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Question 1:

You have recommended a new storage solution to your customer and have already created your design with the HP Storage Sizer. The next step is to provide them a budgetary quote.

What is the best way to create the quote?

A. Send your design to HP and ask them to help.

B. Cut and paste the data into an Excel spreadsheet.

C. Push the Quote button in the HP Storage Sizer.

D. Export the data to SBW and use the Quoter tool.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A customer has a head office with a number of branch offices that have no local servers. The customer requires a file-serving solution that provides these benefits:

Which solution should you propose to meet the customer requirements?

A. HP StoreAll 9000 Storage

B. HP StoreEasy 1000 Storage

C. HP StoreSure 2000 Storage

D. HP StoreEasy 5000 Storage

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

What does an Instant-On Enterprise need to achieve business agility, operational efficiencies, and improved risk management?

A. management

B. standardization

C. consolidation

D. innovation

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which BYOD services are provided by HP Intelligent Management Center? (Select two)

A. End user compression

B. Storage federation

C. Routing optimization

D. Device compliance

E. User authentication

Correct Answer: DE


Question 5:

Which HP 3PAR StoreServ tool can be used to collect detailed server configuration information such as the OS type and version, WWN of HBAs, the iSCSI name and host multipathing information over a secure communication channel?

A. Recovery Manager

B. Web Services API

C. System Reporter

D. Host Explorer

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What enables HP StoreEasy Storage to replicate only changed file blocks instead of the entire file?

A. File Screening Management

B. Cyclical Redundancy Check

C. File Classification Infrastructure

D. Remote Differential Compression

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A global engineering company\’s IT manager needs to give offshore contractors access to specific corporate data and applications. Permission is required to access the network anytime from anywhere on almost every device.

Which management solution can authenticate network access and determine if the endpoints are compliant with the security policies of this company?

A. Wireless Services Manager

B. User Access Management

C. HP Peer Motion

D. Virtual network Manager

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which features are key benefits of the HP 3PARStoreServ architecture? (Select two)

A. Fully meshed cluster architecture

B. Network RAID High Availability

C. Secure retention of storage volumes

D. Built-in deduplication technology

E. Built on industry-standard HP ProLiant technology

Correct Answer: AC


Question 9:

Which statements are true about Network RAID implementations? (Select two)

A. RAID 10 in a multi-site SAN ensures that data remains available in the event that one site becomes unavailable.

B. The best applications for using Network RAID 5 volumes include applications with mostly write, random workloads.

C. Network RAID 10 1 is preserved in the event that three storage systems become unavailable.

D. All volumes are protected from a reboot of a Store Virtual Cluster during a Left hand OS Firmware Upgrade.

E. Network RAID 10 2 ensures that data remains available after half of the SAN is unavailable.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 10:

You have designed an environment based on HP BladeSystem enclosures equipped with Virtual connect Ethernet and Virtual Connect Fibre Channel modules.

The customer has a restricted budget and while they understand the benefits of the Virtual Connect Fibre Channel module, they ask you to use Ethernet switches instead of the Virtual Connect Ethernet modules.

How should you respond to the customer request?

A. The Virtual Connect Ethernet module is not needed, but you have to use HP 6120XG Blade Switch instead.

B. The Virtual Connect Ethernet module is not needed but you have to use HP 6125G Ethernet Blade Switch instead.

C. The Virtual Connect Ethernet module is needed and you always have to use the Fibre Channel and Ethernet Virtual Connect modules in pairs.

D. The Virtual Connect Ethernet module is required to set up the Virtual Connect environment.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which HP B-series SAN Switch feature enables the direct connection of servers to any SAN fabric?

A. Access Gateway

B. Server Application Optimization

C. Extended Fabric

D. Adaptive Networking

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

What is required in order to implement a Software-Defined Network (SDN)? (Select two)

A. support for redundant data pathways using available bandwidth

B. data flow evaluation that allows high value data flows to move through the network before low value flows

C. integration of the infrastructure, control and application layers into a single, physical switch

D. programmable modification of packet forwarding rules across multiple devices

E. dynamic application of packet policy across multiple devices

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

A retail company is planning to create a web shop on their website to offer their products and services. They expect a large increase in sales and increased traffic to their website, which will result in increased disk I/O activity. Customer satisfaction is a priority. The website has to respond quickly, providing detailed product information, pictures, and documentation. Their current environment consists of two HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosures connected to an EVA storage array over a small SAN.

What should you suggest to the customer to meet their requirements?

A. Add more disks to the storage array.

B. Add more memory to their servers.

C. Add more blade servers to the enclosures.

D. Add more HBAs to the servers.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which requirement differentiates dual-domain from dual-path SAS?

A. Dual-domain requires dual-port drives.

B. Dual-domain requires less hardware.

C. Dual-path requires dual-port controllers.

D. Dual-path requires active SAS cables.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A medium-sized warehouse company IT environment has grown over time. They have recently virtualized their servers using VMware technologies. They need a management system based on HP servers and storage devices to gain control of their ever-growing IT infrastructure. They do not want to introduce and learn a new interface.

Which HP solution do you recommend to the customer?

A. Insight Server for VMware vCenter Server

B. Insight Server for VMware vCenter

C. Insight control for VMware vCenter Server

D. Insight control for VMware Server

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

The V-Model testing process specifies that developers should both verify and validate each test.

Which of the following describes how developers would validate their tests in the design step ofthe V-model?

A. Check the design by conducting an assembly test.

B. Check the design by conducting a component test.

C. Check the design against the business requirements.

D. Check the design against the developed components.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

If anonymous access is disabled, when a user accessesCognos BI, what is the correct flow ofthe request?

A. To Cognos Access Manager which queries the content store for user information and displaysthe log on page through the dispatcher and the gateway

B. To the monitoring service which monitors the user authentication request and displays the logon page through the dispatcher and the gateway

C. To the presentation service which displays the log on page through the dispatcher and thegateway

D. To Cognos Application Firewall which monitors the user authentication request and displaysthe log on page through the dispatcher and the gateway

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

A consultant realizes after determining business requirements, that a complete solution willrequire several related but separate projects. The consultant must choose one project to deliverfirst. Which of the following describes the considerations that should govern that choice?

A. Priority of IT, ease of development, resource availability, and data availability

B. Business impact, ease of development, resource availability, and number of target users

C. Data availability, ease of development, resource availability, and position of project sponsor inthe organization

D. Business impact, data availability, ease of development, and resource availability

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

When following the Information Focused approach, what should the users bring to the initialinterview?

A. Copies of key reports, structure of database tables, job responsibilities, and objectives

B. Job responsibilities, objectives, what information they need to get their work done, and copiesof key reports

C. List of reports they desire, what information they need to get their work done, and structure ofdatabase tables

D. Job responsibilities, objectives, and a list of reports they desire

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A company records when customers check into a service center. If there are too many customerswaiting for the number of service representatives on hand, a manager wishes to be notified by ane-mail that contains a report showing the current condition.

Which of the following Cognos 8Components would BEST address their needs?

A. Office Connection and Report Studio

B. Data Manager, Event Management, and Office Connection

C. Office Connection and Query Studio

D. Event Management and Report Studio

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

A company has several operational data stores. They wish to compare data from the various datastores against one another. The data in the various stores must be manipulated to match.Eventual report performance is more important than development time.

Which of the followingCognos 8 components would BEST address their requirements?

A. Report Studio and Query Studio

B. Analysis Studio and Report Studio

C. Data Manager and Analysis Studio

D. Planning, Data Manager, and Report Studio

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

When considering the differences between Analysis, Reporting, and Querying, which of thefollowing is NOT a user who needs Analysis?

