio Management (ARM) spectrum Load Balancing feature is accurate? (Select two) A. It is enabled by default.

B. It only affects the association of new clients.

C. It is available only on 5GHz radios.

D. It is disabled by default.

E. It is available only on 2.4 GHz radios.

Correct Answer: BD

Explanation: http://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_60/UserGuide/ARM.php


Question 10:

An administrator configures a Virtual AP (VAP) profile for an AP Group Which profiles must the administrator reference in the VAP configuration so that the VAP is functional and the WLAN can be used to connect wireless users to the network? (Select two.)

A. AAA

B. Radio Settings

C. SSID

D. VLAN Profile

E. System Profile

Correct Answer: AC

http://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_64_Web_Help/Content/ArubaFrameSty les/VirtualAPs/Virtual_AP_Profiles.htm


Question 11:

What does Adaptive Radio Management (ARM) allow controllers to provision?

A. Optimal channels and power settings for Aps

B. lower power when unauthorized Aps are detected

C. configured radio bands

D. radio type of the AP

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

An administrator sets up a captive portal tor guest access with these specifications:

*

VLAN 18 for the guest users will terminate on the controller and will not extend into the corporate network.

*

Aps that advertise the guest SSID will tunnel traffic to the controller, and the controller will authenticate the users.

*

Once the users are authenticated, the user traffic will be translated to a different VLAN before it is forwarded to the corporate network to reach the internet.

When the administrator sets up this solution, the users fails to see the captive portal web page for authentication and cannot access the internet. The administrator determines the problem is that the guest VLAN does not have any ports associated to it on the controller.

Which CLI command should the administrator implement to resolve the issue?

A. interface vlan 19 no shutdown

B. vlan 18 operstate up

C. vlan 18 enable

D. interface blan 19 operstate up.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

An administrator purchases some new Aps for branch offices. Currently the Aps at the branch offices connect to local Aruba Mobility Controller at the corporate office across a private WAN. The network is managed with the Aruba AirWave management platform. The administrator wants to ensure that when the new Aps are plugged in and booked up the Aps can automatically discover and register with the AirWave server and obtain AP Group configuration.

Which Aruba tool should the administrator use?

A. Clearpass

B. Activate

C. Central

D. Meridan

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

An administrator currently has one Aruba Mobility Controller in the network. Because of the company\’s rapid growth, the administrator plans to purchase three additional controllers that will be configured in a local operating mode. The administrator wants to protect the messages between the existing master controller and three local controllers.

Which Aruba Mobility controller feature needs to be configured to provide this protection?

A. Control Plane Security (CPSec)

B. Domain controls

C. IPSec tunnels

D. Digital certificates

Correct Answer: C

Topic 2, Main Pool Questions Set B


Question 15:

Which ARM feature addresses the issue of sticky clients by moving clients to associate to APs with better 802.11 signal quality?

A. Co-Channel interference mitigation

B. Airtime Fairness

C. ClientMatch

D. Coordinated access to a single channel

E. Band Steering

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

In Pega Customer Decision HubTM, the characteristics of an action are defined by using

A. properties

B. logos

C. plain text

D. banners

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

To calculate the total number of customer responses of four actions in a group, you must use________________.

A. four Group By components

B. one Group By component

C. four Set Property components

D. one Set Property component

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

MyCo, a telecom company, wants to present their customers on Facebook with customer- centric mobile internet offers. What action must MyCo take to meet this business requirement?

A. Place a paid ad

B. Make a call

C. Send an email

D. Create a Facebook post

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

MyCo, a telecom company, wants to send promotional emails to give away phone accessories. The accessories can only be given away in batches of 50. When the stock in a batch is completed, a new batch can be promoted again.

You have decided to use volume constraint to limit the number of actions in a batch. To meet the business requirement, what Reset Interval setting do you select?

A. When accessed

B. Manual

C. Daily

D. Reset Interval does not matter for this scenario

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

U Bank wants to offer credit cards only to low-risk customers. The customers are divided into various risk segments from Good to Very Poor. The risk segmentation rules that the business provides use the Average Balance and the customer Credit Score.

As a decisioning consultant, you decide to use a decision table and a decision strategy to accomplish this requirement in Pega Customer Decision HubTM.

Using the decision table, which label is returned for a customer with a credit score of 240 and an average balance 35000?

A. Fair

B. Good

C. Very Poor

D. Poor

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

MyCo, a telecom company, introduced fiber optic service in the northern region of the country. They want to advertise this service on their website by using a banner and target the customers living in that area.

What do you need to configure in the Next-Best-Action Designer to implement this requirement?

A. Applicability rules

B. Audience

C. Prioritization formula

D. Customer segment

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

The following decision strategy outputs the most profitable shoe a retailer can sell. The profit is the selling Price of the shoe, minus the Cost to acquire the shoe.

