Month: July 2022

Free Sharing Updated 2V0-71.21 VCE and PDF Exam Practice Materials

How to pass 2V0-71.21 exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid 2V0-71.21 new questions to boost your success rate in VCP-AM 2021 2V0-71.21 Professional VMware Application Modernization exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We 2V0-71.21 actual tests, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our VCP-AM 2021 materials.

Visit our site to get more 2V0-71.21 Q and As:https://www.itexambus.com/2v0-71-21.html (55 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

Which is the correct option to forward logs from Tanzu Kubernetes Grid clusters to Elastic, Kafka, Splunk or an HTTP endpoint?

A. No action is required. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid automatically forwards the logfiles to syslog.

B. Use the kubectl get logs command to forward the logs

C. Deploy the fluent bit plugin to vRealize Log Insight

D. Deploy the fluent bit plugin to vRealize Log Insight

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

In the following StorageClass manifest, which field is used to specify the Volume Plugin driver used for underlying storage array?

A. type

B. name

C. parameters

D. provisioner

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which step must be taken to enable Kubernetes auditing on a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster?

A. Set the ENABLE_AUDIT_LOGGING variable to ‘true’ before deploying the cluster

B. Run systemctl start auditd andand systemctl enable auditd on master node

C. Audit is enabled by default on every Tanzu cluster

D. Edit /etc/kubernetes/audit-policy.yaml and set ENABLE_AUDIT variable to ‘1’ on master node

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

What command would an administrator use to upgrade the Tanzu Management Cluster?

A. apt-get install -y kubeadm

B. tkg management-upgrade

C. tanzu-upgrade-mgt

D. tkg upgrade management-cluster

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What does an administrator need to install to attach a Kubernetes cluster to Tanzu Mission Control (TMC)?

A. TMC service

B. The agent is already installed

C. Cluster agent extensions

D. TMC agent pack

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Choose two supported functionalities when enabling Workload Management with a VMware vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose two.)

A. NSX Advanced Load Balancer

B. NSX Load Balancer

C. Tanzu Kubernetes clusters

D. Embedded Harbor Registry

E. vSphere Pods

Correct Answer: CD


Question 7:

What is the advantage of connecting the Tanzu Kubernetes Grid (TKG) CLI to a vSphere with Tanzu Supervisor Cluster?

A. Tanzu Kubernetes clusters can be managed with vCenter Server Graphical User Interface console.

B. Kubernetes objects can be created via vCenter Server VAMI interface.

C. Tanzu Kubernetes clusters can be managed with ESXi Host Client.

D. Tanzu Kubernetes clusters can be deployed to vSphere with Tanzu and manage their lifecycle directly

from the TKG CLI.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

What is the default authentication implemented in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid?

A. Keycloak

B. Vault

C. Dex and Gangway

D. kube-oidc-proxy

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

After successfully configuring vSphere Container Storage Interface (CSI), what is the path an administrator can follow to view the status of the container volumes?

A. Describe the StorafeClass via kubectl.

B. vSAN Data Store in ESXi Host Client.

C. Get the status of the pods vis kubectl.

D. Container volumes in vSphere Client.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What are the infrastructure services prerequisites to enable Tanzu in vSphere? (Choose all that apply.)

A. DHCP

B. Active directory

C. Firewall

D. DNS

E. NTP

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 11:

A Tanzu Mission Control administrator would like to enforce the following container controls:

Require Digest.

Name-Tag Allowlist.

To which type of policies do these controls belong to?

A. Security

B. Registry

C. Access

D. Network

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A customer needs to use Kubernetes and wants to use networking solution, Antrea. Which product from Tanzu portfolio should the customer use?

A. Tanzu Application Catalog

B. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid

C. Tanzu Mission Control

D. Tanzu Observability

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What is the object in Kubernetes used to grant permissions to a cluster wide resource?

A. ClusterRoleAccess

B. RoleBinding

C. ClusterRoleBinding

D. RoleReference

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What are two ClusterAPI providers being used in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid? (Choose two.)

A. CAPZ

B. CAPA

C. CAP

D. CAPW

E. CAPV

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

How are Tanzu Kubernetes clusters upgraded?