A. A user who takes answers from one question as a starting point for other questions

B. A user who needs to understand multiple factors influencing performance

C. A user who needs to identify and understand trends from multiple perspectives

D. A user who views detailed data, which is optionally totaled and subtotaled

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which statement is true about the BI Bus?

A. It is the name of the report process that is spawned and viewed in Windows Task Managerwhen a report execution request is processed.

B. It monitors all http traffic flowing through the gateways and dispatchers.

C. It is a set of protocols that govern communications amongCognos BIservices.

D. It uses a JDBC driver to connect to Content Stores in Sybase, SQLServer, Oracle and DB2.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which of the following is a valid strategy for addressing failover for the content store?

A. Install active and passive instances of the content store.

B. Install active and passive instances of the Content Manager service.

C. Take advantage of failover protection in the Applications tier by installing the content store ona server that hosts multiple instances of the report service.

D. Take advantage of database backup and failover strategies and policies already in place in theenvironment.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

A multi-server installation ofCognos BImust be performed.

Which of the following is a validstrategy for installing across multiple servers?

A. Separate the gateway component from other server components to restrict report requestprocessing to the Web server tier.

B. Enable dedicated request processing, by installing a dispatcher in the Web server tier to act asa primary dispatcher for routing requests to other dispatchers.

C. Scale the system vertically by installing one instance of all Cognos 8 services on a largercomputer capable of managing more concurrent request threads.

D. Enable load balancing of requests for content management services by installing multipleinstances of Content Manager.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which of the following requires additional configuration for installingCognos BIin adevelopment and production environment?

A. The application in the development environment and in the production environment will use the Tomcat servlet container as the application server.

B. The development environment will include workstations hosting Framework Manager andCognos 8 OLAP Modeling, while the production environment will not.

C. The environment contains customized port and firewall settings for the default http andapplication server port.

D. The development and production environment will use data sources that are in Unicode.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Companies often create a collection of summary tables as their first attempt at a data warehouse.While there are several drawbacks to this approach, there are also some advantages.

Which ofthe following is an advantage of this approach over reporting from an operational database?

A. It is easier to understand because there are fewer summary tables.

B. Specific reports for which the summary tables were created will run faster.

C. It is easy to leverage many new reports from the summary tables.

D. Over time summary tables often naturally group into business subject areas.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

A table is in Third Normal Form if it is already in Second Normal Form, plus:

A. All attributes are determined only by the primary key

B. All attributes are determined by all segments of the primary key

C. All foreign keys are determined by the primary key

D. All surrogate keys are determined by the primary key

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Why should an application\’s performance be monitored on an ongoing basis after it goes intoproduction?

A. Initial performance tests are usually too optimistic.

B. There is little value in performance tests before a system goes into production.

C. Usage patterns on applications tend to change over time.

D. New releases of system and application software usually degrade performance.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which of the following describes Key Performance Indicators (KPI)?

A. Specific metrics, usually derived, by which a company measures its progress and success.

B. Strategic goals, typically specified by executives, which describe the direction and objectives ofthe organization.

C. Industry standards by which organizations measure themselves against others in their marketspace.

D. Core, atomic level data items that provide input into higher level derived items which thenappear on scorecards.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which action needs to be performed in order to complete the definition of an application-period temporal table?

A. A transaction-start-id column must be defined for the table.

B. A history table must be defined and associated with the base table.

C. A BUSINESS_TIME period must be specified in a CREATE or ALTER of the table.

D. A unique index must be created that prevents overlapping of the BUSINESS_TIME period of the table.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You have a business need to query DB2 10 and DB2 9 databases and you want to write an application that can run on most platforms unchanged.

Which interface would you use to achieve your goal?

A. CLI

B. XML

C. JDBC

D. RUBY

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

What is the purpose of the Query Tuner?

A. To automatically capture and stop rogue queries.

B. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning a single query.

C. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning up to 100 queries.

D. To recommend indexes and to guide DBAs through the process of creating new indexes.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which two activities indicate the need for a data warehouse? (Choose two.)

A. Confirm product inventory.

B. Monitor product availability.

C. Summarize sales by region.

D. Identify patterns for products sold in the last five years.

E. Associate one or more products with a purchase order.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 5:

What is the primary function of an Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) workload?

A. To combine data from multiple sources.

B. To discover hidden relationships in data.

C. To analyze large amounts of data to find patterns.

D. To make changes to a small number of records within a single transaction.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which isolation level offers the greatest protection of data but provides the least amount of concurrency?

A. Read Stability (RS)

B. Cursor Stability (CS)

C. Repeatable Read (RR)

D. Uncommitted Read (UR)

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Application APP_A is performing updates to table TAB1 using the cursor stability (CS) isolation level.

If application APP_B wants to retrieve all rows from table TAB1 without waiting for application APP_A to finish making updates, what isolation level must application APP_B use?

A. Read Stability (RS)

B. Repeatable Read (RR)

C. Uncommitted Read (UR)

D. Cursor Stability (CS)

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which statement will prevent concurrent application processes from performing anything other than read- only operations against a table named TAB1?

A. LOCK TABLE tab1 IN READ MODE

B. LOCK TABLE tab1 IN SHARE MODE

C. LOCK TABLE tab1 IN EXCLUSIVE MODE

D. LOCK TABLE tab1 IN READ-ONLY MODE

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

When is an INTENT EXCLUSIVE (IX) lock required?

A. When a transaction intends to read or change data.

B. When a transaction intends to change but not read data.

C. When a transaction intends to read but not change data.

D. When a transaction intends to change the system catalog.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What isolation level prevents dirty reads, nonrepeatable reads, and phantoms?

A. Read stability (RS)

B. Cursor stability (CS)

C. Repeatable read (RR)

D. Uncommitted read (UR)

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

When a COMMIT statement is executed, what happens?

A. All locks held on the database are automatically released.

B. Data stored in global temporary tables is automatically deleted.

C. Open cursors defined WITH HOLD are closed, but their data is retained.

D. The current transaction is terminated and a new transaction boundary is started.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which function can be used to obtain values from XML documents that are to be inserted into one or more tables?

A. XMLTABLE

B. XMLPARSE

C. XMLEXISTS

D. XMLATTRIBUTES

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

User USER1 wants to retrieve records from a table named EMPLOYEE that satisfy at least one of the following criteria:

Which SQL statement will accomplish this?

A. SELECT * FROM employeeWHERE (hiredate < \'1999-01-01\' AND salary < 40000)OR (education = \'University\')

B. SELECT * FROM employeeWHERE (hiredate < \'1999-01-01\') OR (salary < 40000)OR (education = \'University\')

C. SELECT * FROM employeeWHERE (hiredate < \'1999-01-01\' OR (salary < 40000AND (education = \'University\')

D. SELECT * FROM employeeWHERE (hiredate < \'1999-01-01\' AND salary < 40000AND (education = \'University\')

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which statement about application-period temporal tables is true?

A. Consists of explicitly-supplied timestamps and a separate associated history table.

B. Is based on explicitly-supplied timestamps that define the time periods during which data is valid.

C. Is useful when one wants to keep both user-based period information and system-based historical information.

D. Consists of a pair of columns with database-manager maintained values that indicate the period when a row is current.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which SQL statement should be used to select the minimum and maximum salaries (SALARY), by job code (JOB), from a table EMPLOYEE?

