Month: May 2022

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Question 1:

Which employment model options are available for newly provisioned HCM Cloud environments?

A. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts multiple assignment

B. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier single contract single assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts single assignment

C. 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier single assignment

D. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier single contract single assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You are required to set geography validation for country-specific address style. You have configured the application correctly, but users are still entering addresses in the wrong address format. What can be done to change this?

A. Create a new geography validation.

B. Educate users to use the country-specific address format only.

C. Effective End Date for geography validation is end of time.

D. Set the geography validation level to Error instead of No Validation.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

As an HR Administrator, you want to add an additional assignment for an existing worker. You access the worker\’s information via the Manage Employment task, select Update, and enter an Effective Date, but you are unable to select the Add Assignment action from the Action field drop-down.

What is preventing you from selecting the action?

A. The employee already has multiple assignments within that legal employer.

B. Employment Model 2-Tier multiple assignment have not been enabled at the enterprise and/or the legal entity level.

C. The employee has no active work relationships.

D. The employee has a suspended assignment.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Grade structures (grades, grade rates, and grade ladder) were configured for your customer and the required employee assignment data was migrated to the system. However, there was a change in requirement and the customer decided to delete some grades because they were no longer used. When you try to delete one such grade from the system, the system throws an error.

What are three possible reasons for the system error? (Choose three.)

A. There are assignment records of one or more employees associated with this grade.

B. A grade cannot be deleted and can only be made inactive by changing the status to “Inactive”.

C. The grade has grade rates defined.

D. The grade is linked to a grade ladder.

E. A grade cannot be deleted and can only be end-dated.

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 5:

The HR of Finance Department searches for an employee who is the Finance Auditor. The search is conducted with an effective date of 01-Jan-2015 on the Person Management page. The search does not yield any results.

Identify two reasons for this behavior. (Choose two.)

A. The employee was a contingent worker until 31-Dec-2014 and will rejoin as an employee on 02-Jan-2015.

B. The employee is working as a contingent worker in Finance Department.

C. The employee has multiple assignments and being a Finance Auditor is a part of the secondary assignment.

D. The employee is working as an employee in Finance Department.

E. The employee is inactive as of 01-Jan-2015.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 6:

Which three options are true about the Global Person model? (Choose three.)

A. Person records cease to exist when a person is terminated from an organization.

B. Person records continue to exist even when the person has no current work relationships in the enterprise and no current contact relationships with other workers.

C. Person records are global, independent of legal employers, and created only once for any person. If the person leaves the enterprise, the person\’s work relationships are terminated.

D. Person records hold information that is personal, such as name, date of birth, and disability information, or that may apply to more than one work relationship, such as national ID.

E. Person records are auto-archived two years after a person is terminated from an organization.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 7:

If multiple people update a performance rating for a competency on a worker\’s profile, what is used to provide a unique identifier for each instance of the competency so that you can determine who provided what rating?

A. instance qualifier

B. content library

C. rating model

D. educational establishment

E. content subscriber

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

As a consultant in your company, you are required to set up names and details of schools, colleges, universities, and so on, so that users can select from this list when entering their qualifications such as degrees.

Identify the correct setup task in Functional Setup Manager > Define Workforce Profiles.

A. Define Talent Profile Content > Manage Content Subscribers

B. Define Talent Profile Content > Manage Profile Content Items

C. Define Talent Profile Content > Manage Educational Establishments

D. Define Talent Profiles > Manage Profile Types

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

You want to use the Tree Management feature of Functional Setup Manager to organize data into hierarchies.

Which option represents seeded tree structures?

A. organization, job, division, geographies

B. organization, job, department, geographies

C. organization, position, division, geographies

D. organization, position, division, establishment

E. organization, position, department, geographies

Correct Answer: E


Question 10:

A human resource specialist creates a checklist template with Category Offboarding and Action Termination. An employee retries from the organization and hence his work relationship is terminated with the legal employer. However, there is no Offboarding checklist allocated to the retired employee in the Manage Allocated Checklist region.

What is the cause for this?