A. Deploy a new cluster with upgraded Kubernetes release

B. Rolling upgrades

C. Clusters are only upgraded offline

D. In-place upgrade for each node

Correct Answer: B


Visit our site to get more 2V0-71.21 Q and As:https://www.itexambus.com/2v0-71-21.html (55 QAs Dumps)

[PDF and VCE] Free E20-393 PDF Real Exam Questions and Answers Free Download

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your E20-393 exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Implementation Engineer E20-393 Unity Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update E20-393 actual tests. With We latest E20-393 vce, you’ll pass the Implementation Engineer E20-393 Unity Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers exam in an easy way

Visit our site to get more E20-393 Q and As:https://www.pass4king.com/e20-393.html (297 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

Which feature is supported on a UnityVSA operating environment?

A. Asynchronous Replication

B. MCC Write Caching

C. Quick Start Pool Provisioning

D. Data at Rest Encryption

Correct Answer: A

Asynchronous Unified Replication is available natively on UnityVSA. This allows file and block resources to be replicated between UnityVSA systems, between UnityVSA and physical Unity systems, and also locally back to the same UnityVSA system


Question 2:

A storage administrator is creating a host profile in Unisphere to provide host access to block storage resources using the iSCSI protocol. The host initiators were not automatically discovered and must be manually added. In addition to the SAN host IQN, what other configuration can be performed through the “Create iSCSI Initiator Wizard” window?

A. Enable and disable CHAP settings

B. Create Mutual CHAP secret

C. Create Global CHAP secret

D. Enter CHAP username and secret

Correct Answer: D

A sample from a Broadcomm BIOS is provided in the figure below, illustrating the IQN assignment for the VNX iSCSI target.

References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/hardware/technical-documentation/h8229-vnx-vmware-tb.pdf (page 34)


Question 3:

Which technology is used by Unity Snapshots?

A. Copy on First Write

B. Inline Deduplication

C. Redirect on Write

D. Block Compression

Correct Answer: C

The technology used for snapshots of both block and file resources in Unity is called redirect on write.


Question 4:

A system administrator is configuring asynchronous remote replication for an existing NAS server and its\’ file systems on a Unity system. What should the administrator create to ensure all data is replicated for the NAS server and the file system?

A. Replication sessions on each file system only

B. Replication sessions for each file system first and then the NAS server

C. A replication session on the NAS server and then manually create replication sessions on each file system

D. A replication session for only the NAS server

Correct Answer: D

Before File Systems or VMware NFS Datastores can be replicated, the NAS Server must be replicated.


Question 5:

Which Unity feature provides a high bandwidth connection for large file transfers, enables proactive Service Request generation and usage license reporting, and operates on a 24×7 basis?

A. EMC Service Center

B. Software Licensing Central

C. Unisphere Central

D. EMC Secure Remote Services

Correct Answer: D

Benefit from secure, high-speed, 24×7 predictive monitoring and remote repair for your EMC information infrastructure. EMC Secure Remote Services (ESRS) enables EMC Customer Service to identify and proactively resolve potential issues

before they can impact your business.

Incorrect Answers:

C: Unisphere Central enables administrators to remotely monitor multiple EMC VNX Series, EMC VNXe Series, EMC CLARiiON CX4 Series, and EMC vVNX storage systems residing on a common network.


Question 6:

Which software bundles are provided with the Unity Starter software package?

A. FAST Cache and Fast VP

B. Thin Provisioning and Quality of Service

C. Controller-Based Encryption and RecoverPoint Basic

D. FAST Cache and Local Point-in-Time Copies

Correct Answer: A

The UnityVSA offers a dynamic deployment model that allows you to start for free and grow as business needs evolve.

UnityVSA include:

FAST Cache leverages the performance of Flash media to improve workloads that are interfacing with spinning disk media.

Fully Automated Storage Tiering for Virtual Pools (FAST VP) ensures your data is distributed effectively across the various media types in a multi-tier pool.

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15084-emc-unity-introduction-to-the-unity-platform.pdf (page 20)


Question 7:

When configuring asynchronous remote replication, how many internal Unity Snapshots are configured and utilized on the source system by a single replication session?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: B

Internal Snapshot (Replication Snapshot) are Unity Snapshots created by the system which are part of an asynchronous replication session. These Snapshots can be viewed in Unisphere, but user operations are not permitted. Each asynchronous replication session uses two internal snapshots taken on the source and destination storage resources.


Question 8:

A storage administrator is implementing FAST Cache on a Unity 500 storage array and can select from a mix of SSD drives. Which drive types can be configured to meet the administrator\’s requirements?