A. SELECT job, MIN(salary), MAX(salary)FROM employeeGROUP BY job;

B. SELECT job, MIN(salary), MAX(salary)FROM employeeORDER BY job;

C. SELECT job, MIN(salary), MAX(salary)FROM employeeGROUP BY job, MIN(salary), MAX(salary);

D. SELECT JOB, MIN(salary), MAX(salary)FROM employeeORDER BY job, MIN(salary), MAX(salary);

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

An application presents the user with a graphical interface. The interface includes buttons that the user clicks to perform tasks. Each time the user clicks a button, a method is called that corresponds to that button. Which term is used to describe this programming model?

A. Functional

B. Service oriented

C. Structured

D. Event driven

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

The purpose of a constructor in a class is to:

A. Initialize an object of that class.

B. Release the resources that the class holds.

C. Create a value type.

D. Inherit from the base class.

Correct Answer: A

Each value type has an implicit default constructor that initializes the default value of that type.


Question 3:

You need to allow a consumer of a class to modify a private data member.

What should you do?

A. Assign a value directly to the data member.

B. Provide a private function that assigns a value to the data member.

C. Provide a public function that assigns a value to the data member.

D. Create global variables in the class.

Correct Answer: C

In this example (see below), the Employee class contains two private data members, name and salary. As private members, they cannot be accessed except by member methods. Public methods named GetName and Salary are added to

allow controlled access to the private members. The name member is accessed by way of a public method, and the salary member is accessed by way of a public read-only property.

Note: The private keyword is a member access modifier. Private access is the least permissive access level. Private members are accessible only within the body of the class or the struct in which they are declared

Example:

class Employee2

{

private string name = “FirstName, LastName”;

private double salary = 100.0;

public string GetName()

{

return name;

}

public double Salary

{

get { return salary; }

}

}


Question 4:

You have a stack that contains integer values. The values are pushed onto the stack in the following order:

2,4,6,8.

The following sequence of operations is executed:

Pop Push 3 Pop Push 4 Push 6 Push 7 Pop Pop Pop

What is the value of the top element after these operations are executed?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 6

D. 7

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

You need to evaluate the following expression:

(A>B) AND (C<D)

What is the value of this expression if A=3, B=4, C=4, and D=5?

A. 0

B. 4

C. 5

D. False

E. Null

F. True

Correct Answer: D

A>B is false.


Question 6:

You are creating an application for a help desk center. Calls must be handled in the same order in which they were received. Which data structure should you use?

A. Binary tree

B. Stack

C. Hashtable

D. Queue

Correct Answer: D

A queue keeps the order of the items.


Question 7:

You are creating the necessary variables for an application. The data you will store in these variables has the following characteristics:

Consists of numbers

Includes numbers that have decimal points

Requires more than seven digits of precision

You need to use a data type that will minimize the amount of memory that is used.

Which data type should you use?

A.

decimal

B.

double

C.

byte

D.

float

Correct Answer: B

The double keyword signifies a simple type that stores 64-bit floating-point values.

Precision: 15-16 digits

Incorrect:

Not D: The float keyword signifies a simple type that stores 32-bit floating-point values.

Precision: 7 digits


Question 8:

You are writing a Web application that processes room reservation requests. You need to verify that the room that a guest has selected is not already reserved by another guest. Which type of programming should you use to determine whether the room is still available when the request is made?

A. functional

B. dynamic

C. in-browser

D. server-side

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

You need to debug a Windows Service application by using breakpoints. What should you do?

A. Write all events to an event log.

B. Set the Windows Service status to Paused.

C. Implement the Console.WriteLine method throughout the Windows Service.

D. Use the Attach to Process menu in Microsoft Visual Studio.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

Converting an object to a more general type is called upcasting.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\’\’ if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed

B. downcasting

C. interfacing

D. flexing

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which three phrases are advantages of connection pooling? (Choose three.)

A. reduces time to create a connection

B. requires no configuration

C. reduces load on the server

D. improved scalability

E. improved performance

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 12:

You need to create a stored procedure that passes in a person\’s name and age.

Which statement should you use to create the stored procedure?

A. B. C. D.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

You have a SQL Server database named MyDB that uses SQL Server Authentication.

Which connection string should you use to connect to MyDB?

A. Data Source=MyDB; UserID=username; [email protected]; Initial Catalog=Sales

B. Data Source=MyDB; Integrated Security=SSPI; Initial Catalog=Sales

C. Data Source=MyDB; Integrated Security=True; Initial Catalog=Sales

D. Data Source=MyDB; Trusted_Connection=True; MultipleActiveResultSets=True; Initial Catalog=Sales

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

All objects in .NET inherit from which item?

A. the System.Object class

B. a value type

C. a reference type

D. the System.Type class

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

To minimize the amount of storage used on the hard drive by an application that generates many small files, you should make the partition as small as possible.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\’\’ if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed

B. file allocation table

C. block size

D. folder and file names

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Identify two reasons your Privacy Statement is displaying to some candidates but not to all candidates?

A. The Privacy Statement content type is assigned to appear on only one career portal.

B. The Privacy Statement is contextualized to display only for requisitions assigned to a given Location.

C. The Privacy Statement is defined to appear before the application flow.

D. The Privacy Statement has been deactivated.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

Your client wants to use a Candidate Ranking field to establish ranking (I-10) and then be able to sort candidates within the list view for a given requisition. This field should only be available for

A. K. job submissions and will not be visible to candidates. Which response identifies all of the configurations required to meet this requirement?

B. Create a Candidate Ranking UDF and add it to the Personal Information form on the Candidate file.

C. Create fl Candidate Ranking UDF, contextualize it for the United Kingdom and add it to the Personal Information form on the Candidate file.

D. Create a Candidate Ranking UDF, make it available for Recruiting Center, and add it to the Personal Information form on the Candidate file.

E. Create a Candidate Ranking UDF, contextualize it for the United Kingdom, make it available for Recruiting Center only, and add it to the Personal Information form on the Candidate file.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

What is the default extension method selected by the system when a user of the system records the extension of an offer (within Offer Management)?

A. Verbal

B. Written (Hard Copy)

C. Written (Email)

D. Written (Fax)

E. Verbal and Written (hard copy)

Correct Answer: E

Explanation: When adding the RSOffer step to a candidate selection workflow, authorized Recruiting Center usersare able to: Extend offers verbally or in writing.


Question 4:

What are two scenarios in which you would build qualifiers into your Candidate Selection Workflow?

A. Your client would like to collect data on why the candidates are declining their offers.

B. Your client is trying to collect data on how much the competition is offering their candidate pool.

C. Your client would like to collect data on how long it took to move from one step to another in the workflow.

D. Your client would like to collect data on why candidates are being rejected by their recruiters.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 5:

A. Required versus Asset

B. Weight

C. Minimum Proficiency

D. Minimum Experience

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation: For each


Question 6:

Your client would like to enable radius search on their Career Section to allow for jobs at specific locations to be identified by candidates. What three steps must you take to configure specific locations to be searchable via the radius search?

A. Put the system in Maintenance Mode.

B. Create another level In the Location Structure designated as a Work Location.

C. Create Work Location by inputting Name, Address, City, and Zip Code.

D. Map the Taleo Reference Location to the Work Location.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Place of Residence (RSLocation) – Note that using radius search around a zip code should be done when a zip code is required from candidates. If it is optional, many candidates might be discarded even if they are good candidates.