The details of the shoes are provided in the following table:

What is the number of outputs that each component has?

A. Set-Property=1, Results=4

B. Set-Property=4, Results=4

C. Set-Property=1, Results=1

D. Set-Property=4, Results=1

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

U Bank, a retail bank, follows all engagement policy best practices to present credit card offers on their website. The bank has introduced a new credit card offer, the Rewards card. Anna, an existing customer, currently holds a higher value card. Premier Rewards, and does not see the new Rewards card offer.

What condition possibly prevents Anna from seeing the new Rewards card offer?

A. Applicability

B. Suppression rules

C. Suitability

D. Eligibility

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

As a decisioning consultant, you advise the board on the business issues for which they must use the Next-Best-Action strategy.

Which three business issues do you recommend? (Choose Three)

A. Collections

B. Service

C. Retention

D. Resource Planning

E. Accounting

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 10:

U Bank wants to offer credit cards only to low-risk customers. The customers are divided into various risk segments from Good to Very Poor. The risk segmentation rules that the business provides use the Average Balance and the customer Credit Score.

As a decisioning consultant, you decide to use a decision table and a decision strategy to accomplish this requirement in Pega Customer Decision HubTM.

Which property allows you to use the risk segment computed by the decision table in the decision strategy?

A. pxOutcome

B. pxResu/t

C. pxSegment

D. pxRiskSegment

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

MyCo, a telecom company, notices that when customers call to check on bill status, 80% of the time, they received the wrong offer promotion, leading to customer dissatisfaction. The company decides to boost customers\’ needs in the prioritization formula, to improve sales in the current quarter.

Which arbitration factor do you configure to implement the requirement?

A. Context weighting

B. Propensity

C. Business weighting

D. Action value

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

MyCo, a mobile company, uses Pega Customer Decision HubTM to display offers to customers on its website. The company wants to present more relevant offers to customers based on customer behavior. The following diagram is the action hierarchy in the Next- Best-Action Designer.

The company wants to present offers from both the groups and arbitrate across the two groups to select the best offer based on customer behavior. As a decisioning consultant, what must you do to present offers from the two groups?

A. Enable an engagement policy for the second group.

B. Set contact limits for both the groups.

C. Map a real-time container to the Top-level or Issue-level.

D. Create a decision strategy at the Issue-level.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

U Bank wants to offer credit cards only to customers with a low-risk profile. The customers are divided into various risk segments from AAA to CCC. The risk segmentation rules that the business provides use the Age and the customer Credit Score based on the following table. The bank uses a scorecard model to determine the customer Credit Score.

As a decisioning consultant, how do you implement the business requirement?

A. Add the risk segmentation rules in the Results tab of the scorecard rule.

B. Add a decision table to a decision strategy and pass the credit score as the parameter.

C. Add a decision table to a decision strategy and reference it in the scorecard component. D. Add three contact policies that correspond to the three risk segments.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

U Bank, a retail bank, wants to send promotional emails related to credit card offers to their qualified customers. The business intends to use the same action flow template with the desired flow pattern for all the credit card actions.

What do you configure to implement this requirement?

A. Output template

B. Dynamic template

C. File template

D. Email treatment

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

U Bank has recently introduced a few mortgage offers that are presented to qualified customers on its website. The business now wants to prevent offer overexposure, as overexposure negatively impacts the customer experience.

Select the correct suppression rule for the requirement: If a customer is presented on the website with the same offer five times in the last 14 days, do not show the same offer to that customer for the next 10 days.

A. Suppress an action for 10 days if there are five impressions for any channel in the last 14 days

B. Suppress a group of actions for 10 days if there are five impressions for any channel in the last 10 days

C. Suppress an action for 10 days if there are five impressions for web channel in the last 14 days

D. Suppress an action for 14 days if there are five rejects for web channel in the last 10 days

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Directly connected to the specified port of the peer device, does not forward any packets, but which port is the port that receives BPDUs to monitor network changes?

A. Root Port

B. Designated Port

C. Alternate Port

D. Disable Port

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Among the following IP addresses, which IPs can\’t be obtained by a PC via DHCP? (multiple choice)

A. 224.0.0.1

B. 10.0.1.128/25

C. 169.254.136.228

D. 12.2.2.3/30

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 3:

Which of the following is the correct description of the configuration BPDU generation? (multiple choice)

A. As long as the port is enabled with STP, the configuration BPDU will be sent from the designated port at regular intervals.

B. When the root port receives the configuration BPDU, the device where the root port resides will copy a configuration BPDU to each of its designated ports.

C. When the designated port receives a configuration BPDU that is worse than itself, it will immediately send its own BPDU to the downstream device.