A. The Allocate Checklist seeded process must be run to automatically allocate the checklist to the person.

B. Action Type was not defined for the checklist.

C. Action Reasons were not defined in the checklist.

D. The Action associated with the checklist does not match the Action selected during the termination process.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You are a human resource specialist and a workflow request is showing in your worklist notification even after you approved it (sent it to the second level approver). What are three possible causes of this behavior? (Choose three.)

A. The second level approver might have reassigned the request.

B. The second level approver might have opted for an adhoc route.

C. The second level approver might have approved the request.

D. The second level approver might have rejected the request.

E. The second level approver might have executed a pushback on the request.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 12:

A manager returned from the US Subsidiary after a period of 3 months to his source location of the UK Subsidiary.

Which option should a Human Resource Representative exercise to reinstate the manager\’s records in the source legal employer?

A. Entering the return date will automatically reinstate the record on the return date.

B. Create another assignment with the return date as the effective date.

C. Initiate the End Global Temporary Assignment action and specify a return date. The global temporary assignment is terminated and the assignments in the source legal employer are reinstate automatically on the return date.

D. Deploy a Descriptive Flexfield to capture the return date. Update this segment with the actual return date to reinstate the record.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

A worker in an organization will be holding a new position because the worker holding the position has gone on maternity leave. When the second worker is back from maternity leave, the former will be moved back to his or her old position. His or her payroll and legal reporting will be the same even after the position changes.

Which transfer method should be used for the first movement of the said worker?

A. Global Temporary Assignment

B. Temporary Assignment

C. Global Transfer

D. Transfer

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

As an implementation consultant, you are in the process of setting up geographies in the application. Which three statements are true about defining geographies? (Choose three.)

A. You must identify the top-level of geography as Country and define a geography type.

B. You can only modify all levels of the geography structure before you load geography hierarchy.

C. You must map geography to reporting establishments for reporting purposes.

D. It is mandatory to define geography validations before geography hierarchy can be defined.

E. You must set geography validation for the specific address style for a country.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 15:

An employee\’s job description is “Recruiter” as of 01-Jan-2015. This job was updated in the system to “Consultant” on 01-Feb-2015. The 01-Feb-2015 assignment record is the latest effective dated employment record in the system. On 01Mar-2015, the HR specialist wants to view this employee\’s previous employment details and searches for them on the Person Management page. The HR specialist enters the effective as-of date value as 31-Jan-2015 with the search

keyword “Recruiter” because the employee was working as a recruiter on 31st Jan 2015. The search returns no rows.

What is causing this?

A. The Person Management page search does not support Job attribute keywords.

B. The Update Person Search Keyword process has updated the latest effective dated job attribute in the keyword record.

C. The Update Person Search Keyword process has associated the effective dates with the job attributes in the keyword record resulting in search discrepancies.

D. The Update Person Search keyword process has failed on 01-Mar-2015 but ran successfully the previous day.

E. The Person Management page search does not support date-effective keywords.

F. The Update Person Search keyword process has failed on 31-Jan-2015 but ran successfully the next day.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

You want to display the value of a shell variable called service after assigning a value as shown:

SERVICE =ACCT S

Which two settings will display the name of the variable and its value?

A. set | grep service

B. echo $SERVICE

C. env | grep SERVICE

D. env $SERVICE

E. set $SERVICE

Correct Answer: BC

C: env – set the environment for command invocation

If no utility operand is specified, the resulting environment shall be written to the standard output, with one name= value pair per line.


Question 2:

Examine these statements and their output taken right after successful install of Oracle Linux:

[[email protected] /] rpm q firstboot Firstboot -1.110.10-1.0.2.e16.x86_64 [root @FAROUT /] # chkconfig – – list firstboot

Firstboot 0:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6;off

[[email protected] /] # /etc/sysconfig/firstboot RUN_FIRSTBOOT=NO What is the conclusion?

A. The option to run firstboot was deselected during Oracle Linux installation.

B. The system was installed with desktop graphical packages and rebooted and the firstboot utility ran successful.

C. Firstboot never ran in any run level because the service is turned off for all run levels.

D. The system was installed without selecting desktop graphical packages, thereby disabling firstboot from running.

Correct Answer: A

Firstboot is set to off for all levels.