A. 200 GB and 400 GB

B. 400GB and 1.6 TB

C. 1.6 TB and 3.2 TB

D. 3.2 TB and 800 GB

Correct Answer: A

Unity 500 FAST Cache is only supported by 200 GB and 400 GB SSD hard drives.

Reference: http://www.emc.com/collateral/data-sheet/h14958-unity-hybrid-family-ss.pdf (page 5)


Question 9:

A storage administrator is required to test a new version of an application loaded on a secondary host. The administrator must use existing data contained on a LUN provisioned from Unity to a primary host.

Which solution will meet the requirement and provide space efficiency?

A. Create a snapshot of the LUN Configure LUN access for the secondary host Attach the snapshot to the secondary host

B. Create a snapshot of the LUN Configure snapshot access to the LUN for the secondary host Attach the snapshot to the secondary host

C. Create a Synchronous Replication session for the LUN Configure access to the replica LUN for the secondary host Attach the secondary host

D. Create an Asynchronous Replication on session for the LUN Configure access to the replica LUN for the secondary host Attach the secondary host

Correct Answer: B

Attaching a snapshot is only applicable for block snapshots, and makes the snapshot available for host IO. A host must have Snapshot access or LUN and Snapshot access configured in order to access the snapshot. When a snapshot is attached, Unisphere provides the option to create a copy of the snapshot in case the administrator wants to preserve the current snapshot view for future use.


Question 10:

Which Dell EMC UnityXT system user interface allows system administrators to create scripts for automating routine tasks?

A. Unisphere Central

B. UEMCLI

C. IPMI

D. Unisphere GUI

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/en-us/collaterals/unauth/white-papers/products/storage/h15085-dell-emc-unity-unisphere-overview.pdf


Question 11:

A system administrator has configured a system using the Initial Configuration wizard. After completing the wizard, the administrator discovers that an incorrect IP address has been assigned to the Unity system. How can the IP address be changed?

A. The IP address cannot be changed once it has been configured

B. Through the Service interface using the ifconfig command

C. In the Unisphere Settings menu

D. The IP address can only be changed using the UEMCLI

Correct Answer: D

The svc_initial_config UEMCLI command sets up initial system configuration. It configures a management IP address when the Connection Utility (CU) is not available on the network. If an address is set, this command can also change the management IPv4 and IPv6 configuration mode. It attempts to configure the system with the given friendly name and/or network parameters.

Note: The Unisphere CLI (UEMCLI) is a tool that provides us with the CLI access to perform the same actions as one would on the Unisphere web interface. References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu69328.pdf (page 60)


Question 12:

What is the maximum number of LUNs in a Consistency Group?

A. 25

B. 50

C. 75

D. 100

Correct Answer: C

The consistency group (CG) term is used for grouping several LUNs together in order to ensure write-order consistency over several volumes. Each LUN can contain up to 2 TB, and the total supported capacity can be up to 150 TB. References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RecoverPoint


Question 13:

Which migration tool can be used to move file data a Unity storage array in both NFS and CIFS/SMB protocols?

A. EMC Select Datadobi

B. Unity Async Replication

C. rsync

D. EMCopy

Correct Answer: D

EMcopy will work to copy the data from Solaris host to export CIFS and NFS including the security configuration. References: https://it.toolbox.com/question/copy-data-from-nfs-shared-file-systems-to-nfs-and-cifs-101012


Question 14:

Which step must be completed prior to performing the initial configuration of a UnityVSA system and creating the first storage pool?

A. Create an ESXi host profile

B. License the system for NFS and SMB support

C. Add vDisks to the storage appliance

D. Install license keys for thin provisioning

Correct Answer: C

UNITY VSA STORAGE POOL CREATION

1.

Under the Storage Pool Section go to Pools. Select the to start the “Create Pool Wizard”.

2.

Name the Pool

3.

Assign a Tier to each Virtual Disk attached to the VSA. You have Extreme, Performance and Capacity.

Etc.

References: https://samshouseblog.com/2016/06/08/unity-vsa-storage-pool-creation/


Question 15:

What is the minimum and maximum recovery point objectives (RPO) configurable when using Unity native asynchronous replication?

