Month: April 2022

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Question 1:

After creating several volumes, you notice that the hosting aggregates immediately show a decrease in available space.

Which volume setting would prevent this outcome?

A. space guarantee set to “volume”

B. space SLO set to “semi-thick”

C. space guarantee set to “none”

D. space SLO set to “thick”

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

You want to prepare your ONTAP cluster and your ESXi cluster to connect NFS datastores over a 10-GbE network using jumbo frames.

In this scenario, which three configurations would accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

A. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 1500 for your ESXi hosts

B. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9000 for your ONTAP cluster

C. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 1500 for your ONTAP cluster

D. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9000 for your ESXi hosts

E. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9216 for your switches

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 3:

Which two storage efficiency features are enabled by default on AFF systems? (Choose two.)

A. volume-level inline deduplication

B. aggregate-level compression

C. LUN-level compression

D. aggregate-level inline deduplication

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.dot-cm-vsmg/GUIDC1E3029E-1514-4579-939B-67160E849632.html


Question 4:

When you perform an upgrade using ONTAP System Manager 9.8, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The images must be manually uploaded to the cluster by using the ONTAP System Manager interface

B. The latest available images will appear in the ONTAP System Manager interface

C. The images will be automatically uploaded to the cluster by using the ONTAP System Manager interface from the NetApp Support site

D. The update history is available within the ONTAP System Manager interface

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

Click the Exhibit button.

You have an SVM-DR relationship as shown in the exhibit. You are given a new requirement to use SnapMirror Synchronous (SM-S) for the data volumes in NFS-SVM-01.

In this scenario, which solution is supported to enable SM-S in ONTAP 9.8 software?

A. Set up new SM-S relationships from the FAS2720 to a new destination

B. Set up NetApp Cloud Sync with a cloud broker in AWS to replicate to a new destination

C. Modify the existing SVM-DR policy to use sync mode

D. Set up new SM-S relationships from the AFF A220 to a new destination

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which two types of capacity tiers are supported with FabricPool aggregates in ONTAP 9.8? (Choose two.)

A. StorageGRID Object Storage

B. S3 Object Store

C. SWIFT Object Store

D. NFS Export

Correct Answer: AB


Question 7:

Click the Exhibit button.

A Linux host with the 10.0.1.24 IP address is unable to mount the VOL_A volume using NFSv3. Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?

A. The volume is in read-only

B. The logical interface does not allow the NFSv3 protocol

C. The host IP address does not match the export policy rule

D. The volume is not mounted in the namespace

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

A user wants existing data in a FlexVol created in ONTAP 9.1 to be placed into a FlexGroup volume with ONTAP 9.8.

In this scenario, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Use SnapMirror to replicate data from FlexVol to FlexGroup

B. Use XCP to copy data from a FlexVol to a FlexGroup

C. You can convert the FlexVol volume to a FlexGroup volume

D. A FlexVol to FlexGroup conversion is not supported

Correct Answer: AC


Question 9:

Click the Exhibit button.

After an ONTAP upgrade, you notice that several cluster LIFs are not on their home ports as shown in the exhibit.

Which LIF option would change this outcome?

A. the failover-policy option

B. the data-protocol option

C. the subnet-name option

D. the auto-revert option

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

A customer wants to migrate a series of LUNs from a third-party array to a FAS. In this scenario, which two tools would the customer use? (Choose two.)

A. XCP

B. NKS

C. ADP

D. FLI

Correct Answer: AD

Migrate a series of LUNs from a third-party array to a FAS.


Question 11:

Click the Exhibit button.

A user cannot save a file on an ONTAP SMB share.

Referring to the exhibit, which action allows the user to save the file?

A. Synchronize the ONTAP Cluster time to the Active Directory time

B. Let the user save the file to a writeable location

C. Set the user permission for the share to write

D. Allow the file type *.rtf in the CIFS Server fpolicy

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Your company requires WORM archiving of data on their ONTAP cluster. The data must not be able to be deleted even by an administrator.

Which ONTAP feature fulfills this requirement?

