Month: August 2022

[PDF and VCE] Free HPE6-A78 PDF Real Exam Questions and Answers Free Download

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Question 1:

A company is deploying ArubaOS-CX switches to support 135 employees, which will tunnel client traffic to an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC) for the MC to apply firewall policies and deep packet inspection (DPI). This MC will be dedicated to receiving traffic from the ArubaOS-CX switches.

What are the licensing requirements for the MC?

A. one AP license per-switch

B. one PEF license per-switch

C. one PEF license per-switch. and one WCC license per-switch

D. one AP license per-switch. and one PEF license per-switch

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which is a correct description of a stage in the Lockheed Martin kill chain?

A. In the delivery stage, malware collects valuable data and delivers or exfilltrated it to the hacker.

B. In the reconnaissance stage, the hacker assesses the impact of the attack and how much information was exfilltrated.

C. In the weaponization stage, which occurs after malware has been delivered to a system, the malware executes Its function.

D. In the exploitation and installation phases, malware creates a backdoor into the infected system for the hacker.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

You are deploying a new ArubaOS Mobility Controller (MC), which is enforcing authentication to Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM). The authentication is not working correctly, and you find the error shown In the exhibit in the CPPM Event Viewer.

What should you check?

A. that the MC has been added as a domain machine on the Active Directory domain with which CPPM is synchronized

B. that the snared secret configured for the CPPM authentication server matches the one defined for the device on CPPM

C. that the IP address that the MC is using to reach CPPM matches the one defined for the device on CPPM

D. that the MC has valid admin credentials configured on it for logging into the CPPM

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

A diem is connected to an ArubaOS Mobility Controller. The exhibit snows all Tour firewall rules that apply to this diem

What correctly describes how the controller treats HTTPS packets to these two IP addresses, both of which are on the other side of the firewall?

10.1 10.10

203.0.13.5

A. It drops both of the packets

B. It permits the packet to 10.1.10.10 and drops the packet to 203 0.13.5

C. it permits both of the packets

D. It drops the packet to 10.1.10.10 and permits the packet to 203.0.13.5.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is one way that WPA3-PerSonal enhances security when compared to WPA2- Personal?

A. WPA3-Perscn3i is more secure against password leaking Because all users nave their own username and password

B. WPA3-Personai prevents eavesdropping on other users\’ wireless traffic by a user who knows the passphrase for the WLAN.

C. WPA3-Personai is more resistant to passphrase cracking Because it requires passphrases to be at least 12 characters

D. WPA3-Personal is more complicated to deploy because it requires a backend authentication server

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You have been asked to rind logs related to port authentication on an ArubaOS-CX switch for events logged in the past several hours But. you are having trouble searching through the logs. What is one approach that you can take to find the relevant logs?

A. Add the “-C and *-c port-access” options to the “show logging” command.

B. Configure a logging Tiller for the “port-access” category, and apply that filter globally.

C. Enable debugging for “portaccess” to move the relevant logs to a buffer.

D. Specify a logging facility that selects for “port-access” messages.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

How can you use the thumbprint?

A. Install this thumbprint on management stations to use as two-factor authentication along with manager usernames and passwords, this will ensure managers connect from valid stations

B. Copy the thumbprint to other Aruba switches to establish a consistent SSH Key for all switches this will enable managers to connect to the switches securely with less effort

C. When you first connect to the switch with SSH from a management station, make sure that the thumbprint matches to ensure that a man-in-t he-mid die (MITM) attack is not occurring

D. install this thumbprint on management stations the stations can then authenticate with the thumbprint instead of admins having to enter usernames and passwords.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What is a benefit of deploying Aruba ClearPass Device insight?

A. Highly accurate endpoint classification for environments with many devices types, including Internet of Things (loT)

B. visibility into devices\’ 802.1X supplicant settings and automated certificate deployment

C. Agent-based analysts of devices\’ security settings and health status, with the ability to implement quarantining

D. Simpler troubleshooting of ClearPass solutions across an environment with multiple ClearPass Policy Managers

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What are the roles of 802.1X authenticators and authentication servers?

A. The authenticator stores the user account database, while the server stores access policies.

B. The authenticator supports only EAP, while the authentication server supports only RADIUS.

C. The authenticator is a RADIUS client and the authentication server is a RADIUS server.

D. The authenticator makes access decisions and the server communicates them to the supplicant.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

A company has Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Aruba campus APs. and ArubaOS-CX switches. The company plans to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to classify endpoints by type The ClearPass admins tell you that they want to run Network scans as part of the solution.

What should you do to configure the infrastructure to support the scans?

A. Create a TA profile on the ArubaOS-Switches with the root CA certificate for ClearPass\’s HTTPS certificate

B. Create device fingerprinting profiles on the ArubaOS-Switches that include SNMP. and apply the profiles to edge ports

C. Create remote mirrors on the ArubaOS-Swrtches that collect traffic on edge ports, and mirror it to CPPM\’s IP address.

D. Create SNMPv3 users on ArubaOS-CX switches, and make sure that the credentials match those configured on CPPM

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What is a difference between radius and TACACS ?