Question 7:

Your client has decided that they would like to collect the candidate\’s Date of Birth and Social Security number for their background checking vendor in a secondary Application Flow that the recruiter will execute prior to requesting the screening service. Once you have completed building the new form with the data collection fields, what are the two steps that you must take in order to change which form displays to the candidate?

A. Deactivate the Application Flow

B. Edit the Block Properties

C. Configure the Default Languages

D. Edit the Page Properties

Correct Answer: BD

Explanation: Adding the Source Tracking Block in the Career Section Application Flow Prerequisite The Access the Career Section administration section user type permission is required. The application flow must be inactive. Configuration > [Career Section] Administration > Application Flows Steps

1.

Click an application flow.

2.

Click Edit.

3.

Enter the name of the Source Tracking section in the Add a Page field.

4.

Click Create a Page.

5.

Select the Job Sourcing Tracking in the Available Blocks section, and drag and drop it to the Source Tracking section you created.

6.

Click Save.


Question 8:

What two elements does the Configuration profile control within the Recruiting Center?

A. Search Widget

B. Core Navigation Bar

C. Coverage Areas

D. User Types

Correct Answer: AD

Explanation: D: A center stage is selected for each configuration profile and a configuration profile is tied to each user.

A: Users can save a search query if the feature is activated in the user\’s configuration profile and if the user type permission has been granted. The fields that can be selected in the Recruiting Center to customize a search query are set by the system administrator for each configuration profile. If a user is not linked to a configuration profile or is linked to a configuration profile for which the system administrator has not selected additional fields, then only the set of default fields are displayed when customizing a search query in the Recruiting Center.


Question 9:

What is an important consideration when modifying a permission for a group of users?

A. If the permissions associated with a user type are modified, the changes affect all users who have been assigned the user type.

B. It is important to duplicate that user type and reassign it to all users once your modifications are saved.

C. It is Important to maintain a single user type across the organization for all users.

D. Unless the “expand all” function is selected, the Functional Domain may not be visible when looking for the permission that you want to modify.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: A user type is a user profile composed of a set of role-based permissions. Modifying the Permissions of a User Type Prerequisite It is recommended to change the person\’s user type. Configuration > [SmartOrg] Administration > User Types Steps

1.

Select a user type.

2.

Make the required changes.

3.

Click Save.

Result

Changes made will affect all users having this user type.


Question 10:

Identify the two actions that you must take if you want to edit the properties of an existing Application Flow?

A. Dissociate the application flow from an active Career Section.

B. Modify the properties of the associated Career Section.

C. Deactivate the Application Flow.

D. Remove the language configuration.

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation: Adding the Source Tracking Block in the Career Section Application Flow Prerequisite The Access the Career Section administration section user type permission is required. The application flow must be inactive. Configuration > [Career Section] Administration > Application Flows Steps

1.

Click an application flow.

2.

Click Edit.

3.

Enter the name of the Source Tracking section in the Add a Page field.

4.

Click Create a Page.

5.

Select the Job Sourcing Tracking in the Available Blocks section, and drag and drop it to the Source Tracking section you created.

6.

Click Save.


Question 11:

Your client has a large campus recruiting initiative for several intern requisitions. The recruiters receive a large volume of resume at campus recruiting events. The recruiters would like to quickly pull these resumes into the system associated while collecting information that they have learned from the candidate on the spot such as date of availability and current GPA. Once you have constructed the Candidate file with the type “Create Candidate” that has all of your desired fields, what is the next step?

A. In Candidate File Setup Editor Activate the file for “viewing and editing Job-specific submissions* with the Campus Staffing Type.

B. In Candidate File Setup Editor Activate the file for “creating Job-specific submissions\’ with the Campus Staffing Type.

C. In Candidate File Setup Editor Activate the file for the “quick creation of candidate profiles” as the default.

D. Activate the File as the default Activated candidate file for viewing and editing general profiles.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Candidate File Setup and Requisition File Setup The Candidate File Setup and Requisition File Setup features allow system administrators to indicate

in which situations user-define files will be used and to associate user-defined files to staffing types.

System administrators first define a primary file. Then, if desired, they can set a different file to be used

for each staffing type. If a staffing type is not specified, the default file will be used.


Question 12:

A. Each answer that represents the minimum to the maximum must be marked as required.

B. The answers that represent the minimum to the maximum range must all be marked as assets.

C. The answer that represents the maximum must be marked as required with the rest of the answers in the range being marked as assets.

D. The answer that represents the maximum requirement should be weighted.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Your client has decided that they would like to collect background checking consent from the candidates during the final step in the application process. Once you have duplicated the application flow and added the Background Consent block, what action must you take before the new Application Flow can be assigned to the career section?

A. Activate the Job Specific Application Flow.

B. Deactivate the Career Section.

C. Modify the Career Section Properties.

D. Adjust the Security Settings.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

For each requisition, what is identified when ACE Prescreening is configured?

A. The one ideal candidate for a position

B. The top candidates for a position

C. All candidates for a position

D. Candidates who have been disqualified for a position

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Your client has requested that you construct a targeted career site for a brand new location. Identify two career section items that must be contextualized to this location?

A. Career Sections

B. Application Flows

C. User-defined Forms

D. Statements

Correct Answer: BC


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Question 1:

Examine the following command:

ALTER DISKGROUP data MOUNT FORCE;

In which scenario can you use the above command to mount the disk group?

A. when ASM disk goes offline

B. when one or more ASM files are dropped

C. when some disks in a disk group are offline

D. when some disks in a failure group for a disk group are rebalancing

Correct Answer: C

In the FORCE mode, Oracle ASM attempts to mount the disk group even if it cannot discover all of the devices that belong to the disk group. This setting is useful if some of the disks in a normal or high redundancy disk group became unavailable while the disk group was dismounted. When MOUNT FORCE succeeds, Oracle

ASM takes the missing disks offline.

If Oracle ASM discovers all of the disks in the disk group, then MOUNT FORCE fails. Therefore, use the MOUNT FORCE setting only if some disks are unavailable. Otherwise, use NOFORCE.

In normal- and high-redundancy disk groups, disks from one failure group can be unavailable and MOUNT FORCE will succeed. Also in high-redundancy disk groups, two disks in two different failure groups can be unavailable and MOUNT

FORCE will succeed. Any other combination of unavailable disks causes the operation to fail, because Oracle ASM cannot guarantee that a valid copy of all user data or metadata exists on the available disks.

Refer to here


Question 2:

Immediately after adding a new disk to or removing an existing disk from an ASM instance, you find that the performance of the database goes down initially until the time the addition or removal process is completed, and then gradually becomes normal.

Which two activities would you perform to maintain a consistent performance of the database while adding or removing disks? (Choose two.)

A. Define the POWER option while adding or removing the disks.

B. Increase the number of ARB processes by setting up a higher value for ASM_POWER_LIMIT.

C. Increase the number of DBWR processes by setting up a higher value for DB_WRITER_PROCESSES.

D. Increase the number of slave database writer processes by setting up a higher value for DBWR_IO_SLAVES.

Correct Answer: AB

ARBn (ASM Rebalance Process): Rebalances data extents within an ASM disk group, possible processes are ARB0-ARB9 and ARBA.

ALTER DISKGROUP..POWER clause, specify a value from 0 to 11, where 0 stops the rebalance operation and 11 permits Oracle ASM to execute the rebalance as fast as possible. The value you specify in the POWER clause defaults to the

value of the ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter. If you omit the POWER clause, then Oracle ASM executes both automatic and specified rebalance operations at the power determined by the value of the ASM_POWER_LIMIT

initialization parameter.