A. Minimum= 5 minutes Maximum= 24 hours

B. Minimum= 5 minutes Maximum= 48 hours

C. Minimum= 1 minute Maximum= 24 hours

D. Minimum= 1 minute Maximum= 48 hours

Correct Answer: A

Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is an industry accepted term that indicates the acceptable amount of data, measured in units of time, that may be lost in a failure. When you set up an asynchronous replication session, you can configure automatic synchronization based on the RPO. You can specify an RPO from a minimum of 5 minutes up to a maximum of 1440 minutes (24 hours).

References: https://www.emc.com/dam/uwaem/documentation/unity-p-replication-config.pdf (page 7)


Visit our site to get more E20-393 Q and As:https://www.pass4king.com/e20-393.html (297 QAs Dumps)

New Updated H35-660 Exam Dumps Free Download

How to pass H35-660 exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid H35-660 vce to boost your success rate in HCIA-5G H35-660 HCIA-5G V2.0 Exam exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We H35-660 actual tests, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our HCIA-5G materials.

Visit our site to get more H35-660 Q and As:https://www.passitdump.com/h35-660.html (346 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

5G uses edge computing to offload traffic, guaranteeing low latency

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

In an industrial internet sensors are used to monitor the status. Which one of the following requirement in this case?

A. Low delay

B. Large bandwidth

C. High reliability.

D. Massive connections

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which of the following companies the claimed that it will no longer develop 5G terminal baseband chipsets?_SC

A. QUALCOMM

B. Huawei

C. intel

D. Samsung

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which one of the subcarriers spacing yield the highest spectral efficient for 5G cells on 50MHz bandwidth?

A. 15kHz

B. 60kHz

C. 30KHz

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following Terms refers to the base station in the radio access network in 5G?

A. NodeB

B. eNodeB

C. gNodeB

D. BTS

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which of the following is the most advanced aspect of the development phase of IoV? _SC

A. Fully Automated parking

B. Lase change assistance

C. Automated driving urban areas

D. Automatic driving in lanes

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which one of the following technologies enables 5G to better support drone services? -SC

A. AAU vertical coverage.

B. More connected users

C. Lower service delay.

D. Large cell bandwidth

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which of following coding schemes is predominantly used for traffic channel in 5G?

A. palor code

B. turbo coding

C. convolutional code

D. LDPC

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which of the following belong to 5G NSA networking? MC

A. Options 2 // SA (NGC)

B. Option 3x (CP will eNodeB, UP will be by gNodeB which is directly connect to EPC)

C. Option 3a (Data rendering CP for eNodeB, UP => EPC statically)

D. Option 3 //early drop family (Every thing will be on LTE eNodeB) // Option 4 -> (CP will be NGC, UP will be shared eNodeB and gNodeB) // Option 4a-> (Data rendering CP for eNodeB, UP => EPC statically) // option 7-> (LTE will be dependent on 5G network.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 10:

Which one of the following 5G service application does the V2X apply to? _SC

A. IoV

B. smart grid

C. Drone

D. IoT

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Compared with traditional plat preservation which of the following advantages does drone-based plant preservation have?_ MC

A. higher efficiency than manual operations

B. 30% less medicine is used, saving water and protecting the environment.

C. precise operation

D. high security due to man-machine separation

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 12:

Which one the following 5G terminals converts 5G signals into Wi -Fi signals for WTTx services? _SC

A. Router

B. CPE

C. Smartphone

D. Mifi.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which of the following are disadvantages of using drones on 4G communication networks?

A. Delivering flight control command is slow.

B. The signal strength is dtrong when lower the 120 from the ground but the connection is easily lost when the height exceeds 120m.

C. The uplink data rate is low.

D. The drone height is not within the mail lobe of the ground station antenna. The air signals are in disarray. There is no primary coverage cell. Frequent handovers caus significant downlink interference for terminals.

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 14:

High frequency mmWave is predominately uses 5G wireless coverage. -TF

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which one of the following must be cloudified first to implement the could-based network structure?

A. Core network

B. Terminal

C. RAN

D. Bearer Network

Correct Answer: A


Visit our site to get more H35-660 Q and As:https://www.passitdump.com/h35-660.html (346 QAs Dumps)

Free Providing ns0-194 VCE Exam Study Guides With New Update Exam Questions

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your ns0-194 exam! Get yourself well prepared for the NCSE ns0-194 NetApp Certified Support Engineer exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update ns0-194 exam questions. With We latest ns0-194 real exam questions, you’ll pass the NCSE ns0-194 NetApp Certified Support Engineer exam in an easy way

Visit our site to get more ns0-194 Q and As:https://www.itexambus.com/ns0-194.html (60 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

What is the minimum number of compute nodes required to run the NetApp Deployment Engine for NetApp HCI?

