Month: May 2022

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Question 1:

Given this exhibit:

Which statement is true about the firewall rule?

A. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Servers, DB-Servers and Web-Servers that rejects traffic on port 22.

B. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-1 gateway that rejects traffic on port 22.

C. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Servers, DB-Servers and Web-Servers that drops traffic on port 22.

D. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that drops traffic on port 22.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Given this exhibit:

Which statement is true about the host transport nodes?

A. sa-esxi-04.vclass.local is successfully prepared for NSX with a TEP address of 172.20.11.151.

B. sa-esxi-02.vclass.local is successfully prepared for NSX with a TEP address of 172.20.10.52.

C. sa-esxi-05.vclass.local is successfully prepared for NSX with a TEP address of 172.20.10.55.

D. sa-esxi-03.vclass.local had an error while being prepared for NSX with no TEP address assigned.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

A customer needs to simplify application migration, workload rebalancing, and business continuity across data centers and clouds.

Which product can help?

A. vRealize Operations

B. NSX Cloud

C. VMware Carbon Black

D. VMware HCX

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-HCX/services/user-guide/GUID-A7E39202-11FA-476AA795-AB70BA821BD3.html


Question 4:

Which plane in the NSX-T Data Center Architecture is used to create, read, update, and delete (CRUD) operations?

A. Local Control Plane (LCP)

B. Management Plane

C. Data Plane

D. Central Control Plane (CCP)

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-Data-Center-for-vSphere/6.4/ com.vmware.nsx.troubleshooting.doc/GUID-88BA25EC-126B-41EE-9F06-BD6235C9EC77.html


Question 5:

How are NSX managed compute endpoints called?

A. Transport Zone

B. vSphere Node

C. Transport Node

D. Compute Node

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.uk.insight.com/en-gb/content-and-resources/articles/cloud-hub/2018-02-12-hybridcloud-networking-with-vmware-nsx-t


Question 6:

A customer needs to create a multi-tier network infrastructure.

What does the customer need to do to create this infrastructure?

A. Connect segments to a Tier-1 gateway, and connect the Tier-1 gateway to the Tier-0 gateway.

B. Connect segments to the Tier-1 gateway only.

C. Connect segments to a Tier-0 gateway, and connect the Tier-0 gateway to the Tier-1 gateway.

D. Connect segments to the Tier-0 gateway only.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which plane is responsible for creating and deleting network objects in the NSX-T Data Center Architecture?

A. Control Plane

B. Data Plane

C. Life Cycle Plane

D. Management Plane

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which security services are natively provided by NSX-T Data Center?

A. Network introspection

B. Endpoint protection

C. Distributed IDS

D. Anti-virus protection

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A customer has experienced a disaster.

Which statement describes a recovery benefit of a vSphere Environment with NSX Data Center?

A. NSX Datacenter enables replication between sites.

B. Workload mobility is tied to vCenter server.

C. It simplifies the DR by not requiring the change of the IP addresses of workloads.

D. It is a requirement to stretch cluster to have a DR scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-Data-Center/3.1/administration/GUID-5D7E3D436497-4273-99C1-77613C36AD75.html


Question 10:

What does a customer need to configure to create GENEVE backed segments using NSX-T Data Center?

A. VLAN Transport Zone

B. Virtual Distributed Switch

C. Virtual Standard Switch

D. Overlay Transport Zone

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Validated-Design/6.1/sddc-architecture-and-design-for-avsphere-with-tanzu-workload-domain/GUID-B1A08A06-F475-436B-8BA4-31552450D63C.html


Question 11:

How can NSX-T Distributed Firewall help customers achieve security for newly migrated containerized applications?

A. Quality of service

B. Micro-segmentation

C. Dynamic routing

D. Network I/O control

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/networkvirtualization/2020/04/nsx-t-3-0.html/


Question 12:

Which two statements are true about N-VDS/VDS? (Choose two.)

A. KVM hosts support both N-VDS and VDS.

B. It is a module deployed in all transport nodes that provides L2 functionality.

C. It is a module deployed in all transport nodes that provides L3 functionality.

D. ESXi hosts support both N-VDS and VDS.

E. Bare-metal servers support both N-VDS and VDS.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-Data-Center/2.3/com.vmware.nsxt.install.doc/ GUID-F47989B2-2B9D-4214-B3BA-5DDF66A1B0E6.html


Question 13:

Which protocol allows an administrator to provide overlay networks on top of physical networks used in NSX-T Datacenter?

A. Geneve Segments

B. Tier-0 Gateway

C. VXLAN

D. Distributed Firewall

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Validated-Design/5.1/sddc-architecture-and-design-for-vmware-nsxt-workload-domains/GUID-CF3C47CA-9BEB-4213-8F08-1494261BF3EC.html


Question 14:

An administrator needs to encrypt file transfers between two sites that do not have the same subnet. Which NSX-T feature accomplishes this task?

A. IPSEC VPN

B. SSL VPN

C. Tier-0 Gateway

D. L2 VPN

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A customer needs multi-cloud load balancing, web application firewall, and container ingress services across on-premises data centers and any cloud.

Which product meets this customer\’s needs?

A. VMware HCX

B. NSX Advanced Load Balancer

C. NSX Cloud

D. NSX Distributed IDS

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/nsx-advanced-load-balancer.html


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Question 1:

During examination of Internet history records, the following string occurs within a Unique Resource Locator (URL):

http://www.companysite.com/products/products.asp?productid=123 or 1=1

What type of attack does this indicate?

A. Directory traversal

B. Structured Query Language (SQL) injection

C. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

D. Shellcode injection

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which one of the following data integrity models assumes a lattice of integrity levels?

A. Take-Grant

B. Biba

C. Harrison-Ruzzo

D. Bell-LaPadula

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

What is the process of removing sensitive data from a system or storage device with the intent that the data cannot be reconstructed by any known technique?

A. Purging

B. Encryption

C. Destruction

D. Clearing

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

An organization has discovered that users are visiting unauthorized websites using anonymous proxies.

Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

A. Remove the anonymity from the proxy

B. Analyze Internet Protocol (IP) traffic for proxy requests

C. Disable the proxy server on the firewall

D. Block the Internet Protocol (IP) address of known anonymous proxies

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which of the following is the MOST efficient mechanism to account for all staff during a speedy nonemergency evacuation from a large security facility?

A. Large mantrap where groups of individuals leaving are identified using facial recognition technology

B. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) sensors worn by each employee scanned by sensors at each exitdoor

C. Emergency exits with push bars with coordinates at each exit checking off the individual against a predefined list

D. Card-activated turnstile where individuals are validated upon exit

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

The organization would like to deploy an authorization mechanism for an Information Technology (IT) infrastructure project with high employee turnover.

Which access control mechanism would be preferred?

A. Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC)

B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

D. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which of the following is the MOST common method of memory protection?

A. Compartmentalization

B. Segmentation

C. Error correction

D. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) tagging

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

An organization has outsourced its financial transaction processing to a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) who will provide them with Software as a Service (SaaS). If there was a data breach who is responsible for monetary losses?

A. The Data Protection Authority (DPA)

B. The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

C. The application developers

D. The data owner

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

In Disaster Recovery (DR) and Business Continuity (DC) training, which BEST describes a functional drill?

A. a functional evacuation of personnel

B. a specific test by response teams of individual emergency response functions

C. an activation of the backup site

D. a full-scale simulation of an emergency and the subsequent response functions.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which of the following steps should be performed FIRST when purchasing Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) software?

A. undergo a security assessment as part of authorization process

B. establish a risk management strategy

C. harden the hosting server, and perform hosting and application vulnerability scans

D. establish policies and procedures on system and services acquisition

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the impact of an externally sourced flood attack?

A. Have the service provider block the soiree address.

B. Have the soiree service provider block the address.

C. Block the soiree address at the firewall.

D. Block all inbound traffic until the flood ends.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which of the following is a common characteristic of privacy?

A. Provision for maintaining an audit trail of access to the private data

B. Notice to the subject of the existence of a database containing relevant credit card data

C. Process for the subject to inspect and correct personal data on-site

D. Database requirements for integration of privacy data

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which of the following methods of suppressing a fire is environmentally friendly and the MOST appropriate for a data center?

A. Inert gas fire suppression system

B. Halon gas fire suppression system

C. Dry-pipe sprinklers

D. Wet-pipe sprinklers

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following BEST describles a protection profile (PP)?

A. A document that expresses an implementation independent set of security requirements for an Information Technology (IT) product that meets specific consumer needs.

B. A document that expresses an implementation dependent set of security retirements which contains only the security functional requirements.

C. A document that represents evaluated products where there is a one-to-one correspondence between a PP and a Security Target (ST).

D. A document that is used to develop an Information Technology (IT) security product from Its security requirements definition.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which of the following technologies would provide the BEST alternative to anti-malware software?

A. Host-based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)

B. Application whitelisting

C. Host-based firewalls D. Application sandboxing

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Huawei 8100 V5 is an 8U 8-socket rack server.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which types of GPU can the G5500 support? (Multiple Choice)

A. TesIa V100

B. TesIa P40

C. GTX 1080

D. Tesla P4

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 3:

HMM could achieve Domain-based management for multiple E9000 chassis.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which firmware can be upgraded by using the eSight Server? (Multiple Choice)

A. BMC

B. BIOS

C. NICFW

D. NIC driver

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 5:

Huawei RH1288 V3 is a 1U rack server.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Huawei RH8100 V3 cascades two 4-socket servers into one 8-socket server.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which server does Huawei FusionCube 6000C use?

A. X6800

B. E9000

C. X6000

D. RH2288H

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Server performance is mainly determined by:

A. Processor platform

B. Memory capacity

C. Storage capacity

D. Network performance

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What is the maximum number of nodes that the FusionCube can support?

A. 64

B. 128

C. 256

D. 512

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What is the maximum number of NVMe SSD disks Huawei RH1288 V3 can support?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Huawei provides servers except:

A. Blade server

B. Rack server

C. Tower server

D. High-density server

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which is the half-width and 2-socket server node of Huawei E9000 blade server?

A. CH140 V3

B. CH220 V3

C. CH222V3

D. CH242V3

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

What is the maximum number of 2.5-inch hard disks Huawei 5288 V3 can support?

A. 12

B. 24

C. 36

D. 40

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

The Huawei E9000 server can operate stably at 40°C (104°F) high temperatures.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What kind of workload switching can the G560 support with the feature of one-click switching topology?

A. AI Training/Inference

B. AI Inference/HPC

C. AI Training/HPC

D. All of them

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

You have identified a potential hybrid IT prospect. In your next conversation, you learn that the customer has just started to virtualize the data center. The customer wants to make the data center more agile with private cloud services. Which approach should you take with this customer?

A. Take a services-led approach to transform the customer data environment with cloud storage solutions.

B. Qualify the customer for an HPE private cloud solution built on hyperconverged infrastructure.

C. Qualify the customer for HPE Intelligent Edge because the customer is not yet ready for a hybrid IT solution.

D. Take a services-led approach to transform the customer data center into a full software- defined infrastructure.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What is a simple way to describe digital transformation to customers?

A. IoT devices ate replacing traditional desktop computers.

B. Everything around us is becoming connected and sharing data.

C. Apps and dataare merging into a single platform.

D. New apps are being created to stop data from growing so quickly.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

What is one benefit of the private cloud model?

A. It removes the need for making capital expenditures in the data center.

B. It requires fewer IT resources than public cloud.

C. It offers more scalability than public cloud.

D. It enables self-serviceprovisioning within the customer\’s IT infrastructure.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

How does the new HPE Cloud Cruiser product help customers manage and optimize IT usage in their organization?

A. with flash storage capabilities

B. via a suite of management and security platforms

C. throughconsumption analytics software

D. with entity behavior analytics

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

You are discussing HPE Hybrid IT solutions with apotential customer. The customer needs help deciding which solutions to keep on-premises and how to make a migration plan. Which key distinguishing feature of HPE should you discuss?

A. a network of 50,000 professionals and partners with deep applicationand workload expertise

B. the HPE Synergy solution, a program that connects HPE customers to trusted cloud providers

C. machine learning solutions that automatically analyze workloads and determine where they should be deployed

D. an innovative public cloud that is designed to host all customer workloads securely

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which innovation will The Machine offer?

A. introducing fluid pools of resources that can be easily provisioned

B. modifying the existing architecture to keep pace with Moore\’s Law

C. reducing energy consumption by using photonics for chip-to-chip communications

D. enabling integration with storage technologies such as Fibre Channel

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A customer needs to analyze very large amounts of data and has reached a dead-end in increasing the speed of results. Which HPE- innovation has been proven to accelerate analytic applications such as Spark?

A. unified API

B. memory-driven computing

C. software-defined infrastructure

D. latest generation processors

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which solution allows customers to independently scale compute and storage resources and to redefine them dynamically?

A. HPE SGI

B. HPE Synergy

C. HPE ProLiant Gen10

D. HPE Nimble

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which key benefit of HPE Synergy helps to distinguish HPE from the competition?

A. the ability to support virtualized workloads from leading vendors such as VMware

B. the ability to dynamically deploy location-based service apps to customer mobile devices

C. the ability to integrate IoT devices into the network with minimal security risks

D. the ability to independently scale compute and storage resources, and redefine them dynamically

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which customer issue does an in-memory database address?