Note:

Beginning with Oracle Database 11g Release 2 (11.2.0.2), if the COMPATIBLE.ASM disk group attribute is set to 11.2.0.2 or higher, then you can specify a value from 0 to 1024 in the POWER clause.


Question 3:

You are managing an ASM instance. You previously issued the following statement

ALTER DISKGROUP dg1 DROP DISK disk2;

ALTER DISKGROUP dg1 DROP DISK disk3;

ALTER DISKGROUP dg1 DROP DISK disk5;

You want to cancel the disk drops that are pending for the DG1 disk group.

Which statement should you issue?

A. ALTER DISKGROUP dg1 UNDROP disk2, disk3, disk5;

B. ALTER DISKGROUP dg1 UNDROP;

C. ALTER DISKGROUP dg1 UNDROP DISKS;

D. You cannot cancel the pending disk drops.

Correct Answer: C

Use this clause to cancel the drop of disks from the disk group. You can cancel the pending drop of all the disks in one or more disk groups (by specifying diskgroup_name) or of all the disks in all disk groups (by specifying ALL).

This clause is not relevant for disks that have already been completely dropped from the disk group or for disk groups that have been completely dropped. This clause results in a long- running operation. You can see the status of the operation by querying the V$ASM_OPERATION dynamic performance view.


Question 4:

Which of the following is a benefit of ASM fast disk resync?

A. Failed disks are taken offline immediately but are not dropped.

B. Disk data is never lost.

C. By default, the failed disk is not dropped from the disk group ever, protecting you from loss of that disk.

D. The failed disk is automatically reformatted and then resynchronized to speed up the recovery process.

E. Hot spare disks are automatically configured and added to the disk group.

Correct Answer: A

ASM Fast Mirror Resync


Question 5:

Which background process coordinates the rebalance activity for disk groups?

A. ORBn

B. OSMB

C. RBAL

D. ASMn

Correct Answer: C

RBAL ASM Rebalance Master Process Coordinates rebalance activity In an ASM instance, it coordinates rebalance activity for disk groups. In a database instances, it manages ASM disk groups.


Question 6:

You are managing an Oracle Database 11g database with ASM storage. The ASM disk group has the COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute set to 11.1.

Which statements are true regarding extent management and allocation units in the ASM disk group? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The au_size disk group attribute determines the size of allocation units in the disk group.

B. The allocation unit size may vary but the extent size is fixed.

C. The allocation unit size and extent size are fixed for all the disks in a disk group and cannot be changed.

D. Extent management is completely automated.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 7:

Which of the following would be affected by setting NLS_LENGTH_SEMANTICS=CHAR?

A. All objects in the database

B. Tables owned by SYS and SYSTEM

C. Data dictionary tables

D. NCHAR columns

E. CHAR columns

Correct Answer: E


Question 8:

To set the history retention period for either window logging or job logging individually, which parameters of the SET_SCHEDULER_ATTRIBUTE procedure need to be used? (Choose all that apply.)

A. LOG_HISTORY

B. JOB_LOG_RETENTION

C. WINDOW_LOG_RETENTION

D. WHICH_LOG

E. LOG_NAME

Correct Answer: AD

Attributes list of SET_SCHEDULE_ATTRIBUTE:

\’default_timezone\’: Repeating jobs and windows that use the calendaring syntax retrieve the time zone from this attribute when start_date is not specified. See “Calendaring Syntax” for more information.

\’email_server\’: The SMTP server address that the Scheduler uses to send e-mail notifications for job state events. E-mail notifications cannot be sent if this attribute is NULL. \’email_sender\’: The default e-mail address of the sender of job state

e-mail notifications. \’email_server_credential\’: The schema and name of an existing credential object that SYS has execute object privileges on. Default is NULL. The username and password stored in this credential are used to authenticate

with the e-mail server when sending e-mail notifications. This functionality is available with Oracle Database 11g Release 2 (11.2.0.2).

\’email_server_encryption\’: This attribute indicates whether or not encryption is enabled for this email server connection, and if so, at what point encryption starts, and with which protocol. This functionality is available starting with Oracle

Database 11g Release 2 (11.2.0.2). Values are:

NONE: the default, indicating no encryption used

SSL_TLS: indicating that either SSL or TLS are used, from the beginning of the connection STARTTLS:indicating that the connection starts unencrypted, but the command STARTTLS is sent to the e-mail server and starts encryption

\’event_expiry_time\’: The time, in seconds, before a job state event generated by the Scheduler expires from the Scheduler event queue. If NULL, job state events expire after 24 hours. \’log_history\’: The number of days that log entries for both

the job log and the window log are retained. Default is 30 and the range of valid values is 0 through 1000000. \’max_job_slave_processes\’: This Scheduler attribute is not used.

The PURGE_LOG Procedure uses “WHICH_LOG” and “LOG_NAME” attributes.

Syntax

Parameters log_history This specifies how much history (in days) to keep. The valid range is 0 – 1000000. If set to 0, no history is kept. which_log This specifies the log type. Valid values are: job_log, window_log, and job_and_window_log. job_name This specifies which job-specific entries must be purged from the jog log. This can be a comma- delimited list of job names and job classes. Whenever job_name has a value other than NULL, the which_log argument implicitly includes the job log.


Question 9:

Within a resource-plan definition, what differentiates a top-level plan from a subplan?

A. A subplan has the PLAN_SUB parameter value set to SUB.

B. A top-level plan has the GROUP_OR_PLAN parameter set to the name of the subplan in the resource-plan definition.

C. There is no difference in the resource-plan definition.

D. A subplan always has the CPU_MTH parameter value set to RATIO.

E. The string TOP_LEVEL is appended to the name of top-level resource plans.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Sales details are being stored on a daily basis in the SALES_2007 table. A large amount of data is added to the table daily. To save disk space, you issued the following command:

ALTER TABLE sales_2007 COMPRESS FOR ALL OPERATIONS;

What would be the outcome of this command?

A. It produces an error because data already exists in the table.

B. It produces an error because compression can be enabled at table creation only.

C. It compresses all data added or modified henceforth but the existing data in the table is not compressed immediately.

D. It immediately compresses all existing data as well as new data, resulting from either fresh additions or modifications to existing data.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A user receives the following error while performing a large volume of inserts into a table:

ERROR at line 1:

ORA-01536: space quota exceeded for tablespace \’USERS\’

The issue is resolved by increasing the space quota on the USERS tablespace for the user. But the user may perform such transaction in the future. You want to ensure that the command waits rather than produce an error when such an

event occurs the next time.

What can you do to achieve this before running the command in the future?

A. Set RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT for the instance.

B. Set the RESOURCE_LIMIT Parameter to TRUE.

C. Enable the database instance to use asynchronous commit.

D. Set the LOG_CHECKPOINT_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero value for the database instance.

Correct Answer: A

How Resumable Space Allocation Works

The following is an overview of how resumable space allocation works. Details are contained in later sections.

A statement executes in resumable mode only if its session has been enabled for resumable space allocation by one of the following actions:

The ALTER SESSION ENABLE RESUMABLE statement is issued in the session before the statement executes when the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT initialization parameter is set to a nonzero value. The ALTER SESSION ENABLE

RESUMABLE TIMEOUT timeout_value statement is issued in the session before the statement executes, and thetimeout_value is a nonzero value.

A resumable statement is suspended when one of the following conditions occur (these conditions result in corresponding errors being signalled for non-resumable statements):

Out of space condition Maximum extents reached condition Space quota exceeded condition.