A. RADIUS combines the authentication and authorization process while TACACS separates them.

B. RADIUS uses TCP for Its connection protocol, while TACACS uses UDP tor its connection protocol.

C. RADIUS encrypts the complete packet, white TACACS only offers partial encryption.

D. RADIUS uses Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) in its messages, while TACACS does not use them.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You have been instructed to look in the ArubaOS Security Dashboard\’s client list Your goal is to find clients mat belong to the company and have connected to devices that might belong to hackers.

Which client fits this description?

A. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6d;a4; Client Classification Authorized; AP Classification, interfering

B. MAC address d8:50:e6 f3;6e;c5; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Neighbor

C. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6e;60; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Interfering

D. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;TO;ab; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Rogue

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

From which solution can ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) receive detailed information about client device type OS and status?

A. ClearPass Onboard

B. ClearPass Access Tracker

C. ClearPass OnGuard

D. ClearPass Guest

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

You are troubleshooting an authentication issue for Aruba switches that enforce 802 IX10 a cluster of Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPMs) You know that CPPM Is receiving and processing the authentication requests because the Aruba switches are showing Access-Rejects in their statistics However, you cannot find the record tor the Access- Rejects in CPPM Access Tracker.

What is something you can do to look for the records?

A. Make sure that CPPM cluster settings are configured to show Access-Rejects

B. Verify that you are logged in to the CPPM Ul with read-write, not read-only, access

C. Click Edit in Access viewer and make sure that the correct servers are selected.

D. Go to the CPPM Event Viewer, because this is where RADIUS Access Rejects are stored.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A company with 382 employees wants to deploy an open WLAN for guests. The company wants the experience to be as follows:

The company also wants to provide encryption for the network for devices mat are capable, you implement Tor the WLAN.

Which security options should?

A. WPA3-Personal and MAC-Auth

B. Captive portal and WPA3-Personai

C. Captive portal and Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) in transition mode

D. Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) and WPA3-Personal

Correct Answer: C


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[PDF and VCE] Free NSE7_SDW-6.4 PDF Real Exam Questions and Answers Free Download

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Question 1:

Refer to exhibits.

Exhibit A shows the traffic shaping policy and exhibit B shows the firewall policy.

FortiGate is not performing traffic shaping as expected, based on the policies shown in the exhibits.

To correct this traffic shaping issue on FortiGate, what configuration change must be made on which

policy?

A. The URL category must be specified on the traffic shaping policy.

B. The shaper mode must be applied per-IP shaper on the traffic shaping policy.

C. The web filter profile must be enabled on the firewall policy.

D. The application control profile must be enabled on the firewall policy.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which statement defines how a per-IP traffic shaper of 10 Mbps is applied to the entire network?

A. The 10 Mbps bandwidth is shared equally among the IP addresses.

B. Each IP is guaranteed a minimum 10 Mbps of bandwidth.

C. FortiGate allocates each IP address a maximum 10 Mbps of bandwidth.

D. A single user uses the allocated bandwidth divided by total number of users.

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/885253/per-ip-traffic-shaper


Question 3:

Which three parameters are available to configure SD-WAN rules? (Choose three.)

A. Application signatures

B. Incoming interface

C. Internet service database (ISDB) address object

D. Source and destination IP address

E. Type of physical link connection

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 4:

Which diagnostic command you can use to show interface-specific SLA logs for the last 10 minutes?

A. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link health-check

B. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link log

C. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link sla-log

D. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link intf-sla-log

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/943037/sla-logging


Question 5:

Which diagnostic command can you use to show the SD-WAN rules interface information and state?

A. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link route-tag-list.

B. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link service.

C. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link member.

D. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link neighbor.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/818746/sd-wan-related-diagnosecommands


Question 6:

Refer to exhibits.

Exhibit A shows the performance SLA exhibit B shows the SD-WAN diagnostics output. Based on the exhibits, which statement is correct?

A. Port1 became dead because no traffic was offload through the egress of port1.

B. SD-WAN member interfaces are affected by the SLA state of the inactive interface.

C. Both SD-WAN member interfaces have used separate SLA targets.

D. The SLA state of port1 is dead after five unanswered requests by the SLA servers.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which statement is correct about the SD-WAN and ADVPN?

A. Spoke support dynamic VPN as a static interface.

B. Dynamic VPN is not supported as an SD-WAN interface.

C. ADVPN interface can be a member of SD-WAN interface.

D. Hub FortiGate is limited to use ADVPN as SD-WAN member interface.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Refer to exhibits.

Exhibit A shows the source NAT global setting and exhibit B shows the routing table on FortiGate.

Based on the exhibits, which two statements about increasing the port2 interface priority to 20 are true? (Choose two.)

A. All the existing sessions that do not use SNAT will be flushed and routed through port1.

B. All the existing sessions will continue to use port2, and new sessions will use port1.

C. All the existing sessions using SNAT will be flushed and routed through port1.

D. All the existing sessions will be blocked from using port1 and port2.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 9:

Which components make up the secure SD-WAN solution?