A. the need for faster insights from data

B. the need for desktop virtualization

C. the need for flexiblestorage and compute scaling

D. the need for data virtualization in the cloud

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Howshould you discuss digital transformation with your customers?

A. Downplay the importance of digital transformation, since it is a trend that is not as relevant as it was a year ago.

B. Focus on the way public cloud solutions can speed delivery of services and applications.

C. Help them elevate digital transformation from an incubation project to a business imperative.

D. Explain that digital transformation is just a buzzword and that they should focus on the New Economy instead.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which customer initiative suggests an opportunity to discuss HPE solutions for location- based mobile services?

A. providing disaster recovery for a site

B. increasing database efficiency

C. driving customer engagement

D. implementing IoT

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

In talking to your customers, what would suggest an HPE Hybrid IT opportunity?

A. The customer wants to know if better collaboration tools will improve employee productivity.

B. The customer is interested in updating their wired and wireless network to include a unified management solution.

C. The customer wants to implement user-based access to prevent unauthorized users from gaining access.

D. The customer has been trying to automate their infrastructure but is seeing few results.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

What is one way disruptive technologies such as big data and next-gen analytics helpprotect companies?

A. They keep data analytics operations safely behind the data center firewall.

B. They enable sophisticated threat detection all the way to the edge of the network.

C. They redirect attacks to cloud-based security services environments.

D. They are resistant to attacks because they have a distributed architecture.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What is one way that HPE powers the Intelligent Edge?

A. through its investments in processor-driven computing development

B. by redefining mobile as high quality and secure

C. by re-designing loT hardware for security

D. through its innovative industrial loT apps

Correct Answer: D

Reference:https://www.hpe.com/us/en/insights/articles/the-intelligent-edge-what-it-is-what- its-not-andwhy-itsuseful-1704.html


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Question 1:

A financial services company needs to aggregate daily stock trade data from the exchanges into a data store. The company requires that data be streamed directly into the data store, but also occasionally allows data to be modified using SQL. The solution should integrate complex, analytic queries running with minimal latency. The solution must provide a business intelligence dashboard that enables viewing of the top contributors to anomalies in stock prices.

Which solution meets the company\’s requirements?

A. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to stream data to Amazon S3. Use Amazon Athena as a data source for Amazon QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.

B. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to stream data to Amazon Redshift. Use Amazon Redshift as a data source for Amazon QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.

C. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to stream data to Amazon Redshift. Use Amazon Redshift as a data source for Amazon QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.

D. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to stream data to Amazon S3. Use Amazon Athena as a data source for Amazon QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A financial company hosts a data lake in Amazon S3 and a data warehouse on an Amazon Redshift cluster. The company uses Amazon QuickSight to build dashboards and wants to secure access from its on-premises Active Directory to Amazon QuickSight.

How should the data be secured?

A. Use an Active Directory connector and single sign-on (SSO) in a corporate network environment.

B. Use a VPC endpoint to connect to Amazon S3 from Amazon QuickSight and an IAM role to authenticate Amazon Redshift.

C. Establish a secure connection by creating an S3 endpoint to connect Amazon QuickSight and a VPC endpoint to connect to Amazon Redshift.

D. Place Amazon QuickSight and Amazon Redshift in the security group and use an Amazon S3 endpoint to connect Amazon QuickSight to Amazon S3.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A real estate company has a mission-critical application using Apache HBase in Amazon EMR. Amazon EMR is configured with a single master node. The company has over 5 TB of data stored on an Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS). The company wants a cost-effective solution to make its HBase data highly available.

Which architectural pattern meets company\’s requirements?

A. Use Spot Instances for core and task nodes and a Reserved Instance for the EMR master node. Configure the EMR cluster with multiple master nodes. Schedule automated snapshots using Amazon EventBridge.

B. Store the data on an EMR File System (EMRFS) instead of HDFS. Enable EMRFS consistent view. Create an EMR HBase cluster with multiple master nodes. Point the HBase root directory to an Amazon S3 bucket.

C. Store the data on an EMR File System (EMRFS) instead of HDFS and enable EMRFS consistent view. Run two separate EMR clusters in two different Availability Zones. Point both clusters to the same HBase root directory in the same Amazon S3 bucket.

D. Store the data on an EMR File System (EMRFS) instead of HDFS and enable EMRFS consistent view. Create a primary EMR HBase cluster with multiple master nodes. Create a secondary EMR HBase read-replica cluster in a separate Availability Zone. Point both clusters to the same HBase root directory in the same Amazon S3 bucket.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/emr/latest/ReleaseGuide/emr-hbase-s3.html


Question 4:

A software company hosts an application on AWS, and new features are released weekly. As part of the application testing process, a solution must be developed that analyzes logs from each Amazon EC2 instance to ensure that the application is working as expected after each deployment. The collection and analysis solution should be highly available with the ability to display new information with minimal delays.

Which method should the company use to collect and analyze the logs?

A. Enable detailed monitoring on Amazon EC2, use Amazon CloudWatch agent to store logs in Amazon S3, and use Amazon Athena for fast, interactive log analytics.

B. Use the Amazon Kinesis Producer Library (KPL) agent on Amazon EC2 to collect and send data to Kinesis Data Streams to further push the data to Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) and visualize using Amazon QuickSight.

C. Use the Amazon Kinesis Producer Library (KPL) agent on Amazon EC2 to collect and send data to Kinesis Data Firehose to further push the data to Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) and OpenSearch Dashboards (Kibana).

D. Use Amazon CloudWatch subscriptions to get access to a real-time feed of logs and have the logs delivered to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to further push the data to Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) and OpenSearch Dashboards (Kibana).

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/logs/Subscriptions.html


Question 5:

A data analyst is using AWS Glue to organize, cleanse, validate, and format a 200 GB dataset. The data analyst triggered the job to run with the Standard worker type. After 3 hours, the AWS Glue job status is still RUNNING. Logs from the job run show no error codes. The data analyst wants to improve the job execution time without overprovisioning.

Which actions should the data analyst take?

A. Enable job bookmarks in AWS Glue to estimate the number of data processing units (DPUs). Based on the profiled metrics, increase the value of the executor-cores job parameter.

B. Enable job metrics in AWS Glue to estimate the number of data processing units (DPUs). Based on the profiled metrics, increase the value of the maximum capacity job parameter.

C. Enable job metrics in AWS Glue to estimate the number of data processing units (DPUs). Based on the profiled metrics, increase the value of the spark.yarn.executor.memoryOverhead job parameter.