When the execution of a resumable statement is suspended, there are mechanisms to perform user supplied operations, log errors, and query the status of the statement execution.

When a resumable statement is suspended the following actions are taken:

The error is reported in the alert log.

The system issues the Resumable Session Suspended alert. If the user registered a trigger on the AFTER SUSPEND system event, the user trigger is executed. A user supplied PL/SQL procedure can access the error message data using

the DBMS_RESUMABLE package and the DBA_ or USER_RESUMABLE view.

Suspending a statement automatically results in suspending the transaction. Thus all transactional resources are held through a statement suspend and resume. When the error condition is resolved (for example, as a result of user

intervention or perhaps sort space released by other queries), the suspended statement automatically resumes execution and the Resumable Session Suspended alert is cleared.

A suspended statement can be forced to throw the exception using the DBMS_RESUMABLE.ABORT() procedure. This procedure can be called by a DBA, or by the user who issued the statement.

A suspension time out interval, specified by the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT initialization parameter or by the timeout value in the ALTER SESSION ENABLE RESUMABLETIMEOUT statement, is associated with resumable statements. A

resumable statement that is suspended for the timeout interval wakes up and returns the exception to the user if the error condition is not resolved within the timeout interval.

A resumable statement can be suspended and resumed multiple times during execution.

Topic 17, Managing Resources


Question 12:

You plan to use SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze the SQL workload. You created a SQL Tuning Set as a part of the workload capturing. What information is captured as part of this process? (Choose all that apply.)

A. the SQL text

B. the execution plan

C. the execution context

D. the execution frequency

E. the system change number (SCN)

Correct Answer: ACD

http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/cn/articles/o69ocp-099954.html

You plan to use SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze a SQL workload, and you\’ve created a SQL tuning set as a part of the workload capture. What information is captured as part of this process?

A. The SQL text

B. The execution context

C. The execution frequency

D. The performance statistics

The correct answers are A, B, and C. While creating the SQL tuning set, SQL Performance Analyzer captures the SQL text, the execution context, and the number of times the statement is executed. SQL Performance Analyzer then uses that information to analyze the performance of the SQL statement.


Question 13:

Which of the following advisors within the Oracle advisory framework will analyze a single SQL statement and make recommendations for performance improvement?

A. SQL Repair Advisor

B. SQL Optimizer

C. SQL Access Advisor

D. SQL Tuning Advisor

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Performance divergence indicated in the Workload Replay report is most likely due to what?

A. DML and SQL statement results that do not match between the capture and replay systems

B. When errors that occur in the capture system don\’t occur in the replay system

C. Top SQL statements

D. Infrastructure or system-configuration differences

E. Time-of-day differences between capture and replay systems

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which three functions are performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor? (Choose three.)

A. Building the SQL profile

B. Recommending optimization of materialized views

C. Checking query objects for missing and stale statistics

D. Recommending bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes

E. Recommending restructuring SQL queries that are using bad plans

Correct Answer: ACE


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Question 1:

Which user authentication methods can be used with SLES 10? (Choose 4.)

A. NIS

B. WEP

C. SSH

D. PAM

E. LDAP

F. Handshake

G. Windows Domain

H. Local (/etc/passwd)

Correct Answer: AEGH


Question 2:

Which statements about partitions are correct? (Choose 3.)

A. Extended partitions can be subdivided into logical partitions.

B. A primary partition consists of a continuous range of cylinders.

C. Logical partitions do not require entries in the main partition table.

D. If you use only primary partitions, you are limited to eight partitions per disk.

E. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10 can only be installed on a primary partition.

F. To install more than one operating system on a partition, the partition has to include the entire cylinder range.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 3:

When you connect to an ssh server with your ssh client, the public key of the server is compared to the keys stored in a file on the client computer. Which file is this?

A. ~/.ssh/id_dsa.pub

B. ~/.ssh/id_rsa.pub

C. ~/.ssh/known_hosts

D. ~/.ssh/authorized_keys

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which statements about PAM are correct? (Choose 3.)

A. To enable authentication with PAM, you need a smart cart reader.

B. Each line in a PAM configuration file contains 6 columns plus optional arguments.

C. Configuration files of PAM modules can be found in /etc/pam.d/ and /etc/security/.

D. After the PAM configuration has been adjusted for an application, this application can be used by SSH.

E. The /etc/pam.d/other file contains a default configuration if no application-specific file is found in /etc/ pam.d/.

F. PAM creates a software level with defined interfaces between applications and the current authentication mechanism.

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 5:

From the command line, which command would you use to print the document.ps file on the laser printer?

A. lp -d laser document.ps

B. lpr -p laser document.ps

C. lpq -p laser document.ps

D. print -p laser document.ps

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which command can you use to set up limits for failed logins?

A. w

B. who

C. last

D. faillog

E. lastlog

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which statement about the /sbin/ldconfig command is correct?

A. The ldconfig command is used to link directories.

B. The ldconfig command is used to configure an LDAP connection.

C. The ldconfig command is used to update the software library cache.

D. The ldconfig command is used to show dynamic libraries needed by a program.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What is the correct syntax for mounting the second partition of the first SCSI hard disk?

A. mount /mnt /dev/hda2

B. mount /dev/hda2 /mnt

C. mount /dev/sdb1 /mnt

D. mount /mnt /dev/sdb1

E. mount /dev/sda2 /mnt

F. mount /mnt /dev/sda2

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

Using the rsync command, you want to mirror the directories, including any hidden files and directories within /home (not the /home directory itself) to the /backup directory. Which command accomplishes this?

A. rsync -a /home /backup

B. rsync -a /home/. /backup

C. rsync -a /home/* /backup

D. rsync -a /home/? /backup

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which group name is stored in /etc/passwd?

A. Primary group

B. Effective group

C. Secondary group

D. No group name is stored there.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which command can you use to generate an MD5-encrypted password for GRUB?

A. genkey –md5

B. grubpass -md5

C. grub-md5-crypt

D. passwd -c –md5

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

The /backup/snapshot was changed to the /backup/backup_monday.tgz archive. Which command will now write new or modified files below /home?

A. tar -czf -g /backup/snapshot /backup/backup_monday.tgz /home

B. tar -tz -g /backup/snapshot -f /backup/backup_monday.tgz /home

C. tar -cz -g /backup/snapshot -f /backup/backup_monday.tgz /home

D. tar -cz -newer /backup/snapshot -f /backup/backup_monday.tgz /home

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What is the output of the echo \’$HOME\’ command when user geeko (home directory /home/geeko) enters it at the bash shell prompt?

A. geeko

B. $HOME

C. /home/geeko

D. $HOME: No such file or directory

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

In the bash shell, which command can be used to create a MY_NAME variable containing the value Joe?

A. MY_NAME=Joe

B. MY_NAME = Joe

C. echo Joe > MY_NAME

D. export MY_NAME = Joe

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You want to delete a certain print job from the laser print queue. Using the lpq command, you determined the job number of this job as 1234. Which command lets you delete that job?

A. lpr -P laser 1234

B. lprm -P laser 1234

C. lpremove -P laser 1234

D. lpadmin -d laser -r 1234

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which operating system is used on a NetScreen device?

A. IOS

B. Junos

C. FreeBSD

D. ScreenOS

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

When is NAT used?

A. for Layer 2 switching

B. for MPLS VPNs

C. to translate between IP addresses

D. for secure tunnels

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?

A. ROM

B. NVRAM

C. TFTP server

D. Internal Flash

E. PCMCIA Card

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

In the packet flow decision process, which pair identifies interzone traffic?