A. SnapVault software

B. SnapMirror software

C. SnapLock Enterprise

D. SnapLock Compliance

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://doc.agrarix.net/netapp/doc/Archive and Compliance Management% 20Guide.pdf (9)


Question 13:

Click the Exhibit button.

You are caching on-premises ONTAP volumes into the cloud with Cloud Volumes ONTAP as shown in the exhibit.

In this scenario, which two protocols are supported? (Choose two.)

A. NVMe

B. SMB

C. NFS

D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm/pdfs/sidebar/Manage_Cloud_Volumes_ONTAP.pdf


Question 14:

Click the Exhibit button.

You have a 2-node NetApp FAS2750 ONTAP cluster. You create a new 20-GB LUN in a new 100-GB volume and write 10 GB of data to the LUN. No storage efficiencies are enabled for the volume or aggregate.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. ONTAP reports that the volume is using 10 GB of its containing aggregate

B. ONTAP reports the volume as 20% full

C. ONTAP reports that the volume is using 100 GB of its containing aggregate

D. ONTAP reports the volume as 10% full

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

Which two statements are true about NVMe? (Choose two.)

A. NQNs are added to namespaces

B. LUNs are mapped to initiator groups

C. Namespaces are mapped to subsystems

D. NQNs are added to subsystems

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.dot-cm-sanag/GUID52A6B6A1-61F8-4845-91CB-B13A1526CC30.html


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Question 1:

You are speaking with a customer who has a large multi-site enterprise, and limited IT staff to support a new communications system. They like the idea of housing the primary call control in a reliable data center, but do not have such an environment. In their business today. Local survivability is critical as reliable communications is a core function of their business. Based on these factors, which IP OfficeTM deployment model would meet the customer requirements?

A. Private Cloud

B. Public Cloud

C. Hybrid Cloud

D. On-Premise

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

In an IP Office environment, which one can be run on the Vantage device?

A. Vantage Connect Client

B. Avaya IXTM Workplace Client

C. Avaya Equinox Attendant

D. IP Office Web Client

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

With Avaya Spaces, which statement is true about the what users can do?

A. Guest level users can only text chat other users.

B. All levels of users can text chat and video call.

C. Only Member level users and above can video call.

D. Only the Owner/Admin level users can video call.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

What is one of the features of the Avaya VantageTM K165 that makes it different than the Avaya Vantage K175?

A. It has visible mechanical buttons.

B. It has a smaller touch screen.

C. It does not Include a camera.

D. It is not an all glass device.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

With the Basic level of account In Avaya Spaces, which statement about what users can do is true?

A. They can have direct online video calling but no video conferences.

B. They can host online video conferences with a maximum of 5 participants.

C. They can host online video conferences with a maximum of 15 participants.

D. They can host online voice conferences with a maximum of 15 participants.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Your customer wants WIFI connectivity.

What Is the least costly Avaya DC- IP Phone model that supports WIFI connectivity?

A. J179

B. J169

C. J139

D. J129

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Your customer wants to create wallboards.

In addition to the Basic Avaya Call Reporting license, what is required to provide wallboard templates?

A. Realtime

B. Voice Recording Library

C. Custom reports

D. Agent Dashboards

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Your customer wants to edit the standard reports.

In addition to the Basic Avaya Call Reporting license, what is required to allow your customer to change

some of the 50 standard reports?

A. Recording Library

B. Agent Dashboards

C. Realtime

D. Custom reports

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

With Avaya Equinox?Meetings online is the maximum number of participants for a Preferred VMR?

A. 50 participants

B. 25 participants

C. 100 participants

D. 500 participants

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which statement is true about the various levels and the file sharing capabilities of Avaya Spaces users?

A. Only Member level users and above can share files.

B. Only Owner/Admin level users can share files.

C. All levels of users can share files.

D. File sharing is not a capability within Avaya Spaces.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Your customer would like to use Deskphone mode, also called Shared Control, and they want to know if

they need to replace any of their deskphones.

Which phone does not support Shared Call Control?

A. 1100 Series

B. J129

C. DECT R4

D. 1200 Series

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

With the Avaya J100 Series IXTM IP phones, which feature requires PoE Class 2?