D. Enable job bookmarks in AWS Glue to estimate the number of data processing units (DPUs). Based on the profiled metrics, increase the value of the num-executors job parameter.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/glue/latest/dg/monitor-debug-capacity.html


Question 6:

A company has a business unit uploading .csv files to an Amazon S3 bucket. The company\’s data platform team has set up an AWS Glue crawler to do discovery, and create tables and schemas. An AWS Glue job writes processed data from the created tables to an Amazon Redshift database. The AWS Glue job handles column mapping and creating the Amazon Redshift table appropriately. When the AWS Glue job is rerun for any reason in a day, duplicate records are introduced into the Amazon Redshift table.

Which solution will update the Redshift table without duplicates when jobs are rerun?

A. Modify the AWS Glue job to copy the rows into a staging table. Add SQL commands to replace the existing rows in the main table as postactions in the DynamicFrameWriter class.

B. Load the previously inserted data into a MySQL database in the AWS Glue job. Perform an upsert operation in MySQL, and copy the results to the Amazon Redshift table.

C. Use Apache Spark\’s DataFrame dropDuplicates() API to eliminate duplicates and then write the data to Amazon Redshift.

D. Use the AWS Glue ResolveChoice built-in transform to select the most recent value of the column.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A streaming application is reading data from Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and immediately writing the data to an Amazon S3 bucket every 10 seconds. The application is reading data from hundreds of shards. The batch interval cannot be changed due to a separate requirement. The data is being accessed by Amazon Athena. Users are seeing degradation in query performance as time progresses.

Which action can help improve query performance?

A. Merge the files in Amazon S3 to form larger files.

B. Increase the number of shards in Kinesis Data Streams.

C. Add more memory and CPU capacity to the streaming application.

D. Write the files to multiple S3 buckets.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

A company uses Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) to store and analyze its website clickstream data. The company ingests 1 TB of data daily using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose and stores one day\’s worth of

data in an Amazon ES cluster.

The company has very slow query performance on the Amazon ES index and occasionally sees errors from Kinesis Data Firehose when attempting to write to the index. The Amazon ES cluster has 10 nodes running a single index and 3

dedicated master nodes. Each data node has 1.5 TB of Amazon EBS storage attached and the cluster is configured with 1,000 shards. Occasionally, JVMMemoryPressure errors are found in the cluster logs.

Which solution will improve the performance of Amazon ES?

A. Increase the memory of the Amazon ES master nodes.

B. Decrease the number of Amazon ES data nodes.

C. Decrease the number of Amazon ES shards for the index.

D. Increase the number of Amazon ES shards for the index.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A manufacturing company has been collecting IoT sensor data from devices on its factory floor for a year and is storing the data in Amazon Redshift for daily analysis. A data analyst has determined that, at an expected ingestion rate of about 2 TB per day, the cluster will be undersized in less than 4 months. A long-term solution is needed. The data analyst has indicated that most queries only reference the most recent 13 months of data, yet there are also quarterly reports that need to query all the data generated from the past 7 years. The chief technology officer (CTO) is concerned about the costs, administrative effort, and performance of a long-term solution.

Which solution should the data analyst use to meet these requirements?

A. Create a daily job in AWS Glue to UNLOAD records older than 13 months to Amazon S3 and delete those records from Amazon Redshift. Create an external table in Amazon Redshift to point to the S3 location. Use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to join to data that is older than 13 months.

B. Take a snapshot of the Amazon Redshift cluster. Restore the cluster to a new cluster using dense storage nodes with additional storage capacity.

C. Execute a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT (CTAS) statement to move records that are older than 13 months to quarterly partitioned data in Amazon Redshift Spectrum backed by Amazon S3.

D. Unload all the tables in Amazon Redshift to an Amazon S3 bucket using S3 Intelligent-Tiering. Use AWS Glue to crawl the S3 bucket location to create external tables in an AWS Glue Data Catalog. Create an Amazon EMR cluster using Auto Scaling for any daily analytics needs, and use Amazon Athena for the quarterly reports, with both using the same AWS Glue Data Catalog.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

An insurance company has raw data in JSON format that is sent without a predefined schedule through an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream to an Amazon S3 bucket. An AWS Glue crawler is scheduled to run every 8 hours to update the schema in the data catalog of the tables stored in the S3 bucket. Data analysts analyze the data using Apache Spark SQL on Amazon EMR set up with AWS Glue Data Catalog as the metastore. Data analysts say that, occasionally, the data they receive is stale. A data engineer needs to provide access to the most up-to-date data.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Create an external schema based on the AWS Glue Data Catalog on the existing Amazon Redshift cluster to query new data in Amazon S3 with Amazon Redshift Spectrum.

B. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events with the rate (1 hour) expression to execute the AWS Glue crawler every hour.

C. Using the AWS CLI, modify the execution schedule of the AWS Glue crawler from 8 hours to 1 minute.

D. Run the AWS Glue crawler from an AWS Lambda function triggered by an S3:ObjectCreated:* event notification on the S3 bucket.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A company that produces network devices has millions of users. Data is collected from the devices on an hourly basis and stored in an Amazon S3 data lake.

The company runs analyses on the last 24 hours of data flow logs for abnormality detection and to troubleshoot and resolve user issues. The company also analyzes historical logs dating back 2 years to discover patterns and look for improvement opportunities.

The data flow logs contain many metrics, such as date, timestamp, source IP, and target IP. There are about 10 billion events every day.

How should this data be stored for optimal performance?

A. In Apache ORC partitioned by date and sorted by source IP

B. In compressed .csv partitioned by date and sorted by source IP

C. In Apache Parquet partitioned by source IP and sorted by date

D. In compressed nested JSON partitioned by source IP and sorted by date

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A banking company is currently using an Amazon Redshift cluster with dense storage (DS) nodes to store sensitive data. An audit found that the cluster is unencrypted. Compliance requirements state that a database with sensitive data must be encrypted through a hardware security module (HSM) with automated key rotation.

Which combination of steps is required to achieve compliance? (Choose two.)

A. Set up a trusted connection with HSM using a client and server certificate with automatic key rotation.

B. Modify the cluster with an HSM encryption option and automatic key rotation.

C. Create a new HSM-encrypted Amazon Redshift cluster and migrate the data to the new cluster.

D. Enable HSM with key rotation through the AWS CLI.

E. Enable Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) encryption in the HSM.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/redshift/latest/mgmt/working-with-db-encryption.html


Question 13:

A company is planning to do a proof of concept for a machine learning (ML) project using Amazon SageMaker with a subset of existing on-premises data hosted in the company\’s 3 TB data warehouse. For part of the project, AWS Direct Connect is established and tested. To prepare the data for ML, data analysts are performing data curation. The data analysts want to perform multiple step, including mapping, dropping null fields, resolving choice, and splitting fields. The company needs the fastest solution to curate the data for this project.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Ingest data into Amazon S3 using AWS DataSync and use Apache Spark scrips to curate the data in an Amazon EMR cluster. Store the curated data in Amazon S3 for ML processing.