A. FortiGate, FortiManager, FortiAnalyzer, and FortiDeploy

B. Application, antivirus, and URL, and SSL inspection

C. Datacenter, branch offices, and public cloud

D. Telephone, ISDN, and telecom network

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the status of the VPN tunnel are true? (Choose two.)

A. There are separate virtual interfaces for each dial-up client.

B. VPN static routes are prevented from populating the FortiGate routing table.

C. FortiGate created a single IPsec virtual interface that is shared by all clients.

D. 100.64.3.1 is one of the remote IP address that comes through index interface 1.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 11:

Refer to exhibits.

Exhibit A shows the SD-WAN rules and exhibit B shows the traffic logs. The SD-WAN traffic logs reflect how FortiGate processed traffic.

Which two statements about how the configured SD-WAN rules are processing traffic are true? (Choose two.)

A. The implicit rule overrides all other rules because parameters widely cover sources and destinations.

B. SD-WAN rules are evaluated in the same way as firewall policies: from top to bottom.

C. The All_Access_Rules rule load balances Vimeo application traffic among SD-WAN member interfaces.

D. The initial session of an application goes through a learning phase in order to apply the correct rule.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

What are the two minimum configuration requirements for an outgoing interface to be selected once the SD-WAN logical interface is enabled? (Choose two.)

A. Specify outgoing interface routing cost.

B. Configure SD-WAN rules interface preference.

C. Select SD-WAN balancing strategy.

D. Specify incoming interfaces in SD-WAN rules.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibit, which statement about FortiGate re-evaluating traffic is true?

A. The type of traffic defined and allowed on firewall policy ID 1 is UDP.

B. Changes have been made on firewall policy ID 1 on FortiGate.

C. Firewall policy ID 1 has source NAT disabled.

D. FortiGate has terminated the session after a change on policy ID 1.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What are two reasons why FortiGate would be unable to complete the zero-touch provisioning process? (Choose two.)

A. The FortiGate cloud key has not been added to the FortiGate cloud portal.

B. FortiDeploy has connected with FortiGate and provided the initial configuration to contact FortiManager.

C. FortiGAte has obtained a configuration from the platform template in FortiGate cloud.

D. A factory reset performed on FortiGate.

E. The zero-touch provisioning process has completed internally, behind FortiGate.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 15:

Which two statements reflect the benefits of implementing the ADVPN solution to replace conventional VPN topologies? (Choose two.)

A. It creates redundant tunnels between hub-and-spokes, in case failure takes place on the primary links.

B. It dynamically assigns cost and weight between the hub and the spokes, based on the physical distance.

C. It ensures that spoke-to-spoke traffic no longer needs to flow through the tunnels through the hub.

D. It provides direct connectivity between all sites by creating on-demand tunnels between spokes.

Correct Answer: CD


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Question 1:

Which setting in indexes. conf allows data retention to be controlled by time?

A. maxDaysToKeep

B. moveToFrozenAfter

C. maxDataRetentionTime

D. frozenTimePeriodlnSecs

Correct Answer: D

https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/latest/Indexer/Setaretirementandarchivingpolicy


Question 2:

The universal forwarder has which capabilities when sending data? (select all that apply)

A. Sending alerts

B. Compressing data

C. Obfuscating/hiding data

D. Indexer acknowledgement

Correct Answer: BD

https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.1/Forwarding/Aboutforwardingandreceivingdat a


Question 3:

In case of a conflict between a whitelist and a blacklist input setting, which one is used?

A. Blacklist

B. Whitelist

C. They cancel each other out.

D. Whichever is entered into the configuration first.

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.4/Data/Whitelistorblacklistspecificincomingdat a


Question 4:

In which Splunk configuration is the SEDCMD used?

A. props, conf

B. inputs.conf

C. indexes.conf

D. transforms.conf

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.5/Forwarding/Forwarddatatothird- partysystemsd


Question 5:

Which parent directory contains the configuration files in Splunk?

A. SSFLUNK_KOME/etc

B. SSPLUNK_HCME/var

C. SSPLUNK_HOME/conf

D. SSPLUNK_HOME/default

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which forwarder type can parse data prior to forwarding?

A. Universal forwarder

B. Heaviest forwarder

C. Hyper forwarder

D. Heavy forwarder

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which Splunk component consolidates the individual results and prepares reports in a distributed environment?

A. Indexers

B. Forwarder

C. Search head

D. Search peers

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which Splunk component distributes apps and certain other configuration updates to search head cluster members?

A. Deployer

B. Cluster master

C. Deployment server

D. Search head cluster master

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Where should apps be located on the deployment server that the clients pull from?

A. $SFLUNK_KOME/etc/apps

B. $SPLUNK_HCME/etc/sear:ch

C. $SPLUNK_HCME/etc/master-apps

D. $SPLUNK HCME/etc/deployment-apps

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

This file has been manually created on a universal forwarder

A new Splunk admin comes in and connects the universal forwarders to a deployment server and deploys the same app with a new

Which file is now monitored?

A. /var/log/messages

B. /var/log/maillog

C. /var/log/maillog and /var/log/messages

D. none of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

In which phase of the index time process does the license metering occur?