D. The topology of the non-root bridge changes. The BPDU is notified by configuring the BPDU.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 4:

Asynchronous Response Mode (ARM) is a way of allowing any node to initiate a transfer.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following is the Ethernet_II frame structure?

A. Source MAC destination MAC protocol type data FCS

B. Destination MAC source MAC protocol type data FCS

C. Source MAC destination MAC packet length data FCS

D. Destination MAC source MAC packet length data FCS

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is the correct statement about free ARP? (multiple choice)

A. By sending a free ARP, you can confirm whether the IP address has a conflict.

B. The free ARP packet format belongs to the AR request packet.

C. Free ARP helps update old IP address information

D. The free ARP packet format belongs to the ARP reply packet.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 7:

Similar to the OSI model, the TCP/IP model also uses a hierarchical structure. Is the TCP/IP model divided into several levels?

A. Four

B. Five

C. Six

D. Seven

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

If there is a routing loop in the network, then the packet will be forwarded on the loop link until the loop is eliminated.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following statements about Frame Relay is correct? (multiple choice)

A. DLCI is only valid on the local interface and the peer interface directly connected to it.

B. PVC is a virtual connection that can only be established between DCEs

C. The frame relay address mapping table stores the mapping relationship between the peer IP address and the DLCI of the next hop.

D. The reverse address resolution protocol can obtain the corresponding DLCI through the peer IP.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 10:

A permanent virtual circuit is to provide a fixed virtual circuit to the user. Once the circuit is established, the link water is valid, unless the administrator manually deletes it. PVC is used for frequent and stable traffic transmission between the two ends.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

In VRP, what are the following statements about RIP route aggregation?

A. RIP V1 supports route aggregation by default. You can disable route aggregation when needed.

B. RIP V2 supports off route aggregation.

C. RIP V1 does not support CIDR

D. RIP V2 supports subnet route aggregation

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 12:

How many insulated copper wires are discharged together and then twisted together in a regular way to form a twisted pair?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 8

D. 16

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which configuration method can be used to add the trunk port ethernet0/1 of the switch to VLAN 4? (multiple choice)

A. [Switch]vlan 4 [Switch-vlan4]port ethernet 0/1

B. [Switch]vlan 4 [Switch-Ethernet0/1]port trunk pvid vlan 4

C. [Switch]vlan 4 [Switch-vlan4]port trunk ethernet 0/1

D. [Switch]vlan 4 [Switch -Ethernet0/1]port trunk permit vlan 4

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 14:

Regarding the process of terminal users accessing the Internet, what are the correct descriptions below? (multiple choice)

A. The user initiates an Internet access request, and the Layer 2 device of the access network establishes a Layer 2 connection for the user and transparently transmits the request to the upper BRAS device.

B. The access network does not control the user, but simply establishes a Layer 2 connection to transparently transmit user information to the upper device.

C. SR is responsible for the authentication, authorization, and assignment of IP addresses to users.

D. After the user authentication succeeds, the BRAS routes the user packet to the upstream device, that is, the aggregation layer device.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 15:

What is the packet that the STP downstream device uses to notify the upstream device that the network topology changes?

A. Agency BPDU

B. TCN BPDU

C. Discover BPDUs

D. Reverse BPDU

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program\’s shared libraries?

A. LD_LOAD_PATH

B. LD_LIB_PATH

C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH

D. LD_SHARE_PATH

E. LD_RUN_PATH

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the administrator\’s fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?

A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom

B. mount /dev/cdrom

C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom

D. mount /mnt/cdrom

E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search for foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH?

A. locate

B. which

C. find

D. query

E. whereis

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which of the following Linux filesy stems pre-allocates a fixed number of in odes at filesy stems? make/creation time, and does NOT generate them as needed?

A. ext3

B. jfs

C. reiserfs

D. xfs

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

An administrator is having some trouble with a disk partition and needs to do maintenance on this partition. The administrator\’s users home directories are on it and several are logged in. Which of the following commands would disconnect the users and allow the administrator to safely execute maintenance tasks?

A. telinit 1

B. shutdown -r now

C. killall -9 inetd

D. /bin/netstop –maint

E. /etc/rc.d/init.d/network stop

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

All of the following commands will execute the bash script /usr/local/bin/runme.sh EXCEPT:

A. source /usr/local/bin/runme.sh

B. . /usr/local/bin/runme.sh

C. /bin/bash /usr/local/bin/runme.sh

D. /usr/local/bin/runme.sh

E. run /usr/local/bin/runme.sh

Correct Answer: E


Question 7:

Which of the following does the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard enable? (Select TWO).

A. Software to predict the location of installed files and directories.

B. Software to predict the ownership and access rights to files and directories.

C. Users to predict the location of installed files and directories.

D. Users to predict how the filesystem should be formatted according to need.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 8:

Which of the following chown commands will change the ownership to foo and the group to bar on a file named biglist?