A. 2

B. 1

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/hci/docs/task_hci_getstarted.html#:~:text=The minimum cluster for NetApp,to all NetApp HCI networks.


Question 2:

Which NetApp technology enables you to perform block-based replication from NetApp Element software to Cloud Volumes ONTAP?

A. SyncMirror

B. SnapMirror

C. Cloud Sync

D. MetroCluster

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which three techniques are used in ONTAP to improve storage efficiencies? (Choose three.)

A. compression

B. encryption

C. compaction

D. ADP

E. thin provisioning

Correct Answer: ACE

Reference: https://cloud.netapp.com/blog/storage-efficiency-success-stories-with-cloud-volumes-ontap


Question 4:

You are working on a fabric MetroCluster. After a site failure, the plex starts to resync automatically to the aggregate mirror of Aggr1. The plex now shows a status of resyncing. During this process, you experience a slow resync of the SyncMirror plex.

In this scenario, how do you solve the problem?

A. Add more disks to the aggregate to add more I/O capacity.

B. Destroy and re-create plex, then run a baseline sync.

C. Tune the resync speed by adding a QoS policy and limit the concurrent I/O to the aggregate.

D. Tune the resync speed using the storage raid-options command.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1368831/html/GUID-F3E1536B-0C54-4D4F-B985-3D839032234D.html


Question 5:

When you replace a motherboard, which step will completely test the newly installed component?

A. From ONTAP, execute sldiag.

B. From the LOADER prompt, type boot_ontap maint, then execute sldiag.

C. From the LOADER prompt, type boot_diags, then execute sldiag.

D. From the LOADER prompt, execute sldiag.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP1199896 (36)


Question 6:

A disaster causes a FlexGroup volume to be unrecoverable, but it was protected by a SnapMirror relationship. You solve the issue, and the source is operational. Now, you want to return to serving the data from the original source. In this scenario, what do you do next?

A. Initialize the SnapMirror relationship.

B. Restore data from a backup copy.

C. Perform a SnapMirror update.

D. Delete the SnapMirror relationship.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.pow-fg-mgmt/GUID-576192B0-18B8-40D3-AA3E-FC34415DC4F7.html


Question 7:

Which type of MetroCluster is shown in the exhibit?

A. 2-node stretch MetroCluster

B. 4-node MetroCluster IP

C. 4-node Fabric-Attached MetroCluster

D. 4-node stretch MetroCluster

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

You have an ONTAP 2-node cluster. You run a read/write test workload against an SMB share, and it is slower than you expected. You run the same test again, but this time you monitor the storage using a QoS command.

Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?

A. There is a disk bottleneck.

B. An HA interconnect problem is present.

C. The SMB read sizes should be increased.

D. The NVRAM needs to be replaced.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is the consequence of a loss of connectivity between a Cloud Volumes ONTAP (CVO) instance and Cloud Manager for four or more days?

A. The CVO instance sends an AutoSupport message.

B. The CVO instance must be added back manually to Cloud Manager.

C. Cloud Manager removes the CVO instance from its inventory.

D. The CVO instance is stopped.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What are two conditions that would cause writes in memory to be written to disk? (Choose two.)

A. The NVRAM (NVLog) fills up.

B. A user presses “Save”.

C. Drive capacity becomes available.

D. A Snapshot copy is taken.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

On an AFF system, which three storage efficiencies are enabled by default? (Choose three.)

A. reallocation

B. compaction

C. deduplication

D. compression

E. encryption

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.dot-cm-vsmg/GUID-C1E3029E-1514-4579-939B-67160E849632.html


Question 12:

You received the “CLUSTER ERROR: DISK/SHELF COUNT MISMATCH” AutoSupport message from an ONTAP cluster.

When analyzing this message, which two should be inspected? (Choose two.)

A. drive paths

B. IOM firmware

C. drive firmware

D. SAS cabling

Correct Answer: AC


Question 13:

In the AFF A200 shown in the exhibit, which port is a CNA port?

A. |0|0|

B. e0c/0c

C. e0a

D. 0a

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/platstor/topic/com.netapp.doc.hw-2700-install-setup/GUID-FE4BD3C8-3DB4-438A-A5CE-FEEF74AE8BAF.html


Question 14:

Which two statements describe ONTAP NVRAM? (Choose two.)