A. source and destination MAC

B. source and destination interface

C. source and destination TCP port

D. source and destination IP address

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

In the flow decision process, the system has found a route entry matching the packet destination IP.

Which pair will identify the policy that is applied to this packet?

A. source and destination MAC

B. source and destination interface

C. source and destination TCP port

D. source and destination IP address

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Assuming factory default settings, which statement describes the minimum requirements for WebUI management access?

A. Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet to any interface, open a browser and access 192.168.1.1

B. Terminate the bootup sequence from the console device, open a browser on the console device and access 192.168.1.1

C. Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet to the lowest numbered interface, open a browser and access 192.168.1.1

D. Using the CLI, define an IP address on a physical interface, connect a PC to the interface and open a browser to the interface address

E. Using the CLI, assign an IP address to the VLAN1 interface, connect a PC to any interface and open a browser to the VLAN interface address

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which statement is correct regarding administrator privileges?

A. Any Administrator can change their privileges on an as-needed basis

B. Administrator privileges can only be established and changed by the Root Administrator

C. Administrator privileges can be established and changed by the Root and All-privilege Administrator

D. Administrator privileges can only be established by the Root and can be changed by the Root and All-privilege Administrator

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

What is the purpose of the “Manage-IP” address on a ScreenOS device?

A. It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.

B. It is used in policy rules to determine which device is allowed to manage the ScreenOS device.

C. It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.

D. It defines a list of device addresses that can manage the ScreenOS device without being authenticated prior to session establishment.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

An operational firewall needs a configuration loaded and executed while it is passing user data. Which CLI command will perform this process without interrupting traffic?

A. save config from tftp 15June06.cfg to flash

B. save config from tftp 15June06.cfg to ram

C. save config from tftp 15June06.cfg merge

D. save config from tftp 15June06.cfg to flash reset

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

When configuring a firewall in a critical environment where a local backup configuration is quickly needed, what should be completed on a periodic basis?

A. Execute exec config rollback.

B. Execute save config to last-known-good.

C. Execute save regularly or create a script that does this.

D. Execute save software from flash to pcmcia .

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which command is used when configuring web management on the VLAN1 interface for a client connected to an e3 interface in the DMZ zone?

A. set int eth3 manage web

B. set zone v1-dmz manage web

C. set int dmz zone manage web

D. set int VLAN1 zone dmz manage web

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What must be configured to remotely manage a NetScreen device operating in transparent mode?

A. An IP address must be configured for VLAN1

B. The telnet management service must be enabled

C. An IP address must be configured for the VLAN zone

D. V1-Trust needs to have management services enabled

E. The public SNMP community string must be configured

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

In transparent mode, you can create policies between which zones?

A. V1-Trust and untrust

B. Private and L2-Public

C. V1-Global and V1-Global

D. V1-Trust and Private (L2)

E. V1-Untrust and L2-Private

Correct Answer: E


Question 14:

You are configuring a Netscreen device in transparent mode. You need to ensure it is in its most secureenvironment. Which two (2) options would you set?

A. set int vlan1 ident-reset

B. set int vlan1 broadcast arp

C. set int vlan1 broadcast flood

D. set admin manage-ip

E. set int vlan1 ip manage-ip

Correct Answer: BE


Question 15:

What is a virtual router?

A. A NetScreen device that has been configured for route mode

B. The interconnection between a NetScreen device and a 3rd party router

C. The logical separation of one physical NetScreen device into multiple separate router tables

D. The physical connection between two separate NetScreen devices into a single logical router

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

On which three entities can proration be disabled? (Choose three.)

A. Calculation Rule Business Object

B. Bill Factor

C. Calculation Rule

D. Rate Version Calculation Group

E. Rate Schedule

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 2:

The base package usage transaction business object is represented by D2-UsageTransaction. The usage calculation engine or process drives the specifics of the usage to be calculated on this business object.

Based on this, which three configuration areas will have an impact on the usage calculation process? (Choose three.)

A. VEE rule

B. TOU map

C. Usage Rule

D. Factor Override

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E38983_04/PDF/MDM_Configuration_Guide_v2_1_0_3.pdf


Question 3:

Which describes derived values and their relationship with Final Measurements?

A. Final Measurements can have multiple derived values, which represent other values for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

B. Derived values can have multiple Final Measurements, which represent other values for the same Initial Measurement Date/Time.

C. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents an alternative for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

D. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents the Initial Measurement for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

What happens when a device\’s measuring components are reconfigured (a new measuring component will be read) at a service point?

A. A device with a new configuration type is created.

B. The original installation event is updated with the “removal” (expire old device configuration).

C. A device with a new configuration type is created. Moreover, a new installation event is created to `install” (new device configuration).

D. The original installation event is updated with the “removal” (expire old device configuration) and a new installation event is created to “install” (new device configuration).

E. A new installation event is created to “install” (new device configuration).

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

You are configuring a VEE group to include rules to be executed when loading the initial measurement data (IMD).

What is the VEE group directly associated with?

A. Device Type and Measuring Component Type

B. Measuring Component Type

C. Device Type

D. Usage Type

E. Device Configuration Type

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E38983_04/PDF/MDM_Configuration_Guide_v2_1_0_3.pdf (151 152)


Question 6:

Using a base-supplied algorithm type, what is payment distribution priority typically determined by?

A. Customer Class and Service Agreement Type

B. Payment Type Debt Age

C. Debt Age

D. Service Agreement Type\’s Priority and Debt Age

E. Customer Class and Debt Age

Correct Answer: E


Question 7:

Your client has installed scalar devices to measure the solar energy generated (Export) and the energy received (Import) from the National Grid. This data is stored in separate measuring components (registers).

The validation rules are generally the same for both measuring components, but there is one exception. The Negative Consumption check applies only to energy received (import). Which two are possible configurations resulting in the Negative Consumption rule being checked for energy received (import) only? (Choose two.)

A. Modify the base VEE rule.

B. Remove the Negative Consumption check from the VEE group.

C. Create two different VEE groups.

D. Use Eligibility Criteria.

E. Use the Skip Flag in the VEE rule.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 8:

Your client has the following requirements:

Many customers are installing their own solar electrical generation equipment. When these customers generate more electricity than required for their own use, the surplus can he exported back to the power grid.

In order to measure this generation, we have installed special scalar devices. These devices have separate registers to measure the energy generated (export) and the energy received (import) from the National Grid. Both reads will be stored in kWh, but the import is subtractive and export is consumptive.

What solution should you choose to configure the measuring component types for these specific requirements?

A. Create two service points: one for subtractive import and the other for consumptive export.

B. Create one new measuring component type for creating two measuring components (one for import and the other for export) that will be linked to one scalar device.

C. Create one new measuring component type for creating a new measuring component that will be linked to two different scalar devices (one for import and the other for export).

D. Create two new measuring component types (one for subtractive import and the other for consumptive export) to enable the creation of two measuring components that will be linked to one scalar device.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

When configuring the Get Scalar Details usage rule, which three attributes can be defined to retrieve scalar values? (Choose three.)

A. Unit of Measure

B. Device ID

C. Service Quantity Identifier

D. Time of Use

E. Service Point ID

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 10:

Which two plug-in spots can call the rating functionality using base package-supplied algorithm types? (Choose two.)

A. Adjustment Type – Adjustment FT Creation

B. Billable Charge Template

C. Bill Segment Type – Bill Segment Create

D. Adjustment Type – Generate

E. Bill Segment Type – Bill Segment FT Creation

Correct Answer: AE


Question 11:

If a customer makes a payment for more than what is due for the account, which entity contains the logic for how this overpayment should be handled?