A. chown foo/bar biglist

B. chown -u foo -g bar biglist

C. chown foo:bar biglist

D. chown –user foo –group bar biglist

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

An administrator is trying to make a hard link to an ordinary file but ln returns an error. Which of the following could cause this?

A. The source file is hidden.

B. The source file is read-only.

C. The source file is a shell script.

D. The administrator does not own the source file.

E. The source and the target are on different filesystems.

Correct Answer: E


Question 10:

For which of the following can the tee command be used?

A. Print the contents of a file in reverse order.

B. Use the output of one command as arguments to another.

C. Add line numbers to the output of a command.

D. Pipe the output of one command into the input of another.

E. Send a command\’s output to stdout and a to file at the same time.

Correct Answer: E


Question 11:

In bash, inserting 1>and2 after a command redirects:

A. standard error to standard input.

B. standard input to standard error.

C. standard output to standard error.

D. standard error to standard output.

E. standard output to standard input.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

An administrator has created a really long letter and after the administrator is done, notices that the name “Bob” has been used many times. The administrator forgot to capitalize it in many instances. Which of the following commands would replace “bob” with “Bob” in all instances and generate a new letter for printing?

A. sed \’/bob/Bob\’ letter > newletter

B. sed s/bob/Bob/ letter < newletter

C. sed \’s/bob/Bob\’ letter > newletter

D. sed \’s/bob/Bob/g\’ letter > newletter

E. sed \’s/bob, Bob/\’ letter > newletter

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which of the following RPM commands will output the name of the package which installed the file /etc/exports?

A. rpm -F /etc/exports

B. rpm -qf /etc/exports

C. rpm -Kl /etc/exports

D. rpm -qp /etc/exports

E. rpm -qi /etc/exports

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which of the following commands will print the inode usage on each mounted filesystem?

A. du -i

B. df -i

C. lsfs -i

D. printfs -i

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following files should be edited to select the network locations from which Debian installation package files are loaded?

A. /etc/dpkg/dpkg.cfg

B. /etc/apt/apt.conf

C. /etc/apt/apt.conf.d

D. /etc/apt/sources.list

E. /etc/dpkg/dselect.cfg

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

A user calls the helpdesk to report that their local printer is not printing any of the jobs that have been submitted this morning. Other users in the vicinity are not having any issues printing to the same unit via the network. The user in question

connects to the printer over USB cable that connects to a laptop dock.

Which of the following is MOST likely at fault here?

A. The user\’s dock has a power problem with its built-in USB port(s).

B. The printer only supports USB 2.0 and the user has a USB 3.0 enabled dock.

C. The printer accidentally had its onboard wired network jack disabled.

D. Other users are overloading the printer causing it to run out of memory.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

A network DHCP server crashes and has to be rebuilt from scratch. Shortly afterwards many users report an “Address Conflict” alert on their computers. Which of the following tools should the users run to help fix this issue?

A. route

B. ipconfig

C. netstat

D. nbtstat

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A loud clicking noise in a RAID array indicates which of the following is MOST likely failing?

A. Hard drive

B. Power supply

C. Audio adapter

D. RAID controller

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which of the following can a technician implement to ensure that only company owned mobile devices can connect to the wireless network?

A. Deploy a script to auto-configure employees\’ mobile devices wireless settings.

B. Configure MAC address filtering on the access points.

C. Implement a wireless policy and train all users.

D. Enable WPA2-Personal with a strong password.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A technician, Joe, is running a diagnostic program on a laptop when it shuts down after running for 10 minutes. Which of the following should he do before disassembling the laptop?

A. Use compressed air to blow the dust out of all the fans

B. Hard reset the computer and attempt to boot it into the operating system

C. Run CHKDSK on the laptop\’s hard drive

D. Remove the battery and re-run the diagnostic program

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Ann, a technician, is taking apart a laptop to replace some components. Which of the following will allow Ann to put the laptop back together properly and in a timely fashion?

A. Have an identical laptop on hand to compare

B. Label screws and their location

C. Use a magnetic screwdriver

D. Ask a fellow technician to help

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A user has a remote share that requires them to authenticate with a different set of credentials. Which of the following commands could a technician use to map this share?

A. TRACERT

B. NET USE

C. NSLOOKUP

D. NETSTAT

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A user claims that they recently had a virus infection and even after the infection was cleared, the user\’s web browser is still redirected to the same incorrect website when it is opened. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A. Verify that the browser\’s cookies have been cleared.

B. Run an IPCONFIG /FLUSHDNS.

C. Check that the browser version is the latest release.

D. Run an IPCONFIG /ALL and verify the correct DHCP server.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A user\’s computer consistently shuts down several minutes after booting. When the technician reboots the computer, a message stating “CPU fan failure” appears. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the computer shuts down?