A. input phase

B. Parsing phase

C. Indexing phase

D. Licensing phase

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

You update a props. conf file while Splunk is running. You do not restart Splunk and you run this command: splunk btoo1 props list –debug. What will the output be?

A. list of all the configurations on-disk that Splunk contains.

B. A verbose list of all configurations as they were when splunkd started.

C. A list of props. conf configurations as they are on-disk along with a file path from which the configuration is located

D. A list of the current running props, conf configurations along with a file path from which the configuration was made

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

When running the command shown below, what is the default path in which deployment server.conf is created?

splunk set deploy-poll deployServer:port

A. SFLUNK_HOME/etc/deployment

B. SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/local

C. SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/default

D. SPLUNK_KOME/etc/apps/deployment

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

The priority of layered Splunk configuration files depends on the file\’s:

A. Owner

B. Weight

C. Context

D. Creation time

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

When configuring monitor inputs with whitelists or blacklists, what is the supported method of filtering the lists?

A. Slash notation

B. Regular expression

C. Irregular expression

D. Wildcard-only expression

Correct Answer: B


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[Newest Version] Free 250-430 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

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Question 1:

What can proxy servers do? (Choose three.)

A. Rewrite request messages

B. Interpret request messages

C. Block malicious content

D. Scan traffic for viruses

Correct Answer: ACD

Reference: https://origin-symwisedownload.symantec.com/resources/webguides/proxysg/security_first_steps/Content/PDFs/Malware_Prevention_Solution.pdf


Question 2:

A newly-shipped physical ProxySG contains what type of license?

A. Trial

B. Demo

C. Permanent

D. Provisional

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://origin-symwisedownload.symantec.com/resources/webguides/proxysg/6.2/acceleration_webguide/Content/02Tasks/Maintenance/view_license_information_ta.htm


Question 3:

Which Symantec product is best suited for simultaneously administering a large number of ProxySG appliances?

A. Reporter

B. PacketShaper

C. Content Analysis

D. Management Center

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Where is the WebFilter database stored? (Choose two.)

A. On clients\’ mobile devices

B. On a properly licensed ProxySG

C. At several data centers around the world

D. At third-party data centers

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

When does the ProxySG establish an Schannel?

A. When a client request is first received

B. When the client sends an NTLM type 2 message to ProxySG

C. When IWA authentication fails

D. When the client sends an NTLM type 3 message to the ProxySG

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Name three methods by which client configuration can be performed in an explicit ProxySG deployment. (Choose three.)

A. Configure the user agent to point to the IP address or hostname of the ProxySG

B. Configure the user agent to point to the location of a PAC file

C. Configure the user agent to use WPAD

D. Use Symantec Management Center to configure the user agent

E. Configure forwarding hosts on the ProxySG

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 7:

If you have configured continuous uploading of access logs and the ProxySG is unable to reach the upload destination, what happens to the log entries?

A. They are uploaded in real time to the backup upload destination configured in the Management Console

B. None of these answers

C. They are stored locally until the connection is re-established, and then they are uploaded

D. They are discarded

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

SGOS is based on which other operating system?

A. Unix

B. VxWorks

C. pSOS

D. None of these answers

E. Windows

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

When will a policy trace report a rule processing result of “N/A”?

A. When the rule is not reached during evaluation

B. When the rule makes no sense for the specific transaction being processed

C. When the layer containing the rule is disabled

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

SGOS is which of the following?

A. Linux-based

B. Windows-based

C. A custom-built operating system

D. A Symantec proprietary implementation of Unix

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

What does the SSL Proxy do by default?

A. Blocks encrypted traffic

B. Scans traffic for malware

C. Tunnels all HTTPS traffic

D. Intercepts all HTTPS traffic

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://wikileaks.org/spyfiles/files/0/219_BLUECOAT-SGOS_5.3.x_SSL_Proxy_Reference_Guide.pdf


Question 12:

What rules in a VPM layer are being evaluated, what causes evaluation to stop and proceed to the next layer?

A. A miss against the trigger in that rule

B. Neither a miss nor a match

C. A default policy of Deny

D. A match against the trigger in that rule

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which of the following are always included in both the request and response headers?

A. Information relevant to the connection between the client and the server

B. DNS query

C. ICAP version number

D. Cipher suite

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Does the policy trace flag malfunctioning policy?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

When policy created in the VPM is installed, what two files does the VPM update on the ProxySG? (Choose two.)

A. Local policy file

B. Central policy file

C. VPM-XML file

D. VPM-CPL file

Correct Answer: CD


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Question 1:

Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern?

A. Eavesdropping

B. Impersonating

C. Destructing

D. Altering

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

A software developer develops a software program and writes a document with step-by-step instructions on how to use the software. The developer wants to ensure no other person or company will publish this document for public use. Which of the following should the developer use to BEST protect the document?

A. Patent

B. Trademark

C. Watermark

D. Copyright

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which of the following database concepts would MOST likely use a CSV file?

A. Data querying

B. Data reports

C. Data importing

D. Data persistence

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A help desk technician encounters an issue and wants to find out if a colleague has encountered the same issue before. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?