Example:

The rm command below remove or delate the firstboot file in order to make sure the firstboot program running when we restart or reboot the Fedora machine.

[[email protected] ~]# rm /etc/sysconfig/firstboot

rm: remove regular file `/etc/sysconfig/firstboot\’? y [[email protected] ~]#

Then check and make sure that firstboot program or firstboot service is run when your Fedora startup/boot up.

Check firstboot services

[[email protected] ~]# chkconfig –list firstboot

firstboot 0:off 1:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6:off

[[email protected] ~]#


Question 3:

Which three settings can be controlled by using the chage breemar command as the root user, to modify the parameters in the /etc/shadow file?

A. The expiration date of the breemar account

B. The number of days after the breemar account is locked, that it becomes expired

C. The maximum number of days that must elapse between password changes by the user breemar before the password becomes invalid

D. The number of days after the breemar account is locked, that it becomes unlocked

E. The minimum number of days that must elapse between password changes by the user breemar

F. The maximum number of failed login attempts on the breemar account before the account is locked

Correct Answer: ACE

A: chage -E, –expiredate EXPIRE_DATE

Set the date or number of days since January 1, 1970 on which the user\’s account will no longer be accessible.

CE: You need to use chage command to setup password aging. The chage command changes the number of days between password changes and the date of the last password change. This information is used by the system to determine when a user must change his/her password.


Question 4:

Which four statements are true about software on the Oracle Public YUM server?

A. It contains Oracle Linux installation ISO images.

B. It contains Oracle Linux binary RPM packages.

C. It contains Oracle Linux errata packages.

D. It contains Oracle Linux source RPM packages.

E. It contains beta Oracle Linux software packages.

F. It does not contain Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel packages.

Correct Answer: BCDF

The Oracle public yum server offers a free and convenient way to install the latest Oracle Linux packages as well as packages from the Oracle VM installation media via a yum client. Oracle provides all errata and updates for Oracle Linux via the Public Yum service, which includes updates to the base distribution, but does not include Oracle-specific software.

F: By default, all new installations of Oracle Linux 6 Update 5 are automatically configured to use the public yum update service. If you subsequently register the system with ULN, the public yum service is automatically disabled.


Question 5:

This MDADM output:

Which two aspects can be determined from this output?

A. A device failed and has been removed from this RAID set.

B. It is no longer possible to write to this RAID set.

C. Read and write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.

D. This RAID set was built without a spare device.

E. Only Write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 6:

Examine the command on its output: [[email protected] ~] # modprobe 璿 nfs Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/nfs_common/nfs_acl.ko insmod /lob/ modules/2.6.39

100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/net/sunrpc/auth_gss/auth_rpcgss.ko Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/fscache/fscache/ko Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/locked.ko Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/nfs/nfs.ko Which two statements are true about the modprobe command?

A. It will load the nfs module if all the modules upon which it depends have been loaded.

B. It displays the dependency resolution for the nfs module and loads all the modules upon which nfs depends before loading the nfs module.

C. It verifies that the nfs module and all other modules that depend on the nfs module are installed.

D. It displays the dependency resolution that would occur if the nfs module were to be loaded using modprobe nfs.

E. It only loads the nfs module if all the modules upon which it depends have not been loaded yet.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://redhat.activeventure.com/8/customizationguide/ch-kernel-modules.html (kernel module utilities)


Question 7:

What is the main advantage of the Oracle Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel compared with the Red Hat compatible kernel?

A. It is more secure and, therefore, more difficult to hack.

B. It has a lower Mean Time Between Failures.

C. It provides higher availability for applications by reducing Mean Time to Recovery.

D. It scales better for more CPUS, memory, and Infiniband network connections.

Correct Answer: D

The Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel, for those who want to leverage the latest features from mainline Linux and boost performance and scalability. The Red Hat Compatible Kernel, for those who prefer strict Red Hat kernel ABI (kABI) compatibility.