A. Overheating

B. Power supply failure

C. Faulty CPU

D. High humidity

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

A technician recently installed a new video card in a PC. The PC already has integrated video on the motherboard. When the technician turns on the PC, there is no video. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. The motherboard BIOS version is out of date.

B. The incorrect video card drivers are installed.

C. The power connector for the video card is unplugged.

D. The video card is unsupported by the motherboard.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A user\’s CRT display is not displaying colors correctly. Turning the display to the right or left sometimes temporarily corrects the problem. Which of the following should the technician check?

A. The video card display driver

B. The CRT power cable

C. The video cable

D. The CRT On Screen Display (OSD)

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A user calls the helpdesk and states that they suddenly cannot connect to the Internet or any other network resources. The user is on a company network that uses DHCP. The technician runs IPCONFIG from the command prompt and the PC has an IP address of 0.0.0.0. Which of the following steps should the technician perform FIRST to troubleshoot this issue?

A. Check the network cable

B. Replace network card

C. Assign a static IP address

D. Reinstall the network drivers

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A technician is repairing a workstation that exhibits random reboots at odd times of the day. Which of the following should be performed FIRST when troubleshooting the issue? (Select TWO).

A. Check the PSU integrity

B. Check the CMOS battery

C. Check the video card integrity

D. Check the memory integrity

E. Check the optical drive integrity

Correct Answer: AD


Question 14:

A technician notices a computer is overheating after 30 minutes of use. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. Clogged temporary file folders

B. Internal dust buildup

C. Incorrect input voltage setting

D. ACPI is disabled

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A technician is having boot issues with a newly built PC, and notices the following jumper configurations for each PATA device:

HARD DRIVE. MASTER OPTICAL DRIVE. CABLE SELECT

Which of the following jumper configurations should be used instead?

A. HDD. Cable Select; Optical Drive. Master

B. HDD. Cable Select; Optical Drive. Cable Select

C. HDD. Slave; Optical Drive. Slave

D. HDD. Master; Optical Drive. Master

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

When an SSID is configured with Sign-On Splash page enabled, which two settings must be configured for unauthenticated clients to have full network access and not be allow listed? (Choose two.)

A. Controller disconnection behavior

B. Captive Portal strength

C. Simultaneous logins

D. Firewall and traffic shaping

E. RADIUS for splash page settings

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/Access_Control


Question 2:

Which design requirement is met by implementing syslog versus SNMP?

A. when automation capabilities are needed

B. when proactive alerts for critical events must be generated

C. when organization-wide information must be collected

D. when information such as flows and client connectivity must be gathered

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Monitoring_and_Reporting/Meraki_Device_Reporting_-_Syslog,_SNMP,_and_API


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. The VPN concentrator is experiencing issues. Which action should be taken to ensure a stable environment?

A. Add a deny any/any firewall rule to the end of the firewall rules.

B. Remove the connection from Internet 1.

C. Physically disconnect all LAN ports.

D. Configure the MX appliance to Routed mode on the Addressing and VLANS page.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. A packet arrives on the VPN concentrator with source IP 10.168.70.3 and destined for IP 10.116.32.4. What is the next hop for the packet, based on this concentrator routing table?

A. The concentrator gateway (10.128.124.62) is the next hop.

B. Not enough detail is available to determine the next hop.

C. The packet is stopped.

D. The Auto VPN peer “Store 1532 ?appliance” is the next hop.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Company iPads are enrolled in Systems Manager without supervision, and profiles are pushed through Systems Manager. Which outcome occurs when a user attempts to remove the “Meraki Management” profile on an iPad?

A. The “Meraki Management” profile cannot be removed.

B. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed and then pushed automatically by Systems Manager.

C. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles that Systems Manager pushed are also removed.

D. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles Systems Manager pushed remain.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which two features and functions are supported when using an MX appliance in Passthrough mode? (Choose two.)

A. intrusion prevention

B. site-to-site VPN

C. secondary uplinks

D. DHCP

E. high availability

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Networks_and_Routing/Passthrough_Mode_on_the_MX_Security_Appliance_and_Z-series_Teleworker_Gateway


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. What are the Loss and Average Latency statistics based on?

A. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing hostnames on the Insight > Web App Health page

B. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Security and SD-WAN > Firewall page

C. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP address that is configured on the Security and SD-WAN > SD-WAN and Traffic Shaping page

D. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Help > Firewall info page

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

In an organization that uses the Co-Termination licensing model, which two operations enable licenses to be applied? (Choose two.)