A. Tender Type

B. Installation Options

C. Customer Class

D. Pay Segment Type

E. Service Agreement Type

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18733_01/pdf/E18368_V1_01.pdf


Question 12:

How many bill segment-related financial transactions do pay plans have?

A. depends on the number of payments that is part of the pay plan

B. one

C. depends on the number of bills that will contain the customer\’s pay plan commitments

D. none

E. unlimited

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

For a customer to receive a Subscription communication, what must they have?

A. an active address contact preference

B. an active address type preference

C. an active person contact preference

D. an active account contact preference

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which configuration steps are required to derive loss-adjusted kWh on a measuring component based on a loss factor value related to a service point?

A. Configure a Service Point Characteristic Type and derivation algorithm, and then associate the algorithm to the Measuring Component Type and the characteristic value to the service point.

B. Configure an SQI and the derivation algorithm, and then associate the algorithm to the Measuring Component Type and SQI to the service point.

C. Configure a factor and derivation algorithm, and then associate the factor to the Measuring Component Type and the derivation algorithm to the service point.

D. Configure a factor and derivation algorithm, and then associate both to the Measuring Component Type and service point.

E. Configure a Service Point Characteristic Type, factor, derivation algorithm, and Service Quantity Identifier (SQI), and then associate the SQI and derivation algorithm to the Measuring Component Type and the characteristic value to the service point.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which entity defines the type of collection process to start based on age of debt, amount of debt, and type of customer?

A. Debt Class

B. Customer Class

C. Collection Class Control

D. Collection Class

E. Collection Process Template

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E28945_01/4.3 Collect Revenue/CCandB URM 4.3.2.1.pdf


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Question 1:

HOTSPOT

A company orders parts from a vendor. The vendor frequently ships more units than the company orders.

An approving manager must receive notification when the quantity of units received is more than 10 percent above the number of units ordered.

You have an existing notification workflow.

You need to ensure that the notification is generated.

How should you configure the system? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

HOTSPOT

A company implements Dynamics 365 Sales to manage sales prospects.

A salesperson must create a customer record for a new client in Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management.

You need to create a sales order from an existing quote.

What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

HOTSPOT

A company plans to use Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management to automatically calculate and process royalties.

You need to configure the system.

Which actions should you perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 4:

HOTSPOT

A company hires four sales representatives for a region named Midwest.

You must configure commissions for the sales representatives in the Midwest region. The calculations must meet the following requirements:

Calculate commissions for all items sold for customers at a rate of 10 percent of total revenue on a sales order.

Apply commissions for all customers in the Midwest Customer group for commission.

Split commissions equally between the representatives.

You need to configure a commission calculation that meets these requirements.

How should you configure the calculation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

HOTSPOT

A company creates loads to ship sales orders.

Loads must be shipped by using the lowest freight rates possible.

You need to use the load planning workbench to create a load for sales order shipments.

Which configuration options should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 6:

HOTSPOT

A company must set up replenishment of inventory using vendor-owned consignment inventory.

You need to create the replenishment order.

How should you complete the replenishment order? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/inventory/tasks/create-consignment-replenishment-order


Question 7:

HOTSPOT

A company uses outside carrier services for inbound and outbound deliveries.

Carrier services must be scheduled so that all trucks do not show up at the same time.

You need to configure the c module to schedule the loads.

How should you set up dock appointments? To answer, select the appropriate options i the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/plan-appointments-for-a-load


Question 8:

HOTSPOT

A company uses several freight carriers. Freight is calculated by mileage.

You need to configure the system.

Which values should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/supply-chain/transportation/transportation-management-engines


Question 9:

HOTSPOT

An airport uses Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management. You purchase new baggage-sorting hardware.

You must add both the hardware and the service contract for the hardware to the product hierarchy.

You need to configure the category node.

What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 10:

HOTSPOT

Inventory in a warehouse is assigned to an inventory status of available.

You need to set up an inventory status for damaged items so that they are not sold to customers.

Which values should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

HOTSPOT

A company sells a new product line. Buyers purchase a large shipment into the distribution center.

The product must be divided among the retail stores equally.

You need to configure buyer push functionality.

Which configuration options should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 12:

HOTSPOT

An inventory control clerk manages adjustments in inventory.

Some adjustments have a cost impact. Other adjustments must be posted to a specific ledger account or must be registered in inventory.

You need to configure the system.

Which journal types should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

SIMULATION

You are a functional consultant for a company named Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF).

You need to regenerate a master plan named DynPlan for item number D0023.

To complete this task, sign in to Dynamics 365 portal.

Correct Answer: See below.

You specify the planning method in the Master planning run dialog box. To open this dialog box, go to Master planning > Master planning > Run > Master planning, or select Run in the Master planning workspace.

Regeneration

The regeneration planning method deletes existing planned orders, unless they are firmed. It generates new planned orders, based on all the requirements. Regeneration is the only planning method that is available for static plans.

1.

Changes in supply are considered. These changes include changes in the forecast.

2.

This method respects the Period coverage code.

3.

This method supports product substitution functionality (PI).

Select DynPlan in the Master Plan field.

Select Regeneration in the Planning Method field.

Enter D0023 in the Item Number field.


Question 14:

SIMULATION

You are a functional consultant for a company named Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF).

You need to generate a requisition for the supply of 50 units of a product named Lifecam HD 5000, and then submit the requisition for approval.

To complete this task, sign in to Dynamics 365 portal.

Correct Answer: See below.

Create a new requisition

1.

Go to Navigation pane > Modules > Procurement and sourcing > Purchase requisitions > Purchase requisitions prepared by me.

2.

Select New.

3.

In the Name field, give the requisition a name.

4.

In the Requested date field, enter a date.

5.

In the Accounting date field, enter a date. Select OK.

6.

In the Reason field, select an option from the drop-down menu. Select the reason.

7.

In the details field enter a more descriptive justification for the requisition.

Add a line to the requisition

1.

Select Add line. There are two ways of adding lines to the purchase requisition. If you already know the product number or you already know that you are requesting a product that is not in the product catalog, then you can add the line directly with Add line. The other way is to use Add products where you can use searching and filtering to find items in the product catalog.

2.

Select the row you just created.

3.

In the Item number field, type a value. The items that are available for you to choose are limited by the category access policy and the procurement catalog for the buying legal entity.

4.

In the Quantity field, enter a number.

Submit the requisition

1.

Select Workflow to open the drop dialog.

2.

Select Submit.

3.

Close the page.

4.

In the Comment field, type a note for the approver of the requisition.

5.

Select Submit.

6.

Close the page.

7.

Refresh the page.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/supply-chain/procurement/tasks/create-requisition-consumption


Question 15:

SIMULATION

You are a functional consultant for a company named Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF).

Sales order number 000754 contains a delivery detail of three ruggedized laser projectors. The customer reports that only two projectors were delivered.

You need to update the packing slip for the sales order.

To complete this task, sign in to Dynamics 365 portal.

Correct Answer: See below.

1.

Select Sales and marketing > Common > Sales orders > All sales orders.

2.

Search for and select sales order number 000754.

3.

On the Pick and pack tab, select Packing slip to open the packing slip.

4.

Click on the Correct button.

5.

On the Parameters FastTab, in the Quantity field, enter 2.

6.

Set the Posting option to Yes to post the packing slip.

7.

Set the Print packing slip option to Yes to print the packing slip when it\’s posted.