B. Create custom ETL jobs on-premises to curate the data. Use AWS DMS to ingest data into Amazon S3 for ML processing.

C. Ingest data into Amazon S3 using AWS DMS. Use AWS Glue to perform data curation and store the data in Amazon S3 for ML processing.

D. Take a full backup of the data store and ship the backup files using AWS Snowball. Upload Snowball data into Amazon S3 and schedule data curation jobs using AWS Batch to prepare the data for ML.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A US-based sneaker retail company launched its global website. All the transaction data is stored in Amazon RDS and curated historic transaction data is stored in Amazon Redshift in the us-east-1 Region. The business intelligence (BI) team wants to enhance the user experience by providing a dashboard for sneaker trends.

The BI team decides to use Amazon QuickSight to render the website dashboards. During development, a team in Japan provisioned Amazon QuickSight in ap-northeast-1. The team is having difficulty connecting Amazon QuickSight from ap-northeast-1 to Amazon Redshift in us-east-1.

Which solution will solve this issue and meet the requirements?

A. In the Amazon Redshift console, choose to configure cross-Region snapshots and set the destination Region as ap-northeast-1. Restore the Amazon Redshift Cluster from the snapshot and connect to Amazon QuickSight launched in apnortheast-1.

B. Create a VPC endpoint from the Amazon QuickSight VPC to the Amazon Redshift VPC so Amazon QuickSight can access data from Amazon Redshift.

C. Create an Amazon Redshift endpoint connection string with Region information in the string and use this connection string in Amazon QuickSight to connect to Amazon Redshift.

D. Create a new security group for Amazon Redshift in us-east-1 with an inbound rule authorizing access from the appropriate IP address range for the Amazon QuickSight servers in ap-northeast-1.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

An airline has .csv-formatted data stored in Amazon S3 with an AWS Glue Data Catalog. Data analysts want to join this data with call center data stored in Amazon Redshift as part of a dally batch process. The Amazon Redshift cluster is already under a heavy load. The solution must be managed, serverless, well-functioning, and minimize the load on the existing Amazon Redshift cluster. The solution should also require minimal effort and development activity.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Unload the call center data from Amazon Redshift to Amazon S3 using an AWS Lambda function. Perform the join with AWS Glue ETL scripts.

B. Export the call center data from Amazon Redshift using a Python shell in AWS Glue. Perform the join with AWS Glue ETL scripts.

C. Create an external table using Amazon Redshift Spectrum for the call center data and perform the join with Amazon Redshift.

D. Export the call center data from Amazon Redshift to Amazon EMR using Apache Sqoop. Perform the join with Apache Hive.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which statement is true about an OSPF broadcast link?

A. All routers form an adjacency only with the BDR

B. All routers form an adjacency only with the DR

C. All routers form an adjacency with all other routers

D. All routers form an adjacency with both the DR and BDR

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://sites.google.com/site/amitsciscozone/home/juniper-junos/junos–ospf-designated-router


Question 2:

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The BGP peering between R1 and R4 should use loopback interface addresses

B. The BGP peering between R1 and R4 should use physical interface addresses

C. The BGP peerings between R1, R2, and R3 should use loopback interface addresses

D. The BGP peerings between R1, R2, and R3 should use physical interface addresses

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which statement about the IS-IS interface is true?

A. The ge-0/0/0.0 interface will act as an L1/L2 interface

B. The ge-0/0/0.0 interface will act as an L2 interface only

C. The ge-0/0/0.0 interface will act as an L1 interface only

D. The ge-0/0/0.0 interface will not be assigned to a level

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, why is the route hidden?

A. The wrong BGP address family is enabled for the BGP session

B. The route has yet to be verified

C. The protocol next hop is not reachable

D. The MPLS LSP to the 192.168.0.2 peer is down

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, the GRE tunnel between R-1 and R-2 allows connectivity between User-1 and Server-1. When User-1 communicates with Server-2 with packets that are 1472 bytes in size, no packet fragmentation occurs. User-1 can communicate with Server-1 with packets that are up to 1448 bytes in size with no packet fragmentation. However, if the packet size is larger than 1448 bytes, packet fragmentation occurs.

Why is the packet fragmentation occurring between User-1 and Server-1 in this scenario?

A. The GRE header adds 20 bytes to the packet

B. The GRE header adds 24 bytes to the packet

C. The IP header adds 20 bytes to the packet

D. The IP header adds 24 bytes to the packet

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which two statements are correct about the BGP MED attribute? (Choose two.)

A. BGP uses the MED value when peering to two or more connections to the same upstream AS

B. BGP routes require the MED attribute be defined

C. BGP uses the MED value when peering to two different upstream ASs

D. BGP assumes the MED value to be 0, if not already defined

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/topic-map/med-attribute.html


Question 7:

What is the Junos default router priority advertisement value for IS-IS?

A. 64

B. 32

C. 0

D. 127

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/concept/routing-protocol-is-is-security-designated-router-understanding.html#:~:text=If routers in the network,a priority value of 64.


Question 8:

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The router will install the 0.0.0.0/0 route into the routing table when no BGP prefixes are present

B. The router will remove the 0.0.0.0/0 route from the routing table when no BGP prefixes are present

C. The router will remove the 0.0.0.0/0 route from the routing table when any BGP prefixes are present

D. The router will install the 0.0.0.0/0 route into the routing table when any BGP prefixes are present

Correct Answer: BD


Question 9:

Click the Exhibit button.

Both configuration hierarchies shown in the exhibit have been committed to your MX Series device. Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. Traffic destined to 10.3.0.1 will use the R1-to-R6 LSP as a next hop

B. Traffic destined to 10.3.0.1 will not use the R1-to-R6 LSP as a next hop

C. The active 10.3.0.0/24 prefix installed in the route table will have a route preference of 5

D. The active 10.3.0.0/24 prefix installed in the route table will have a route preference of 7

Correct Answer: AD


Question 10:

You are asked to change the default TTL handling behavior on your Junos device to ensure that the RSVP-signaled LSPs in your MPLS network cannot be mapped. Which configuration should be performed to accomplish this task?

A. Configure the no-decrement-ttl parameter for each LSP on the ingress device

B. Configure the no-propagate-ttl parameter for each LSP on the egress device

C. Configure the no-propagate-ttl parameter for each LSP on the ingress device

D. Configure the no-decrement-ttl parameter for each LSP on the egress device

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which action would you use to connect two virtual switches that are configured on the same router?

A. Create a VRF routing instance

B. Create a forwarding routing instance

C. Connect the virtual switches with a cable

D. Configure an irb interface

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which two functions are performed by the OSPF designated router? (Choose two.)