Question 8:

Examine this output: # df 璽 nfs Filesystem Size Used Avail Use% Mounted on

o16:export 30G 21G 7.6G 74% /mnt

# 1s -1 /mnt/nfs.sh -rwxr-mr-x. 1 root root 22 May 8 16:37 /mnt/nfs.sh # file /mnt/nfs.sh

/mnt/nfs.sh: Bourne-Again shell script text executables

# /mnt/nfs.sh bash: /mnt/nfs.sh: Permission denied What is the reason for the error?

A. The file system was exported on host o16 using the ROOT_SQUASH option.

B. The /export filesystem was mounted with the NOEXEC option on host o16.

C. The filesystem mounted on /mnt was mounted with the NOEXEC option.

D. The filesystem was exported on host o16 by using the NO_ROOT_SQUASH option.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which two Statements are true concerning the configuration and use of cron and anacron?

A. Anacron jobs are used to make sure cron jobs run if the system had been down when they were meant to run.

B. All crontabs are held in the /etc/cron.d directory.

C. Cron jobs may run as frequently as once a minute.

D. Anacron jobs may run as frequently as once a minute.

E. The crond daemon looks for jobs only in /etc/crontab.

Correct Answer: CE

Note: Anacron is the cron for desktops and laptops.

Anacron does not expect the system to be running 24 x 7 like a server.

When you want a background job to be executed automatically on a machine that is not running 24 x 7, you should use anacron.

Incorrect:

not D: /etc/anacrontab file has the anacron jobs mentioned in the following format.

period delay job-identifier command

Field 1 is Recurrence period: This is a numeric value that specifies the number of days.

1 daily

7 weekly

30 monthly

N This can be any numeric value. N indicates number of days


Question 10:

You have a single network adapter called eth0.

DEVICE = eth0 BOOTPROTO=DHCP HWADR=BC:305B:C5:63;F1 NM_CONTROLLED=no ONBOOT=YES TYPE=Ethernet PEERDNS=no UUID=C9dba2e8-9faf-4b77-bbe2-92dd81dda1f9

Which two Statement:; are true concerning eth0 based on this configuration?

A. DHCP is used to obtain a lease on an IP address.

B. The dhclient command may only be used to obtain a lease at boot time.

C. dhclient does not override the contents of /etc/resolv.conf.

D. DNS is not used to resolve host names for this adapter.

E. dhclient overrides the contents of /etc/resolv.conf.

Correct Answer: A

A: BOOTPROTO=DHCP

C: PEERDNS=answer

where answer is one of the following:

yes — Modify /etc/resolv.conf if the DNS directive is set. If using DHCP, then yes is the default.

no — Do not modify /etc/resolv.conf.

Note: The “/etc/resolv.conf” file is used to configure the location of the DNS servers to be used for name resolution.


Question 11:

You want sendmail to deliver mail for these users:

[email protected] to mailbox jsmith1 [email protected] to mailbox jsmith2 [email protected] to mailbox jsmith3

In which sendmail configuration database can this requirement be defined?

A. /etc/aliases

B. /etc/mail/userdb

C. /etc/mail/virtusertable

D. /etc/mail/domaintable

E. /etc/mail/genericstable

Correct Answer: C

/etc/mail/virtusertable

This database file maps mail addresses for virtual domains and users to real mailboxes. These mailboxes can be local, remote, aliases defined in /etc/mail/aliases, or files. This allows multiple virtual domains to be hosted on one machine.

The following example demonstrates how to create custom entries using that format:

[email protected] root

[email protected] [email protected]

@example.com joe


Question 12:

Which two conditions should be met in order to successfully configure an openssh client on Oracle Linux?

A. The openssh-server package must not be installed.

B. The openssh package must be installed.

C. The sshd daemon must not be started.

D. The openssh-client package must be installed.

E. The ssh-agent must be started.

F. ssh keys must be generated by any user using the ssh client.

Correct Answer: BD

To connect to an OpenSSH server from a client machine, you must have the openssh-clients and openssh packages installed on the client machine.


Question 13:

You use the chkconfig command to administer one of the services on your Oracle Linux system:

[[email protected] ~]# chkconfig vncserver off [[email protected] ~] #

No changes have been made to the init script for the service.