A. Check Knowledge Base.

B. Search local logs.

C. Research possible theories.

D. Question users.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following BEST describes the practice of providing user credentials when logging onto the network?

A. Output

B. Storage

C. Input

D. Processing

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which of the following allows wireless devices to communicate to a wired network?

A. Modem

B. Switch

C. Firewall

D. Access point

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which of the following computing devices would be used to provide a centralized means to distribute services to a group of clients and usually possesses a role on a LAN?

A. Laptop

B. Workstation

C. Mobile phone

D. Server

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which of the following describes something in a database that refers to the unique identifier in the parent table?

A. Attribute

B. Constraint

C. Foreign key

D. Schema

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

For which of the following is a relational database management system MOST commonly used?

A. Building flowcharts

B. Storing information

C. Generating reports

D. Creating diagrams

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following BEST describes an application running on a typical operating system?

A. Process

B. Thread

C. Function

D. Task

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

The broadcast signal from a recently installed wireless access point is not as strong as expected. Which of the following actions would BEST improve the signal strength?

A. Update from 802.11b to 802.11g.

B. Ensure sources of EMI are removed.

C. Enable WPA2-Enterprise.

D. Use WiFi Protected Setup.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A user is getting an error message when trying to go to a website. A technician asks the user a few questions to find out more about the issue. The technician opens a browser locally and browses to the same site as the user. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the technician using by browsing to the same site?

A. Establish a plan of action.

B. Gather information

C. Duplicate the problem.

D. Find the root cause.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

A user is attempting to print a document to a wireless printer and receives an error stating the operation could not be completed. Which of the following should the user do to correct this issue?

A. Ensure both devices are connected to the LAN.

B. Enable task scheduling.

C. Reset the proxy settings to their default values.

D. Review the fault tolerance configurations.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following relational database constructs is used to ensure valid values are entered for a column?

A. Schema

B. Permissions

C. Constraint

D. Column

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A user is buying a laptop. The user will have a lot of personal and confidential information on the laptop. The user wants to ensure data cannot be accessed by anyone, even if the laptop is stolen. Which of the following should be set up to accomplish this?

A. Encryption

B. Compression

C. Permissions

D. Auditing

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

When using a RMX recording link, what configuration is mandatory on the RSS?

A. None

B. Active Directory

C. Multicast

D. Encryption

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

The technique used for reproducing an analog waveform as a digital signal is called:

A. Transcoding

B. Decoding

C. Pulse Code Modulation

D. Reproduction

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Where can you customize the DTMF codes used by the RMX?

A. Entry Queue

B. Conference Profile

C. Meeting Room

D. IVR Service

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

High-Definition Videoconferencing will require and use:

A. the same camera from NTSC and PAL VTC systems

B. typical off the shelf web camera

C. high-definition camera

D. all of the above

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

During a H.323 Videoconference, what is the correct bandwidth used by the G.711 and G.722 audio algorithms in a 256K conference call?

A. 30,000 bits per second

B. 40,000 bits per second

C. 128,000 bits per second

D. 64,000 bits per second

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following most accurately defines white balance?

A. The amount of white pixels that appear in a video frame

B. A feature that eliminates noises distributed uniformly over the frequency spectrum

C. A feature that splits the signal between the red, green, and blue components to make white

D. A feature that adjusts the signal between the red, green, and blue components that yield white video signals.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?

A. G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723

B. G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726

C. G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729

D. G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

H.239 Standard is best described as:

A. Audio Coding and Additional Media Channels.

B. Role Management and Additional Far End Camera Control.

C. Role Management and Chair Control.

D. Role Management or People and Content Standard for H.300 Series.

E. Role Management -People and Content Standard for H.321 only.

F. Role Management -People and Content Standard for H.320 only.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?

A. G.711

B. G.722

C. G.729

D. G.728

E. G.722.1

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Select three ways to improve Videoconferencing over IP Quality of Service.

A. Use FTP- File Transfer Protocol

B. Use TFTP-Trivial File Transfer Protocol

C. Use UDP-User Datagram Protocol

D. Use MPLS-Multi-Protocol Labeled Switching Network

E. Use IP Precedence

F. Use HTTP-Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

G. Use Differentiated Code Point Services

H. Use LAN interface End to End

Correct Answer: DEG


Question 11:

H.320 Terminals that are able to call a Gateway and connect to an H.323 Terminal by dialing the E.164 alias, registered with the Gatekeeper, are called:

A. Obsolete H.320 Terminals.

B. H.323 Terminals.

C. H.221 Terminals.

D. TCS-4 Terminals.

E. T.120 Terminals.

F. H.321 Terminals.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Under normal operating conditions, Microphone and Audio amplification system should have sufficient _______ to operate without clipping.

A. amplitude bias space

B. 100db padding

C. no padding

D. headroom

E. videoroom

F. voltage feedback

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Digital Access Cross-Connect Systems are used for Networks that are:

A. Dedicated Digital Channel Time Division Multiplexing Networks.

B. Switched Digital Channel Multiplexing Networks.

C. Packet Network Routers.

D. Ethernet Switches.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Ethernet is capable of automatically sensing the speed and duplicity of the LAN connection by using which process?