A. It advertises link-state information to the AS

B. It designates some routers as inactive when not needed

C. It forms adjacencies with all the other OSPF routers on the link

D. It chooses the backup designated router

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://sites.google.com/site/amitsciscozone/home/juniper-junos/junos–ospf-designated-router


Question 13:

The IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) performs the same function as which two IPv4 protocols? (Choose two.)

A. ICMP

B. ARP

C. DNS

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/topic-map/ipv6-neighbor-discovery.html#:~:text=Neighbor discovery for IPv6 replaces,Discovery protocol (NDP) messages.


Question 14:

Which two IP addresses are considered Martian addresses? (Choose two.)

A. 0.0.0.0/8

B. 192.168.0.0/8

C. 240.0.0.0/4

D. 169.254.0.0/16

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/topic-map/recognize-martian-addr-routing.html


Question 15:

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?

A. R2 is an ASBR

B. R1 is a backbone router

C. R2 is an ABR

D. R1 is an ABR

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

What is the generally accepted communication protocol on the Internet?

A. Net BIOS

B. OSI

C. SNA

D. TCP/IP

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What does the integrity of information mean?

A. It means that the access to the information is limited.

B. It means that the information can be accessed by those users who are allowed to access it.

C. It means that the information is accurate.

D. It means that the information is protected.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Why is a thin client called \’thin\’?

A. because it has a thin monitor

B. because it has limited functionality

C. because it has no memory

D. because it has no processor

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What was a serious drawback in the early development of networks?

A. computers being dedicated to one function

B. computers were too complicated to be connected

C. the low speed of the network

D. vendors developing their own network communication protocols

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Why is text messaging in automobiles outlawed in many countries?

A. for financial reasons

B. for safety reasons

C. for security reasons

D. for synchronization reasons

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What are the functions supported by HTTP?

A. Command Fill Add Use

B. Get Post Put Delete

C. Order Retrieve Send Replace

D. Receive View Select Send

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which technique allows multiple operating systems to run on a single host computer?

A. client

B. Hypervisor

C. sandboxing

D. server

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Why are standards important?

A. Standards provide interoperability.

B. Standards provide legal compliance.

C. Standards provide security.

D. Standards provide the most user-friendly solution.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What is a major benefit of using applications on mobile devices?

A. Mobile devices are cheaper than personal computers.

B. Mobile devices provide location independence.

C. Mobile devices uniquely identify the user approaching the application

D. Mobile devises are more secure than personal computers.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

What is the intended result of a Distributed Denial of Service (DDOS) attack on a web site?

A. To change the content of the site to prevent it from providing further services

B. To distribute the content of the site to users who are denied access to its service

C. To infect the site to distribute a virus to users, which denies them access to further services

D. To lock users out of the site by exhausting the sites resources

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which language can be used for running programs on the client side during web access?

A. HTML

B. Java

C. Javascript

D. XML

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What does the total cost of Application Ownership (TCAO) consist of?

A. The total annual costs of ownership including hardware support plus some amortization costs

B. The total annual costs of ownership including all platform costs, staffing and other internal costs

C. The total costs of ownership including hardware support plus some amortization costs

D. The total costs of ownership including software, hardware and services

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

In its 2010 Whitepaper the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) identifies a number of Top threats to Cloud Computing.

What is not identified by the CSA as a threat?

A. abuse and nefarious use of Cloud computing

B. insecure application interfaces

C. lack of good Service level agreements

D. unknown risk profile and account

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What is not a staffing benefit of Cloud computing?

A. Fewer IT-staff

B. Lower employee benefits

C. Lower recruitment costs

D. Lower self-service costs

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Why may Service levels vary for Hybrid Clouds?

A. Hybrid Clouds are constantly shifting from Public to Private Clouds.

B. Hybrid Clouds are less reliable than Public Clouds.

C. Hybrid Clouds are less reliable than Private Clouds.

D. SLAs of Hybrid Clouds contain a mix of Public and Private Cloud SLAs.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Your cluster is configured with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. What is the result when you execute: hadoop jar SampleJar MyClass on a client machine?

A. SampleJar.Jar is sent to the ApplicationMaster which allocates a container for SampleJar.Jar

B. Sample.jar is placed in a temporary directory in HDFS

C. SampleJar.jar is sent directly to the ResourceManager

D. SampleJar.jar is serialized into an XML file which is submitted to the ApplicatoionMaster

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which core technology allows interoperability between Microsoft Visual Basic .NET code and C# code?

A. Microsoft Visual Studio

B. Windows 7

C. Microsoft Intermediate Language (MSIL)

D. Windows Azure

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You define a method according to the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

Where should you insert code that must be executed, regardless of whether or not an error is thrown?

A. Between lines 05 and 06

B. Between lines 08 and 09

C. Between lines 11 and 12

D. Between lines 12 and 13

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

You write code that reads a file from the disk.

Which exception will catch an error if the file is missing?

A. InvalidOperationException

B. FaultException

C. IOException

D. ApplicationException

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

An event declaration is shown in the following code segment.

Public event NewProduccEventHandlerNewProduct;

What is NewProductEventHandler in the event declaration?

A. A built-in data type for handling events.

B. An enumeration that defines the type of the NewProduct variable.

C. The name of the delegate that will dispatch the event.

D. The name of the class method that will catch the event.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Connection strings in the web.config file are:

A. Automatically encrypted when the project is published.

B. Automatically encrypted by the web server.

C. Stored in binary format.

D. Stored in clear text unless they are encrypted.

Correct Answer: D

When working with data source controls it is recommended that you centralize the location of your connection strings by storing them in the application\’s Web.config file. This simplifies the management of connection strings by making them available to all of the ASP.NET pages in a Web application. In addition, you do not need to modify numerous individual pages if your connection string information changes. Finally, you can improve the security of sensitive information stored in a connection string, such as the database name, user name, password, and so on, by encrypting the connection string section of the Web.config file using protected configuration.


Question 6:

In which file does a .NET Windows application store information that has been customized for a particular instance of the application?

A. App.config

B. User.config

C. Machine.config

D. Web.config

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

You need to force the position of the cursor on the screen at (15, 10).

Which code segment should you use?

A. B. C. D.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

You want to insert a new line on the console.

Which three code fragments will display “Hello” followed by a new line? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A. Console.Write(“Hello\t”) ;

B. Console.Write(“Hello\n”);

C. Console.Error.Write(“Hello\t”);

D. Console.Error.WriteLine (“Hello”) ;

E. Console.WriteLine(“Hello”);

Correct Answer: BDE

B: \n adds a newline.

D: Console.Error.WriteLine writes a newline.

E: Console.WriteLine writes a newline.

Incorrect:

A, C: \t is just a space


Question 9:

You need to create a DLL that contains classes that can be reused in other projects. Which type of Microsoft Visual Studio project should you use?