Which two statements are true regarding the effects of Issuing this command?

A. The vncserver service is shut down.

B. The vncserver service configuration is disabled only for those run levels for which it is currently enabled.

C. The vncserver service configuration is disabled for run levels 2, 3, 4 and 5.

D. The vncserver service remains in the same state it was in before the command was issued.

E. The vncserver service configuration is disabled for run levels 3 and 5 only.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: http://www.oracle-base.com/articles/linux/configuring-vnc-server-on-linux.php


Question 14:

Examine the commands used by root to create the chrooted environments in the /jail directory:

# mkdir /jail/bin/jail/lib64

# cp /bin/bash/jail/bin

linux-vdso.so.1 => (0x00007fff68dff000)

libtinfo.so.5 => /lib64/libtinfo.so.5 (0x00000033e00000)

lid1.so.2 => /lib64/libc.so.6 (0x00000033e1600000)

/lib64/id-linix-86-64.so.2 (0x00000033e0e00000)

# cp /lib64/libtinfo.so.5/jail/lib64

# cp /lib64/libd1.so.6 /jail/lib64

# cp /lib64/libc.so.6 /jail/lib64

# cp /lib64/id-linux-x86-64.so.2 /jail/lib64

The user root then issues this command:

# chroot /jail

What is the output from the cd, pwd, and 1s commands?

A. bash-4.1# cd bash-4.1# pwd /root bash-4.1# 1s bash” 1s: command not found

B. bash-4.1# cd bash: cd: /root: No such file or directory bash-4.1# pwd / bash-4.1 # 1s bash: 1s: command not found

C. bash-4.1# cd bash: cd: command not found bash: pwd: command not found bash-4.1# 1s

D. bash: 1s; # cd bash: cd: /root: unable to access chrooted file or directory /root bash-4.1# pwd / bash-4.1 # 1s bin lib64

E. bash-4.1# cd bash: cd: /root: No such file or directory bash-4.1# pwd / bash-4.1# 1s bin lib64

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is the purpose of setting ONPARENT = no in an Interface configuration file located in /etc/sysconfig/ network-scripts?

A. To prevent a network interface from being brought up during system startup

B. To prevent a slave network interface from being brought up during system startup

C. To prevent an alias network interface from being brought up during system startup

D. To prevent a master network interface from being brought up during system startup

Correct Answer: C

The ONBOOT directive tells the network initialization scripts not to start a given interface.

If you need to stop a virtual interface from starting when the network interfaces are initialized, you need to set ONPARENT instead of ONBOOT to no.

Reference: Keep IP Aliases from Starting at Boot


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Question 1:

What information does the file modules.dep provide?

A. A list of all modules available to the kernel.

B. A list of modules required by each module.

C. A list of devices and their module name.

D. A list of modules compiled for this kernel.

E. A list of modules the kernel needs to run.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which of the following is a valid location in the automount configuration, when a Windows share needs to be made availabletothesystem?

A. \\server\sharename

B. ://server/sharename

C. server:/sharename

D. :server/sharename

E. \\\\server\\sharename

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which command would you use to apply a diff file to an original?

A. patch > diff-file

B. patch < diff-file

C. patch << diff-file

D. cat diff-file >> kernel

E. cat diff-file << kernel

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

DNSSEC is used for?

A. Encrypted DNS queries between nameservers.

B. Cryptographic authentication of DNS zones.

C. Secondary DNS queries for local zones.

D. Defining a secure DNS section.

E. Querying a secure DNS section.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Considering the following kernel IP routing table now, which of the following commands must be remove the route to the network l0.l0.1.0/24? Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface

200.207.199.162 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 ppp0

172.16.87.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0

192.168.246.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth1

10.10.1.0 192.168.246.11 255.255.255.0 UG 0 0 0 eth1

127.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 U 0 0 0 lo

0.0.0.0 200.207.199.162 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 ppp0

A. route del

10.10.1.0

B. route del 10.10.1.0/24

C. route del -net 10.10.1.0/24

D. route del 10.10.1.0/24 gw

192.168.246.11

E. route del -net

10.10.1.0

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

What is the difference between zImage and bzImage targets when compiling a kernel?