A. Flash Link Pulse

B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

C. Domain Name Services

D. Light-weight Directory Access Protocol

E. Resource Reservation Protocol

F. RAS Protocol

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which of the following best describes and defines Packet Jitter?

A. Serious Packet Loss

B. Random Packet Discard

C. Packet Network Errors

D. Packet Delay Time End to End

E. Packet Delay Time Variation from Packet to Packet

Correct Answer: E


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Question 1:

Which four statements are true regarding primary and foreign key constraints and the effect they can have on table data?

A. Only the primary key can be defined at the column and table level.

B. The foreign key columns and parent table primary key columns must have the same names.

C. It is possible for child rows that have a foreign key to remain in the child table at the time the parent row is deleted.

D. A table can have only one primary key but multiple foreign keys.

E. Primary key and foreign key constraints can be defined at both the column and table level.

F. A table can have only one primary key and one foreign key.

G. It is possible for child rows that have a foreign key to be deleted automatically from the child table at the time the parent row is deleted

Correct Answer: CDEG


Question 2:

Which four statements are true about constraints on Oracle tables?

A. A Column can have only one CHECK Constraint.

B. A NOT NULL Constraint can be defined at the table level.

C. A UNIQUE constraint permits NULLS.

D. A PRIMARY KEY Constraint can be added after a table has been created and populated.

E. A CHECK Constraint can refer to values in other rows.

F. A UNIQUE Constraint can use a pre-existing index on the constrained column or columns.

G. A FOREIGN KEY Column can contain NULLS.

Correct Answer: CDFG


Question 3:

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT NULLIF(100, 100) FROM DUAL

B. SELECT COALESCE(100, NULL, 200) FROM DUAL

C. SELECT NULLIF(100, \’A\’) FROM DUAL

D. SELECT NULLIF(NULL, 100) FROM DUAL

E. SELECT COALESCE(100, \’A\’ ) FROM DUAL

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

Which three are true about multiple INSERT statements?

A. They can be performed only by using a subquery.

B. They can be performed on relational tables.

C. They can be performed on views.

D. They can be performed on remote tables.

E. They can be performed on external tables using SQL*Loader.

F. They can insert each computed row into more than one table.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 5:

Which two statements are true about CURRENT_TIMEITAMP?

A. The date is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

B. The value varies depending on the setting of SESSIONTIMEZONE.

C. It returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE.

D. The time is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

E. It returns a value of data type TIMESTAMP

F. It always returns the same value as SYSTIMESTAMP

Correct Answer: DF


Question 6:

Which three are true about granting object privileges on tables, views, and sequences?

A. UPDATE can be granted only on tables and views.

B. DELETE can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

C. REFERENCES can be granted only on tables and views.

D. INSERT can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

E. SELECT can be granted only on tables and views.

F. ALTER can be granted only on tables and sequences.

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 7:

Which two are true about the WITH GRANT OPTION clause?

A. The grantee can grant the object privilege to any user in the database, with of without including this option.

B. The grantee must have the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE system privilege to use this option.

C. It can be used when granting privileges to roles.

D. It can be used for system and object privileges.

E. It cannot be used to pass on privileges to PUBLIC by the grantee.

F. It can be used to pass on privileges to other users by the grantee.

Correct Answer: AF


Question 8:

Which two statements are true about INTERVAL data types

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a range of years.

B. The value in an INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND column can be copied into an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column.

C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a single year.

D. The YEAR field in an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column must be a positive value.

E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND columns support fractions of seconds.

F. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns support yearly intervals.

Correct Answer: EF


Question 9:

Which three statements are true about a self join?

A. It must be an inner join.

B. It can be an outer join.

C. The ON clause must be used.

D. It must be an equation.

E. The query must use two different aliases for the table.

F. The ON clause can be used.

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 10:

Which two statements are true about Oracle synonyms?

A. A synonym can have a synonym.

B. A synonym has an object number.

C. Any user can create a public synonym.

D. All private synonym names must be unique in the database.

E. A synonym can be created on an object in a package.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

The CUSTOMERS table has a CUST_CREDT_LIMIT column of data type number.

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’)) FROM customers;

B. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

C. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

D. SLECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’Not available\’) from customers;

E. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit,TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’NOT Available\’) FROM customers;

Correct Answer: DE


Question 12:

Which statement is true about aggregate functions?

A. The AVG function implicitly converts NULLS to zero

B. The MAX and MIN functions can be used on columns with character data types

C. Aggregate functions can be used in any clause of a SELECT statement

D. Aggregate functions can be nested to any number of levels

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which two statements are true about the COUNT function?

A. It can only be used for NUMBER data types.

B. COUNT (DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULLs in the INV_AMT column

C. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table including duplicate rows and rows containing NULLs in any column.

D. A SELECT statement using the COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause.

E. COUNT(inv_amt) returns the number of rows in a table including rows with NULL in the INV_AMT column.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 14:

In Which three situations does a new transaction always start?