A. Renew the Dashboard license.

B. License a network.

C. License more devices.

D. Call Meraki support.

E. Wait for the devices to auto-renew.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Co-Termination_Licensing_Overview


Question 9:

Which two Systems Manager Live tools are available only for Apple Macs and Windows PCs and cannot be used on iOS or Android mobile devices? (Choose two.)

A. OS updates

B. Send notification

C. Selective wipe

D. Screenshot

E. Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/SM/Other_Topics/Systems_Manager_FAQ


Question 10:

What are two ways peers interact with ports that Auto VPN uses? (Choose two.)

A. For IPsec tunneling, peers use high UDP ports within the 32768 to 61000 range.

B. Peers contact the VPN registry at UDP port 9350.

C. For IPsec tunneling, peers use high TCP ports within the 32768 to 61000 range.

D. Peers contact the VPN registry at TCP port 9350.

E. For IPsec tunneling, peers use UDP ports 500 and 4500.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Site-to-site_VPN/Meraki_Auto_VPN_-_Configuration_and_Troubleshooting


Question 11:

What occurs when a configuration change is made to an MX network that is bound to a configuration template?

A. The configuration change in the bound network is combined with the template configuration inside the template.

B. The more restrictive configuration is preferred.

C. The configuration change in the bound network overrides the template configuration.

D. The template configuration overrides the configuration change in the bound network.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Templates_and_Config_Sync/Managing_Multiple_Networks_with_Configuration_Templates


Question 12:

One thousand concurrent users stream video to their laptops. A 30/70 split between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz is used. Based on client count, how many APs (rounded to the nearest whole number) are needed?

A. 26

B. 28

C. 30

D. 32

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. For an AP that displays this alert, which network access control method must be in use?

A. preshared key

B. WPA2-enterprise with my RADIUS server

C. splash page with my RADIUS server

D. MAC-based access control with RADIUS server

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which Meraki Dashboard menu section is accessed to enable Sentry enrollment on an SSID?

A. Wireless > Configure > Access Control

B. Wireless > Configure > Splash page

C. Wireless > Configure > Firewall and Traffic Shaping

D. Wireless > Configure > SSIDs

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/MR_Splash_Page/Systems_Manager_Sentry_Enrollment


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. This Dashboard organization uses Co-Termination licensing model.

What happens when an additional seven APs are claimed on this network without adding licenses?

A. All APs immediately stop functioning.

B. All network devices stop functioning in 30 days.

C. One AP Immediately stops functioning.

D. All APs stop functioning in 30 days.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Match the log file name with the CyberArk Component that generates the log.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

In version 10.7 the correct order of installation for components changed. Make the necessary corrections to the list below to show the new installation order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

The vault does not support Role Based Access Control

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

The Remote Desktop Services role must be property licensed by Microsoft.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

One can create exceptions to the Master Policy based on_________.

A. Safes

B. Platforms

C. Policies

D. Accounts

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following statements are NOT true when enabling PSM recording for a target Windows server? Choose all that apply

A. The PSM software must be installed on the target server

B. PSM must be enabled in the Master Policy {either directly, or through exception).

C. PSMConnect must be added as a local user on the target server

D. RDP must be enabled on the target server

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

It is possible to disable the Show and Copy buttons without removing the Retrieve permission on a safe.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

During LDAP/S integration you should specify the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) of the Domain Controller

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which Master Policy?

A. Password Expiration Time

B. Enabling and Disabling of the Connection Through the PSM

C. Password Complexity

D. The use of “One-Time-Passwords”

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

When on-boarding accounts using Accounts Feed. Which of the following is true”?

A. You must specify an existing Safe where the account will be stored when it is on-boarded to the Vault.

B. You can specify the name of a new safe that will be created where the account will be stored when it is on-boarded to the Vault.

C. You can specify the name of a new Platform that will be created and associated with the account.

D. Any account that is on-boarded can be automatically reconciled regardless of the platform it is

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

The Vault Internal safe contains the configuration for an LDAP integration

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What is the purpose of the Allowed Safes parameter in a CPM policy? Select all that apply.

A. To improve performance by reducing CPU workload.

B. To prevent accidental use of a policy in the wrong safe.

C. To allow users to access only the passwords they should be able to access.

D. To enforce Least Privilege in CyberArk.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 13:

The Vault Internal safe contains all of the configuration for the vault.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

One time passwords reduce the risk of Pass the Hash vulnerabilities in Windows

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What are the operating system prerequisites for installing CPM? Select all that apply.

A. NET 3.51 Framework Feature

B. Web Services Role

C. Remote Desktop Services Role

D. Windows 2008 R2 or higher

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

The following are reasons why access to information is key. Which is not an ICM OOTB capability?