A. zImage is compressed using gzip, bzImage is compressed using bzip2

B. zImage is for 2.4 series kernels, bzImage is for 2.6 series kernels

C. zImage is loaded into low memory, bzImage is loaded into high memory

D. zImage is limited to 64k, bzImage is not

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

WhichofthesewayscanbeusedtoonlyallowaccesstoaDNSserverfrom specifiednetworks/hosts?

A. Using the limit{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

B. Using the allow-query{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

C. Using the answer only{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

D. Using the answer{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

E. Using the query access{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which of these commands allows you to use shared libraries that are in /usr/local/lib?

A. export LD_PRELOAD=/usr/local/lib

B. exportLD_LIBRARY_PATH=/usr/local/lib

C. ldconfig /usr/local/lib

D. ldd /usr/local/lib

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which TWO archiving formats are used to create an initramfs image?

A. gzip

B. tar

C. rar

D. cpio

E. bzip2

Correct Answer: AD


Question 10:

How can you manually add an entry to your system\’s ARP cache?

A. Directly edit /etc/arp-cache

B. Run add-arp hostname FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

C. Run ping -a hostname

D. Run arp -s hostname FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

E. Edit arp.conf and restart arpd

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which tool can be used to control the runtime behavior of udev?

A. udev

B. udevctl

C. udevadm

D. udevconfig

E. udevclient

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

How can DMA be enabled for the device /dev/hda?

A. echo “l” >/proc/ide/hda/dma

B. sysctl -w dev.ide.dma=l

C. dma add /dev/hda

D. hdparm -d l /dev/hda

E. insmod dma dev=/dev/hda

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

To restore the kernel source to the previous, unpatched, version, which of the following commands could be used?

A. patch–restore

B. patch –remove

C. patch -U

D. patch–undo

E. patch -R

Correct Answer: E


Question 14:

If the current directory is /root and the kernel source is located in /usr/src/linux, which of the following commands should be used to apply the patch /tmp/foopatch?

A. cat /tmp/foopatch I patch -p0

B. cd/usr/src/linux;cat/tmp/foopatchIpatch-p0

C. cd/usr/src/linux; cat/tmp/foopatch I patch

D. cd/usr/src/linux;patch-pl</tmp/foopatch

E. cd/usr/src/linux;patch-pl>/tmp/foopatch

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

The Linux kernel is loaded successfully by the boot loader. However, straight after the kernel mounts the root filesystem, the boot process stops and an error message regarding init is shown. Which of the following actions is the best one to be used in order to identify and fix the problem?

A. The administrator reboots the system with a recovery disk and checks the root file system for errors with fsck.

B. The administrator reboots the system with a recovery disk and restores from a backup.

C. The administrator reboots the system and tells the kernel, through the boot loader prompt, to use /bin/bash as the initial process.

D. The administrator reboots the system with a recovery disk and installs a new kernel.

E. The administrator reboots the system and tells init, through the boot loader prompt, to use a different runlevel.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

What is the term used to describe the cost of the solution after the solution has been implemented in production by a vendor?

A. Total ownership costing

B. Lifecycle maintenance fees

C. Sustainability fees

D. Total cost of ownership

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Enterprise analysis creates just five outputs.

Which one of the following is an output of the enterprise analysis tasks?

A. Assumptions and constraints

B. Stakeholder concerns

C. Solution performance assessment

D. Solution approach

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What plan will describe the stakeholder groups, communication needs, and the level of formality that is appropriate for the requirements?

A. Requirements management plan

B. Project management plan

C. Scope management plan

D. Business analysis communication plan

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

You are the business analyst for a smaller project where there are few requirements. Management would still like you to create a method to trace the few requirements for this project.

What type of matrix would be best in this instance?

A. Roles and responsibility matrix

B. RACI matrix

C. Coverage matrix

D. Requirements trace matrix

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

You are the business analyst for your organization and have many solutions available to an identified problem. You would like a way to quickly and fairly determine which solution is the best choice for your organization.