A. Class Library

B. Web Application

C. Console Application

D. Windows Service

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You want to encrypt the connection string stored in the web.config file. Which tool should you use?

A. ASP.NET IIS Registration Tool (RegIIS.exe)

B. Intermediate Language Disassembler (ILDASM.exe)

C. Web Site Administration Tool

D. Dotfuscator Software Services

Correct Answer: A

You can use the ASP.NET IIS Registration Tool (Aspnet_regiis.exe) to encrypt or decrypt sections of a Web configuration file.

Example:

The following command encrypts the connectionStrings element in the Web.config file for the application SampleApplication.

aspnet_regiis -pe “connectionStrings” -app “/SampleApplication” -prov “RsaProtectedConfigurationProvider”


Question 11:

You want to create a method that can accept any data type as arguments.

Which feature of .NET languages allows you to create one method that will accept different data types on each call to the method?

A. Delegates

B. Named Parameters

C. Overriding

D. Generics

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

You create an unmanaged object and use the object. You no longer need the object. What should you do?

A. Set the value of the variable to null.

B. Cache the variable\’s value in a static variable.

C. Dispose the object to release memory.

D. Cast the object to its base type.

Correct Answer: C

The term “unmanaged resource” is usually used to describe something not directly under the control of the garbage collector. For example, if you open a connection to a database server this will use resources on the server (for maintaining the connection) and possibly other non-.net resources on the client machine, if the provider isn\’t written entirely in managed code.

This is why, for something like a database connection, it\’s recommended you write your code thusly:

using (var connection = new SqlConnection(“connection_string_here”)) { // Code to use connection here } As this ensures that .Dispose() is called on the connection object, ensuring that any unmanaged resources are cleaned up.


Question 13:

You create an XML document that has an XmlNode named node1.

Which code fragment will read the XML contained in node1 and its subnodes?

A. Node1.ToString ();

B. Node1.OuterXml;

C. Node1.InnerXml;

D. Node1.InnerXext;

E. Node1.Value;

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which describes the characteristic of the interoperability of the .NET Framework?

A. Allows consistent communication between a desktop application and a mobile application.

B. Allows consistent communication between a desktop application and a web application.

C. Handles exceptions consistently across languages.

D. Uses the same code syntax.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which three policy types are .NET security policy levels? (Choose three.)

A. Enterprise policy

B. Data policy

C. Network policy

D. Machine policy

E. Application domain policy

Correct Answer: ADE

The following table describes the four security policy levels provided by .NET Framework security.

*

Enterprise policy

All managed code in an enterprise setting where an enterprise configuration file is distributed.

*

Machine policy

All managed code on the computer.

*

User policy

Code in all the processes associated with the current operating system user when the common language runtime starts.

*

Application domain policy

Managed code in the host\’s application domain


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Question 1:

An Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) finding in your production database reports that the shared pool is inadequately sized. You diagnose that this is due to the different kinds of workloads and this occurs only during peak hours. The following are the parameter settings for the database instance:

You want to balance the memory between the System Global Area (SGA) components depending on the workload. Which option would solve this problem?

A. setting the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter to 200M and the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M

B. setting the MEMORY_TARGET and SGA_MAX_SIZE parameters to 400M

C. setting the SGA_TARGET parameter to 300M

D. setting the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?

A. Oracle Data Pump

B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)

C. Oracle Label Security

D. Oracle Database Vault

E. Oracle Real Application Security

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users complain about performance degradation.

How does real-time Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance degradation and provide solutions?

A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.

B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.

D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

Correct Answer: B

Note:

*

The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases (PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.

*

The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to an Oracle “instance” (an instance is your database programs and RAM).

*

The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control information for a single process.


Question 4:

Examine the following steps of privilege analysis for checking and revoking excessive, unused privileges granted to users:

1.

Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.

2.

Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.

3.

Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.

4.

Revoke the unused privileges.

5.

Compare the used and unused privileges\’ lists.

6.

Stop analyzing the data.

Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A. 1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4

B. 1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 4

C. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4

D. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4

E. 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 4

Correct Answer: B

1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.

3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.

6. Stop analyzing the data.

2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.

5. Compare the used and unused privileges\’ lists.

4. Revoke the unused privileges.


Question 5:

Your database is running an ARCHIVELOG mode.

The following parameters are set in your database instance:

Which statement is true about the archived redo log files?

A. They are created only in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter.

B. They are created only in the Fast Recovery Area because configuring the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST and DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE parameters automatically enables flashback for the database.

C. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the default location $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/arch.

D. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the location specified by the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter.

Correct Answer: A

You can choose to archive redo logs to a single destination or to multiple destinations.

Destinations can be local–within the local file system or an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM) disk group–or remote (on a standby database). When you archive to multiple destinations, a copy of each filled redo log file is

written to each destination. These redundant copies help ensure that archived logs are always available in the event of a failure at one of the destinations. To archive to only a single destination, specify that destination using the

LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST and LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization parameters.

ARCHIVE_DEST initialization parameter. To archive to multiple destinations, you can choose to archive to two or more locations using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n initialization parameters, or to archive only to a primary and secondary

destination using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST and LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization parameters.


Question 6:

Your multitenant container database (CDB) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You connect to the CDB RMAN.

Examine the following command and its output:

You execute the following command:

RMAN > BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;

Which data files will be backed up?

A. Data files that belong to only the root container

B. Data files that belong to the root container and all the pluggable databases (PDBs)

C. Data files that belong to only the root container and PDB$SEED

D. Data files that belong to the root container and all the PDBs excluding PDB$SEED

Correct Answer: B

Backing Up a Whole CDB

Backing up a whole CDB is similar to backing up a non-CDB. When you back up a whole CDB, RMAN backs up the root, all the PDBs, and the archived redo logs. You can then recover either the whole CDB, the root only, or one or more

PDBs from the CDB backup.

Note:

*

You can back up and recover a whole CDB, the root only, or one or more PDBs.

*

Backing Up Archived Redo Logs with RMAN

Archived redo logs are the key to successful media recovery. Back them up regularly. You can back up logs with BACKUP ARCHIVELOG, or back up logs while backing up datafiles and control files by specifying BACKUP … PLUS ARCHIVELOG.


Question 7:

You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage management (ASM). The files are stored in the DATA disk group. You execute the following command:

What is the result?

A. The file ` data.231.45678\’ is physically relocated to ` data/prod\’ and renamed as `myfile.dbf\’.

B. The file ` data.231.45678\’ is renamed as `myfile.dbf\’, and copied to ` data/prod\’.

C. The file ` data.231.45678\’ remains in the same location and a synonym \’myfile.dbf\’ is created.

D. The file `myfile.dbf\’ is created in ` data/prod\’ and the reference to ` data.231.45678\’ in the data dictionary removed.