A. Capture and activation of information in the context of a case

B. Access to web based news sources

C. Access to critical content for decisions, as evidence in a case and as a source for deeper insights

D. Virtually 360-degree view of case information

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

In Malaysia Bii Maybank eliminated the time it takes to open a new account and dramatically increased customer satisfaction in the process. By how much did Bii Maybank reduce account opening time?

A. 22 percent

B. 33 percent

C. 41 percent

D. 60 percent

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What is Content Manager OnDemand “optimized” for?

A. Workflows

B. Content Analytics

C. Individual documents

D. Large scale storage of print output

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

If a bank eliminates daily courier pickups by scanning documents in the branch, approximately how many US dollars will it save per branch per day?

A. 3 dollars

B. 40 dollars

C. 70 dollars

D. 120 dollars

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which is not a “Top of Mind” need for case interested executives?

A. Effectiveness of core LOB applications

B. Providing comprehensive visibility into process metrics, spend and customer satisfaction

C. Increasing IT spending

D. Adhering to regulatory compliance and maintaining proper controls and records

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

What percentage of CIOs is making plans to focus on mobility?

A. 84%

B. 50%

C. 27%

D. 5%

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which IBM bundle comes with Content Navigator?

A. IBM Content Foundation

B. IBM Connections ContentManager

C. IBM Connections Enterprise Content Edition

D. A and C

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

IBM Case Manager includes key differentiators across the competition including:

A. Based on an industry leading BRMS (business rules) platform

B. Rapid time-to-value with template support and a LOB based design environment

C. Based on an industry leading collaboration platform

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which is a key benefit of the Legacy Data Cleanup Solution?

A. Identifies sensitive or toxic content

B. Archives data according to its value

C. Maintains a data map of the organization

D. Is a DoD 5015.2 certified recordsrepository

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following Datacap features help to eliminate expensive, error-prone manual data entry problems associated with document imaging?

A. Keyword search

B. Optical character recognition (OCR) and text analytics

C. Math calculations

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

How does Datacap software assure that a new application has been entirely filled-in?

A. Datacap verification checks can review that data is populated in all key fields. If missing, it sends an email to branch personnel before the customer has left the branch

B. Datacap sends the file overseas to a team of verifiers who comb through each application

C. Datacap rules will not allow a document to be scanned unless it is filled in

D. Datacap provides a step-by-step guide for the customer to follow when filling in the form

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which of the following is not considered a “top of mind” consideration for implementing Value Based Archiving?

A. Reducing the risk potential for sharing sensitive, inappropriate, or private information

B. Finding “smoking gun” emails before they can be used against you

C. Elimination of redundant, obsolete, and trivial content

D. Capturing email for compliance and legal purposes

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Who are the 5 information stakeholders within an organization represented in the Information Governance Reference Model (IGRM)?

A. Legal,RIM,IT, Business and Privacy/Security

B. Legal, IT,Facilities,Business and RIM

C. Legal,Business,C-Suite, IT and Privacy/Security

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following increases the cost and complexity of the collection process?

A. Employees undertaking their own collection process without organizational authorization.

B. The migration of enterprise data to unsecured personal mobile devices.

C. Arduous chain-of-custody documentation on diverse data sources, collection methods and rising information volumes.

D. Intensive post-review computational analysis.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality?

A. To protect the camera electronics

B. To protect the camera mechanics

C. To protect the camera lens

D. To protect the camera power

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in popularity because

A. There is more energy in DC.

B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.

C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.

D. There is less risk for surge with DC.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)

A. AXIS M3114-R

B. AXIS P3304-VR

C. AXIS P1344-E

D. AXIS P3344-VE

E. AXIS M1031-W

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video at any time?

A. AXIS Camera Station

B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)

C. AXIS Camera Management

D. AXIS Media Control

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Axis recommends shielded cables for outdoor installations primarily to ensure

A. Image quality.

B. Surge protection.

C. Life time of cable installations.

D. Conformity with SMPTE standard.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?

A. Image contrast

B. White balance

C. Color saturation

D. Image brightness

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact on recorded video during server maintenance?

A. Local storage at the camera

B. Meta data stream

C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)

D. SNMP

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely setting to address the blurring?

A. Gain level

B. Brightness

C. Backlight compensation

D. Shutter speed

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?

A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates

B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity

C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting

D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between three predefined positions?

A. Configure the camera\’s I/O ports to control the preset positions

B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions

C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick

D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which of the following conditions has to be met to use multicast streaming?