Which of the following approaches would allow you to determine the top-rated solutions for your organization?

A. Scoring system

B. Acceptance and evaluation criteria

C. Vendor assessment

D. Voting system

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

When an organization is using a change-driven approach to business analysis, how are communications managed?

A. Communications in a change-driven approach to business analysis focus more on the frequency of communication.

B. Communications in a change-driven approach typically use face-to-face channels.

C. Communications in a change-driven approach focus more on formal communications.

D. Communications in a change-driven approach are all ad hoc.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Nancy has asked you to trace a particular requirement for her.

What does \’to trace a requirement\’ mean?

A. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links risk, cost, quality, and scope elements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by the team and to solution components.

B. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links business requirements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by the team and to solution components.

C. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links business requirements to components in the project\’s work breakdown structure.

D. Tracing a requirement means to track a requirements from its first identification all the way to its completion to see what issues, risks, costs, quality, and defects have surrounded the requirement

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

When do change requests generally increase in a project?

A. During the project\’s launch.

B. Towards the beginning of the project.

C. During the project scope management processes.

D. Towards the end of the project.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Ben is the business analyst for his organization. Ben is currently working on a solution to improve a laser printer. He has taken the laser printer apart, identified each component, and documented each component\’s purpose.

What type of requirements organization is Ben doing in this scenario?

A. Process modeling

B. Data modeling

C. Functional decomposition

D. Scope modeling

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What part of defining the business needs process will evaluate the ends that the organization is seeking to achieve?

A. Business goals and objectives

B. Alternative identification

C. Solution assessment

D. Requirements

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Wanda is the business analyst for her organization and she is currently working on the specify and model requirements process. One of the elements of this process is the documentation of the textual requirements.

Wanda must describe the capabilities of the solution, any conditions that must exist for the requirements to operate, and what third component of the textual requirement?

A. Any constraints that may prevent the solution from fulfilling the requirement

B. Write in the active voice

C. Describe a situation or problem

D. Express only one requirement at a time

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

The business analysis approach generally defines all of the following attributes except for which one?

A. Requirements for solutions acceptance

B. Deliverables

C. Team roles

D. Analysis technique

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Gary is the business analyst for his organization and he is preparing a presentation about the requirements for a large software development project.

Before Gary makes the presentation what should he do as part of his preparation for the presentation?

A. Determine an appropriate format for the presentation.

B. Confirm that he has the authority to host the presentation.

C. Confirm that the stakeholders have signed off on the requirements.

D. Hire a scribe to keep the minutes of the meeting.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

You are the business analyst for your organization and are creating the solution scope definition.

Which of the following should be included in the solution scope definition?

A. Business case

B. Technical dependencies

C. Elicitation techniques

D. Organization readiness assessment

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What business analysis element tries to identify as many potential options as possible to meet the business objectives and fill identified gaps in capabilities?

A. Ranking of approaches

B. Decision analysis

C. Documentation of assumptions and constraints

D. Alternative generation

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

With control Plane security (CPSec) enabled, Aruba Aps connect to controllers with which protocol?

A. GRE

B. HTTPs

C. IPsec

D. PPTP

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A network is configured with two local controllers in each area for redundancy VRRP is used as the redundancy protocol.

In this situation, how do the Aps determine if an active VRRP controller has failed, thus initiating a reconnection to the virtual IP address?

A. VRRP keepalives

B. GRE keepalives

C. PAPI keepalives

D. IPSec keepalives

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An administrator sets up Layer 3 roaming between controllers in a mobility domain. Which method is used to forward traffic from a foreign agent (FA) back to the user\’s home agent (HA)?

A. GRE Tunneling

B. PAPI Tunneling

C. IPSec tunneling

D. VLAN switching

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

An administrator supports a wireless network that includes Aruba Mobility controllers and Aruba Aps. The network has on Virtual AP (VAP) profile configured for employees and one VAP profile configured for guests. The network has 200 employees now, but, because of rapid expansion and the move to a brand new campus network, the number of employees is expected to increase to over 500. The administrator wants to continue to use only two VAPs to keep the WLAN implementation simple.