A. ONTAP NVRAM is used as read cache.

B. ONTAP NVRAM stores uncommitted writes.

C. ONTAP NVRAM is used as write cache.

D. ONTAP NVRAM is battery backed.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://kb.netapp.com/Advice_and_Troubleshooting/Data_Storage_Software/ONTAP_OS/FAQ:_Consistency_Point


Question 15:

When using NetApp Volume Encryption (NVE) which type of server is needed to keep encryption keys separate from encrypted data?

A. KMIP

B. RADIUS

C. TLS

D. TKIP

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.pow-nve/GUID-EAD13D8E-0219-45B6-A2C6-B25B76C9CA1A.html


Visit our site to get more ns0-194 Q and As:https://www.itexambus.com/ns0-194.html (60 QAs Dumps)

[PDF and VCE] Format for Free NSE7_EFW-6.4 Dumps With Exam Questions Download

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Jul 03,2022 Newest NSE7_EFW-6.4 practice exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Fortinet Certification Latest NSE7_EFW-6.4 pdf dumps Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall 6.4 exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update NSE7_EFW-6.4 braindumps. With We latest NSE7_EFW-6.4 pdf, you’ll pass the Fortinet Certification Hotest NSE7_EFW-6.4 vce dumps Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall 6.4 exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest NSE7_EFW-6.4 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the NSE7_EFW-6.4 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our NSE7_EFW-6.4 dumps.The following questions and answers are from the latest NSE7_EFW-6.4 free dumps. It will help you understand the validity of the latest NSE7_EFW-6.4 dumps.

Question 1:

View the exhibit, which contains the partial output of an IKE real-time debug, and then answer the question below.

Which statements about this debug output are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The remote gateway IP address is 10.0.0.1.

B. It shows a phase 1 negotiation.

C. The negotiation is using AES128 encryption with CBC hash.

D. The initiator has provided remote as its IPsec peer ID.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit, which contains the partial output of a diagnose command.

Based on the output, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Anti-replay is enabled

B. The remote gateway IP is 10.200.4.1.

C. DPD is disabled.

D. Quick mode selectors are disabled.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit, which shows the output of a debug command.

Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two.)

A. The local FortiGate OSPF router ID is 0.0.0.4.

B. Port4 is connected to the OSPF backbone area.

C. In the network connected to port4, two OSPF routers are down.

D. The local FortiGate is the backup designated router.

Correct Answer: AB

Area 0.0.0.0 is the backbone area.


Question 4:

Examine the output from the \’diagnose debug authd fsso list\’ command; then answer the question below.

# diagnose debug authd fsso list –FSSO logons-IP: 192.168.3.1 User: STUDENT Groups: TRAININGAD/

USERS Workstation: INTERNAL2. TRAINING. LAB The IP address 192.168.3.1 is NOT the one used by

the workstation INTERNAL2. TRAINING.

LAB.

What should the administrator check?

A. The IP address recorded in the logon event for the user STUDENT.

B. The DNS name resolution for the workstation name INTERNAL2. TRAINING. LAB.

C. The source IP address of the traffic arriving to the FortiGate from the workstation INTERNAL2. TRAINING. LAB.

D. The reserve DNS lookup forthe IP address 192.168.3.1.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

View the IPS exit log, and then answer the question below.

# diagnose test application ipsmonitor 3

ipsengine exit log”

pid = 93 (cfg), duration = 5605322 (s) at Wed Apr 19 09:57:26 2017

code = 11, reason: manual

What is the status of IPS on this FortiGate?

A. IPS engine memory consumption has exceeded the model-specific predefined value.

B. IPS daemon experienced a crash.

C. There are communication problems between the IPS engine and the management database.

D. All IPS-related features have been disabled in FortiGate\’s configuration.

Correct Answer: D

The command diagnose test application ipsmonitor includes many options that are useful for troubleshooting purposes.Option 3 displays the log entries generated every time an IPS engine process stopped. There are various reasons why these logs are generated:Manual: Because of the configuration, IPS no longer needs to run (that is, all IPS-releated features have been disabled)


Question 6:

View the exhibit, which contains the output of diagnose sys session stat, and then answer the question below.

Which statements are correct regarding the output shown? (Choose two.)