A. The network infrastructure has to support multicast

B. The client has to run AXIS Camera Management or AXIS Camera Station

C. The client has to support streaming over RTSP

D. The video device needs to run on firmware version 5.20 or higher

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

In order to comply with SMPTE standards of HDTV, the camera must meet the following:

A. Light sensitivity, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity

B. Aspect ratio, resolution, light sensitivity, frame rate

C. Light sensitivity, color fidelity, frame rate, aspect ratio

D. Frame rate, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

The Axis pixel counter allows a user to

A. Convert pixels to actual distances.

B. Verify that the resolution requirements for a scene are met.

C. Determine the file size for each video frame.

D. Specify different exposure zones in a scene.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

If a camera is pointed down a hallway with no windows and the color seems “washed out” or faded, which of the following settings should first be adjusted to improve the image?

A. Decrease image brightness

B. Increase image contrast

C. Uncheck backlight compensation

D. Adjust the exposure settings

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

In a switched network with Unicast

A. Data packets are sent only to one recipient no other computers will receive the data.

B. Data packets can only be sent in one direction, for example from the camera to the server.

C. Only one camera at a time can send data packets through the network, to avoid congestion.

D. All data packets are transmitted in a unified size, enabling network optimization.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

You have a subscription to Dynamics 365 for Marketing.

You need to recommend which analytics tools should be used for each channel measured by your subscription.

Which analytics tools should be used for seeing the data by contact or by lead? Each tool may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

You are responsible for all outgoing marketing emails at Contoso, Ltd.

You are tasked with the best practices aimed at increasing delivery and interaction rates.

Which question is answered by the email insight statistic listed? To answer, drag the email statistic to the question answered by that statistic. Each statistic may be used one, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar

between panes or scroll to view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

DRAG DROP

You are creating a survey using a Dynamics 365 for Marketing Surveys. You need to include multiple question types.

Which survey question types presents the best choice for each scenario/example presented? To answer, drag the appropriate survey question to the scenario/example. Each survey question type may be used once, more than once or not at

all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-of-customer/plan-survey


Question 4:

DRAG DROP

You are setting up a conference event that will have a capacity of 500 people.

You want to enable a waitlist for the event so that if more than 500 people register and someone cancels their registration, the event will automatically register the next available person on the list.

Which three steps should you take, in sequence, to complete your task? (Choose three.) To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/event-waitlist


Question 5:

DRAG DROP You have been asked to create a report that shows your company\’s customer journeys by status reason. Which Status Reasons correspond to the descriptions? To answer, drag the appropriate Status Reason to the correct description. Each Status Reason may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar

between panes or scroll to view the content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/go-live


Question 6:

DRAG DROP

You have been asked to create a customer journey that meets this goal: Send an email to all cat owners, then follow up with a text message to those contacts who opened the email, waiting one day between actions.

Which five actions should you perform, in sequence, to meet the requirements? (Choose five.) To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

DRAG DROP

The VP of Marketing has been assigned to create you a new lead scoring model for Contoso, Ltd. based on recently-adopted marketing targets.

Which five steps in sequence are required to design and set up your lead scoring model in Dynamics 365? (Choose five.) To answer, move the appropriate actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/score-manage-leads


Question 8:

DRAG DROP

You want to create a method that will alert sales people when a lead is ready to be sold to.

This method should automatically move the lead to the Sales-Acceptance stage of the lead life-cycle.

Which four steps must you take, in order to complete your task? (Choose four.) To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/set-up-lead-scoring


Question 9:

DRAG DROP

You are creating a lead scoring model.

You need to set up scoring, based on both explicit data and implicit data.

Which scenario represents the appropriate data type? To answer, drag each scenario to the appropriate data type. Each data type may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to

view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://community.dynamics.com/crm/b/zsoltzombiksblog/archive/2016/03/06/lead-scoring-rules-and-examples-in-microsoft-dynamics-marketing


Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Your marketing department purchases a file with a list of leads.

Which actions should you perform, in sequence, in order to be able to add these leads to a marketing segment? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

DRAG DROP

You are a marketing professional.

You need to create a marketing form that will include a subscription list you have already created. The marketing form will be finalized by a colleague.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange then in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/set-up-subscription-center#add-a-subscription-list-to-a-subscription-form


Question 12:

DRAG DROP

You are a marketing administrator. Your company has a form that prospective clients use for holiday offers.

You need to take down the marketing page that contains the form now that the season is over.

Which three steps are needed, in order, to complete your task? (Choose three.) To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

DRAG DROP

You are an administrator working on a marketing campaign.

You need to understand the various types of digital content that are available for use with marketing.

Which Content Types match with the Purposes that are listed? To answer, drag the appropriate Content Type to the correct purpose. Each Content Type may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar

between panes or scroll to view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Your marketing department has provided you with the information you need to create a dynamic market segment.

Which tool should you use for each type of design? To answer, drag the appropriate tool to the correct type of design. Each tool may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to

view the content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/create-segment


Question 15:

DRAG DROP

You are a marketing professional who needs to have a segment that is based on a single marketing list.

Which five actions must you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/create-simple-customer-journey