Which feature should the administrator implement for the employee VAP that will allow it to scale to a large number of users?

A. Source NAT

B. VLAN Mobility

C. VLAN Pools

D. IP Mobility

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: http://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/vrd/RAPVRD_version_8.pdf


Question 5:

Refer to Exhibit: A company deploys centralized licensing with centralized licensing redundancy. An administrator verifies that the centralized licensing is operational. Local controllers obtain licensing from the centralized license servers. The current network environment consists of:

*

79 Aps connected to the three local controllers.

*

64 Aps connected to the 3600 controller.

*

15 Aps connected to the two 7010 controller.

The activity and standby license servers were inadvertently connected to the same power source. The power source fails one day. The administrator then adds a newly purchased AP to the network while the license servers are still down. The

new AP then boots up and attempts to connect to the 3600 local controller.

What happens to this AP?

A. The 3600 uses the hardware-based AP license to allow the AP to associate to the controller.

B. the 3600 fails to obtain the correct licensing and will not allow the AP to associate to the controller.

C. the 3600 uses its own local software licensing to allow the AP to associate to the controller.

D. The available license count is reset and the 3600 obtains the correct licensing from the new active licensing server.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What is the default method for sending centralized licensing messages between master and local controllers?

A. through clear, unencrypted information

B. with PAPI

C. with CPSec

D. with IPSec site-to-site VPN tunnels

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An administrator receives a new Aruba Mobility Controller at its factory default configuration. The administrator accesses the console of the controller and answers the questions in the initial setup script. The administrator then logs into the controller through a web browser and runs the controller wizard to complete the initial setup of the controller.

Which action can only be performed through the CLI?

A. Set the date and time.

B. Disable controller interfaces

C. Add AP licenses

D. identify the controller switch mode.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

An administrator manages a network that uses windows computers. The administrator wants to perform both user and machine authentication and use an AAA RADIUS server to perform the authentication. The AAA server is also configured to pass back a user role that should be used by the Aruba Mobility Controller.

What happens when user or machine authentication succeeds or fails in this situation?

A. if user authentication fails and machine authentication succeeds. The machine authentication default user role is applied to the user\’s session.

B. if both user and machine authentication succeed the server-derived role is applied to the user\’s session.

C. if user authentication succeed and machine authentication fails, the server derived role is applied to the user\’s session.

D. if both user and machine authentication fail, the machine authentication default machine role is applied to the user\’s session

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which of the following could be used to set a user\’s post-authentication role or VLAN association? (Choose two)

A. AAA default role for authentication method

B. Server Derivation Rule

C. Vendor Specific Attributes

D. AP Derivation Rule

E. The Global AAA profile

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

As illustrated in the above diagram and screen capture, a wireless hacker injects messages into your network to detach a client from your Aruba AP.

What action should you take to identify and prevent the Intruder from connecting to your system?

A. enable Detect disconnect Station Attack

B. enable Spoofed Deauth Blacklist C. take no action as there is no protection against this form of attack

D. take no action as the Aruba system ignores this attack because it is against the client

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

An Aruba 650 controller is functioning as a standby Master. How many APs can it control while in standby mode?

A. 0

B. 16

C. 24

D. 128

E. 256

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

In the above diagram, the system shows two Aruba access points and a wired user.

Which VLAN(s) do NOT need to be configured on link A between the L2 switch and router to support the wireless users?

A. 101 and 102

B. 101 and 103

C. 102 and 103

D. only 101

E. only 103

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

With Visual RF location tracking, show location history can be set for a maximum of?

A. 1 hour

B. 6 hours

C. 24 hours

D. 12 hours

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

When configuring a server group containing 3 servers, a customer Chooses \’fail through mode\’. What other configuration option has to be enabled on the controller for this to work with 802.1x authentication?

A. Machine authentication

B. EAP Termination

C. Server group fall through mode

D. MAC authentication

E. Round robin or top down mode

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

If machine authentication passes and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?

A. employee

B. denyall

C. guest

D. logon

E. no role is assigned

Correct Answer: B