A. When issuing a SELECT FOR UPDATE statement after a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement was issued in the same session

B. When issuing a CREATE INDEX statement after a CREATE TABLE statement completed unsuccessfully in the same session

C. When issuing a TRUNCATE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

D. When issuing a CREATE TABLE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

E. When issuing the first Data Manipulation Language (OML) statement after a COMMIT or ROLLBACK statement was issued in the same session

F. When issuing a DML statement after a DML statement filed in the same session.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 15:

You execute these commands:

CREATE TABLE customers (customer id INTEGER, customer name VARCHAR2 (20));

INSERT INTO customers VALUES (1`Custmoer1 `);

SAVEPOINT post insert;

INSERT INTO customers VALUES (2, \’Customer2 `);

SELECTCOUNT (*) FROM customers;

Which two, used independently, can replace so the query retums 1?

A. ROLLBACK;

B. COMMIT;

C. ROLIBACK TO SAVEPOINT post_ insert;

D. CONOIT TO SAVEPOINT post_ insert;

E. ROLLEBACK TO post_ insert;

Correct Answer: CE


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Question 1:

You have an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) load balancer distributing traffic via an evenly- weighted round robin policy to your back-end web servers. You notice that one of your web servers is receiving more traffic than other web servers. How can you resolve this to make sure traffic is evenly distributed across all back-end webservers?

A. Disable cookie-based session persistence on your backend set.

B. Change kee

C. Disable SSL configuration associated with your backend set.

D. Create separate listeners for each backend web server.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Balance/Concepts/balanceoverview.htm


Question 2:

Which two are Regional resources in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. Ephemeral public IPs

B. Compartments

C. Compute images

D. Dynamic groups

E. Block volume backups

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/General/Concepts/regions.htm


Question 3:

An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancy administrator is not able to delete a user in the tenancy. What can cause this issue?

A. User has multi-factor authentication (MFA) enabled.

B. User is member of an Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.

C. Users can be blocked but not deleted.

D. User needs to be deleted from federation Identity Provider (IdP) before deleting from IAM.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

You are a system administrator of your company and you are asked to manage updates and patches across all your compute instances running Oracle Linux in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). As part of your task, you need to apply all the latest kernel security updates to all instances. Which OCI service will allow you to complete this task?

A. Resource Manager

B. OS Management

C. Storage Gateway

D. Streaming

E. Registry

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/cloud-infrastructure/os-management-with-oracle-cloud-infrastructure


Question 5:

Which of the following statements is true about the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage serverside encryption?

A. Encryption of data encryption keys with a master encryption key is optional.

B. Customer-provided encryption keys are always stored in OCI Vault service.

C. Encryption is enabled by default and cannot be turned off.

D. Each object in a bucket is always encrypted with the same data encryption key.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Object/Tasks/usingyourencryptionkeys.htm


Question 6:

You need to set up instance principals so that an application running on an instance can call Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) public services, without the need to configure user credentials. A developer in your team has already configured

the application built using an OCI SDK to authenticate using the instance principals provider.

Which is NOT a necessary step to complete this set up?

A. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to specify which instances you want to allow to make API calls against services.

B. Generate Auth Tokens to enable instances in the dynamic group to authenticate with APIs.

C. Create a policy granting permissions to the dynamic group to access services in your compartment or tenancy.

D. Deploy the application and the SDK to all the instances that belong to the dynamic group.

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

https://blogs.oracle.com/cloud-infrastructure/announcing-instance-principals-for-identity- andaccess-management


Question 7:

You have been asked to create an Identity and Access Management (IAM) user that will authenticate to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) API endpoints. This user must not be given credentials that would allow them to log into the OCI

console.

Which two authentication options can you use? (Choose two.)

A. SSL certificate

B. API signing key

C. SSH key pair

D. PEM Certificate file

E. Auth token

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Identity/Tasks/managingcredentials.htm


Question 8:

You work for a health insurance company that stores a large number of patient health records in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage bucket named “HealthRecords”. Each record needs to be securely stored for a period of 5

years for regulatory compliance purposes and

cannot be modified, overwritten or deleted during this time period.

What can you do to meet this requirement?

A. Create an OCI Object Storage Lifecycle Policies rule to archive objects in the HealthRecords bucket for five years.

B. Create an OCI Object Storage time-bound Retention Rule on the HealthRecords bucket for five years. Enable Retention Rule Lock on this bucket.

C. Enable encryption on the HealthRecords bucket using your own vault master encryption keys.

D. Enable versioning on the HealthRecords bucket.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Object/Tasks/usingretentionrules.htm


Question 9:

Which two components cannot be deleted in your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Virtual Cloud Network? (Choose two.)

A. Service gateway

B. Default security list

C. Routing gateway

D. Default route table

E. Default subnet

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.oracle.com/a/ocom/docs/vcn-deployment-guide.pdf (4)


Question 10:

A financial firm is designing an application architecture for its online trading platform that must have high availability and fault tolerance.

Their solutions architect configured the application to use an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage bucket located in the US West (us-phoenix-1) region to store large amounts of financial data. The stored financial data in the bucket must

not be affected even if there is an outage in one of the Availability Domains or a complete region.