A. There are 0 ephemeral sessions.

B. All the sessions in the session table are TCP sessions.

C. No sessions have been deleted because of memory pages exhaustion.

D. There are 166 TCP sessions waiting to complete the three-way handshake.

Correct Answer: AC

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD40578


Question 7:

An administrator has configured the following CLI script on FortiManager, which failed to apply any changes to the managed device after being executed.

Why didn\’t the script make any changes to the managed device?

A. Commands that start with the # sign are not executed.

B. CLI scripts will add objects only if they are referenced by policies.

C. Incomplete commands are ignored in CLI scripts.

D. Static routes can only be added using TCL scripts.

Correct Answer: A

https://help.fortinet.com/fmgr/50hlp/56/5-6-2/FortiManager_Admin_Guide/1000_Device% 20Manager/2400_Scripts/1000_Script sa mples/0200_CLI scripts .htm#Error_Messages

A sequence of FortiGate CLI commands, as you would type them at the command line. A comment line starts with the number sign (#). A comment line will not be executed.


Question 8:

View the exhibit, which contains the output of a debug command, and then answer the question below.

Which of the following statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose two.)

A. In the network on port4, two OSPF routers are down.

B. Port4 is connected to the OSPF backbone area.

C. The local FortiGate\’s OSPF router ID is 0.0.0.4

D. The local FortiGate has been elected as the OSPF backup designated router.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 9:

What configuration changes can reduce the memory utilization in a FortiGate? (Choose two.)

A. Reduce the session time to live.

B. Increase the TCP session timers.

C. Increase the FortiGuard cache time to live.

D. Reduce the maximum file size to inspect.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 10:

The CLI command set intelligent-mode controls the IPS engine\’s adaptive scanning behavior. Which of the following statements describes IPS adaptive scanning?

A. Determines the optimal number of IPS engines required based on system load.

B. Downloads signatures on demand from FDS based on scanning requirements.

C. Determines when it is secure enough to stop scanning session traffic.

D. Choose a matching algorithm based on available memory and the type of inspection being performed.

Correct Answer: C

Configuring IPS intelligenceStarting with FortiOS 5.2, intelligent-mode is a new adaptive detection method. This command is enabled the default and it means that the IPS engine will perform adaptive scanning so that, for some traffic, the FortiGate can quickly finish scanning and offload the traffic to NPU or kernel. It is a balanced method which could cover all known exploits. When disabled, the IPS engine scans every single byte.config ips globalset intelligent-mode {enable|disable}end


Question 11:

Which two statements about the Security Fabric are true? (Choose two.)

A. Only the root FortiGate collects network information and forwards it to FortiAnalyzer.

B. FortiGate uses FortiTelemetry protocol to communicate with FortiAnalyzer.

C. All FortiGate devices in the Security Fabric must have bidirectional FortiTelemetry connectivity.

D. Branch FortiGate devices must be configured first.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/327890/deploying-security-fabric


Question 12:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding application layer test commands? (Choose two.)

A. They are used to filter real-time debugs.

B. They display real-time application debugs.

C. Some of them display statistics and configuration information about a feature or process.

D. Some of them can be used to restart an application.

Correct Answer: CD

Application layer test commands don\’t display info in real time, but they do show statistics and configuration info about a feature or process. You can also use some of these commands to restart a process or execute a change in its operation.


Question 13:

View the exhibit, which contains the output of a diagnose command, and the answer the question below.

Which statements are true regarding the Weight value?

A. Its initial value is calculated based on the round trip delay (RTT).

B. Its initial value is statically set to 10.

C. Its value is incremented with each packet lost.

D. It determines which FortiGuard server is used for license validation.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What is the purpose of an internal segmentation firewall (ISFW)?

A. It inspects incoming traffic to protect services in the corporate DMZ.

B. It is the first line of defense at the network perimeter.

C. It splits the network into multiple security segments to minimize the impact of breaches.

D. It is an all-in-one security appliance that is placed at remote sites to extend the enterprise network.

Correct Answer: C

ISFW splits your network into multiple security segments. They serve as a breach containers from attacks that come from inside.


Question 15:

View the global IPS configuration, and then answer the question below.

Which of the following statements is true regarding this configuration?

A. IPS will scan every byte in every session.

B. FortiGate will spawn IPS engine instances based on the system load.

C. New packets will be passed through without inspection if the IPS socket buffer runs out of memory.

D. IPS will use the faster matching algorithm which is only available for units with more than 4 GB memory.

Correct Answer: A