Correct Answer: C

ADD ALIAS

Use this clause to create an alias name for an Oracle ASM filename. The alias_name consists of the full directory path and the alias itself.


Question 8:

Which three functions are performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor?

A. Building and implementing SQL profiles

B. Recommending the optimization of materialized views

C. Checking query objects for missing and stale statistics

D. Recommending bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes

E. Recommending the restructuring of SQL queries that are using bad plans

Correct Answer: ACE

The SQL Tuning Advisor takes one or more SQL statements as an input and invokes the Automatic Tuning Optimizer to perform SQL tuning on the statements. The output of the SQL Tuning Advisor is in the form of an advice or recommendations, along with a rationale for each recommendation and its expected benefit. The recommendation relates to collection of statistics on objects (C), creation of new indexes, restructuring of the SQL statement (E), or creation of a SQL profile (A). You can choose to accept the recommendation to complete the tuning of the SQL statements.


Question 9:

Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains three pluggable database (PDBs). You find that the control file is damaged. You plan to use RMAN to recover the control file. There are no startup triggers associated with the PDBs.

Which three steps should you perform to recover the control file and make the database fully operational? (Choose three.)

A. Mount the container database (CDB) and restore the control file from the control file autobackup.

B. Recover and open the CDB in NORMAL mode.

C. Mount the CDB and then recover and open the database, with the RESETLOGS option.

D. Open all the pluggable databases.

E. Recover each pluggable database.

F. Start the database instance in the nomount stage and restore the control file from control file autobackup.

Correct Answer: CDF

Step 1: Start the database instance in the nomount stage and restore the control file from control file auto backup

Step 2: Open all the pluggable databases.

Step 3: If all copies of the current control file are lost or damaged, then you must restore and mount a backup control file. You must then run the RECOVER command, even if no data files have been restored, and open the database with the

RESETLOGS option.

Note:

* RMAN and Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control (Cloud Control) provide full support for backup and recovery in a multitenant environment. You can back up and recover a whole multitenant container database (CDB), root only, or one or more pluggable databases (PDBs).


Question 10:

Your database supports a DSS workload that involves the execution of complex queries: Currently, the library cache contains the ideal workload for analysis. You want to analyze some of the queries for an application that are cached in the library cache.

What must you do to receive recommendations about the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query performance?

A. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) on the workload captured in the STS.

B. Run the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report.

C. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA) on the workload captured in the STS.

D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on the workload captured in the STS.

E. Run the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM).

Correct Answer: D

*

SQL Access Advisor is primarily responsible for making schema modification recommendations, such as adding or dropping indexes and materialized views. SQL Tuning Advisor makes other types of recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles and restructuring SQL statements.

*

The query optimizer can also help you tune SQL statements. By using SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL Access Advisor, you can invoke the query optimizer in advisory mode to examine a SQL statement or set of statements and determine how to improve their efficiency. SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL Access Advisor can make various recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles, restructuring SQL statements, creating additional indexes or materialized views, and refreshing optimizer statistics.

Note:

*

Decision support system (DSS) workload

*

The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL code. This cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQL areas and control structures such as locks and library cache handles.


Question 11:

The following parameters are set for your Oracle 12c database instance:

You want to manage the SQL plan evolution task manually. Examine the following steps:

1.

Set the evolve task parameters.

2.

Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.

3.

Implement the recommendations in the task by using the DBMS_SPM.IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK function.

4.

Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.

5.

Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM.REPORT_EVOLVE_TASK function.

Identify the correct sequence of steps:

A. 2, 4, 5

B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

D. 1, 2, 4, 5

Correct Answer: B

* Evolving SQL Plan Baselines

2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.

This function creates an advisor task to prepare the plan evolution of one or more plans for a specified SQL statement. The input parameters can be a SQL handle, plan name or a list of plan names, time limit, task name, and description.

1. Set the evolve task parameters.

SET_EVOLVE_TASK_PARAMETER

This function updates the value of an evolve task parameter. In this release, the only valid parameter is TIME_LIMIT.

4. Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.

This function executes an evolution task. The input parameters can be the task name, execution name, and execution description. If not specified, the advisor generates the name, which is returned by the function.

3: IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK

This function implements all recommendations for an evolve task. Essentially, this function is equivalent to using ACCEPT_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE for all recommended plans. Input parameters include task name, plan name, owner name,

and execution name.

5. Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM_EVOLVE_TASK function.

This function displays the results of an evolve task as a CLOB. Input parameters include the task name and section of the report to include.


Question 12:

Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c Oracle database (source):

Which three are prerequisites for successful execution of the command? (Choose three.)

A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user on the source database with the DATAPUMP_EXP_FULL_DATABASE role.

B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.

C. The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.

D. The source and target database must be running on the same platform with the same endianness.

E. The path of data files on the target database must be the same as that on the source database.

F. The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.

Correct Answer: ABD

In this case we have run the impdp without performing any conversion if endian format is different then we have to first perform conversion.


Question 13:

Examine the current values for the following parameters in your database instance:

SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 700M DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 124M LOG_BUFFER = 200M

You issue the following command to increase the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=140M;

Which statement is true?

A. It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.

B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.

C. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_TARGET.

D. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_MAX_SIZE.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?

A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.

B. The PDB must be closed.

C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.

D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)

E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.

F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.

Correct Answer: BDE

D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode information in an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported way to handle the conversion of such columns automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an endianness difference.

E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the source and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so that the PDB\’s datafiles can remain in place. The PDB must be closed before it can be unplugged. When you unplug a PDB from a CDB, the unplugged PDB is in mounted mode. The unplug operation makes some changes in the PDB\’s data files to record, for example, that the PDB was successfully unplugged. Because it is still part of the CDB, the unplugged PDB is included in an RMAN backup of the entire CDB. Such a backup provides a convenient way to archive the unplugged PDB in case it is needed in the future.


Question 15:

Examine the following command:

Which three statements are true about using an invisible column in the PRODUCTS table?

A. The %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL to access a row will not display the invisible column in the output.

B. The DESCRIBE commands in SQL *Plus will not display the invisible column in the output.

C. Referential integrity constraint cannot be set on the invisible column.

D. The invisible column cannot be made visible and can only be marked as unused.

E. A primary key constraint can be added on the invisible column.

Correct Answer: ABE

AB: You can make individual table columns invisible. Any generic access of a table does not show the invisible columns in the table. For example, the following operations do not display invisible columns in the output:

*

SELECT * FROM statements in SQL

*

DESCRIBE commands in SQL*Plus

*

%ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL

*

Describes in Oracle Call Interface (OCI) Incorrect Answers:

D: You can make invisible columns visible.

You can make a column invisible during table creation or when you add a column to a table, and you can later alter the table to make the same column visible.