What should the architect do to avoid any costly

A. Create a new Object Storage bucket in another region and configure lifecycle policy to move data every 5 days.

B. Create a lifecycle policy to regularly send data from Standard to Archive storage.

C. Copy the Object Storage bucket to a block volume.

D. Create a replication policy to send data to a different bucket in another OCI region.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

As a solution architect, you are showcasing the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage feature about Object Versioning to a customer. Which statement is true in regards to OCI Object Storage Versioning?

A. Object versioning does not provide data protection against accidental or malicious object update, overwrite, or deletion.

B. By default, object versioning is disabled on a bucket.

C. A bucket that is versioning-enabled can have only and always will have a latest version of the object in the bucket.

D. Objects are physically deleted from a bucket when versioning is enabled.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Object/Tasks/usingversioning.htm


Question 12:

You created a public subnet and an internet gateway in your virtual cloud network (VCN) of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. The public subnet has an associated route table and security list. However, after creating several compute instances in the public subnet, none can reach the Internet. Which two are possible reasons for the connectivity issue? (Choose two.)

A. The route table has no default route for routing traffic to the internet gateway.

B. There is no stateful egress rule in the security list associated with the public subnet.

C. There is no dynamic routing gateway (DRG) associated with the VCN.

D. There is no stateful ingress rule in the security list associated with the public subnet.

E. A NAT gateway is needed to enable the communication flow to internet.

Correct Answer: AB

An internet gateway as an optional virtual router that connects the edge of the VCN with the internet. To use the gateway, the hosts on both ends of the connection must have public IP addresses for routing. Connections that originate in your VCN and are destined for a public IP address (either inside or outside the VCN) go through the internet gateway. Connections that originate outside the VCN and are destined for a public IP address inside the VCN go through the internet gateway. Working with Internet Gateways You create an internet gateway in the context of a specific VCN. In other words, the internet gateway is automatically attached to a VCN. However, you can disable and re-enable the internet gateway at any time. Compare this with a dynamic routing gateway (DRG), which you create as a standalone object that you then attach to a particular VCN. DRGs use a different model because they\’re intended to be modular building blocks for privately connecting VCNs to your on-premises network. For traffic to flow between a subnet and an internet gateway, you must create a route rule accordingly in the subnet\’s route table (for example, destination CIDR = 0.0.0.0/0 and target = internet gateway). If the internet gateway is disabled, that means no traffic will flow to or from the internet even if there\’s a route rule that enables that traffic. For more information, see Route Tables. For the purposes of access control, you must specify the compartment where you want the internet gateway to reside. If you\’re not sure which compartment to use, put the internet gateway in the same compartment as the cloud network. For more information, see Access Control. You may optionally assign a friendly name to the internet gateway. It doesn\’t have to be unique, and you can change it later. Oracle automatically assigns the internet gateway a unique identifier called an Oracle Cloud ID (OCID). For more information, see Resource Identifiers. To delete an internet gateway, it does not have to be disabled, but there must not be a route table that lists it as a target. AS per compute instances can connect to the Internet so you use egress no ingress


Question 13:

You are designing a lab exercise for your team that has a large number of graphics with large file sizes. The application becomes unresponsive if the graphics are embedded in the application. You have uploaded the graphics to Oracle Cloud

Infrastructure and only added the URL in the application. You need to ensure these graphics are accessible without requiring any authentication for an extended period of time.

How can you achieve these requirements?

A. Create pre-authenticated requests (PAR) and specify 00:00:0000 as the expiration time.

B. Make the object storage bucket private and all objects public and use the URL found in the Object “Details”.

C. Make the object storage bucket public and use the URL found in the Object “Details”.

D. Create PARs and do not specify an expiration date.

Correct Answer: C

Pre-authenticated requests provide a way to let you access a bucket or an object without having your own credentials. For example, you can create a request that lets you upload backups to a bucket without owning API keys.

When you create a bucket, the bucket is considered a private bucket and the access to the bucket and bucket contents requires authentication and authorization. However, Object Storage supports anonymous, unauthenticated access to a

bucket. You make a bucket public by enabling read access to the bucket.

pre-authenticated requests have to select expiration date


Question 14:

You have setup your environment as shown below with the Mount Target “MT” successfully mounted on both compute instances CLIENT-X and CLIENT-Y.

For security reasons you want to control the access to the File System A in such a way that CLIENT-X has READ/WRITE and CLIENT-Y has READ only permission.

What you should do?

A. Update the OS firewall in CLIENT-X to allow READ/WRITE access.

B. Update the security list TWO to restrict CLIENT-Y access to read-only.

C. Update the mount target export options to restrict CLIENT-Y access to read-only.

D. Update the security list ONE to restrict CLIENT-Y access to read only.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which two methods are supported for migrating your on-premises Oracle database to an Oracle Autonomous Transaction Processing (ATP) database in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. Load text files into ATP using SQL Developer.

B. Use RMAN duplicate.

C. Use Oracle Data Pump.

D. Transfer the physical database files and re-create the database.

E. Use database backup and restore.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/en/solutions/migrate-to-atp/index.html#GUID-28E5A683-6DC6-4A07- BB1C-55F020D4C1CD


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