A. The JBM24/JEM24 button module

B. The color display

C. The J100 wireless module

D. The built-in volume boost

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

With the Avaya IX\'” Workplace Client, what is required to provide point-to-point audio and video calls?

A. One user with Office Worker licence, one user with Power User licence

B. Two users with Avaya Equinox?Meetings Online virtual meeting rooms

C. Two users with Avaya Equinox?Conferencing host licences

D. Two users with Power User licences

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

For Avaya Equinox Meetings Online, In addition to capacity differences, which feature Is only offered in the Pro VMR?

A. Video room systems as participants

B. Web browser connectivity

C. Live broadcast for 750 viewers

D. Recording and playback

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

With the Avaya IXTM Workplace Client, what is the minimum Avaya Spaces account that Is required send and receive Instant messages?

A. Basic

B. Plus

C. Business

D. Platinum

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

To obtain protected files on a live machine with FTK Imager, which evidence item should be added?

A. image file

B. currently booted drive

C. server object settings

D. profile access control list

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

You create two evidence images from the suspect\’s drive: suspect.E01 and suspect.001.

You want to be able to verify that the image hash values are the same for suspect.E01 and suspect.001 image files. Which file has the hash value for the Raw (dd) image?

A. suspect.001.txt

B. suspect.E01.txt

C. suspect.001.csv

D. suspect.E01.csv

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which three items are contained in an Image Summary File using FTK Imager? (Choose three.)

A. MD5

B. CRC

C. SHA1

D. Sector Count

E. Cluster Count

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 4:

In which Overview tab container are HTML files classified?

A. Archive container

B. Java Code container

C. Documents container

D. Internet Files container

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

You want to search for two words within five words of each other.

Which search request would accomplish this function?

A. apple by pear w/5

B. June near July w/5

C. supernova w/5cassiopeia

D. supernova bycassiopeia w/5

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

You are asked to process a case using FTK and to produce a report that only includes selected graphics. What allows you to display only flagged graphics?

A. List by File Path

B. List File Properties

C. Graphic Thumbnails

D. Supplementary Files

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which data in the Registry can the Registry Viewer translate for the user? (Choose three.)

A. calculate MD5 hashes of individual keys

B. translate the MRUs in chronological order

C. present data stored in null terminated keys

D. present the date and time of each typed URL

E. View Protected Storage System Provider (PSSP) data

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 8:

What are two functions of the Summary Report in Registry Viewer? (Choose two.)

A. adds individual key values

B. is a template for other registry files

C. displays investigator keyword search results

D. permits searching of registry values based on key headers

Correct Answer: AB


Question 9:

In FTK, a user may alter the alert or ignore status of individual hash sets within the active KFF. Which utility is used to accomplish this?

A. KFF Alert Editor

B. ADKFF Library Selector

C. Hash Database File Selector

D. Hash Database Recovery Engine

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which two Registry Viewer operations can be conducted from FTK? (Choose two.)

A. list SAM file account names in FTK

B. view all registry files from within FTK

C. createsubitems of individual keys for FTK

D. export a registry report to the FTK case report

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

Click on the Exhibit button.

Which activity will this execution transfer to if an error occurs at the CheckInventory activity?

A. IncomingOrder

B. End

C. RespondNotAvailable

D. CatchInventory

E. CatchAllOthers

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which utility should you use to delete all deployed process files from a domain before using it for testing?

A. Domain Utility

B. Tester

C. AppManage

D. Migration

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

An HTTP Receiver is overloaded and you with to throttle the number of incoming HTTP requests. What are two ways to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. use the bw.plugin.http.server.minProcessors property

B. set FlowLimit on the entire engine

C. use the bw.plugin.http.server.maxProcessors property

D. set FlowLimit for the particular process

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

Which variable type should you use for a project connecting to multiple databases using JDBC Connections if a different set of databases is used for testing and production?

A. Process Variable

B. Global Variable

C. Job Shared Variable

D. System Variable

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which Global Variable option should you check to make the Global Variable visible and configurable in TIBCO Administrator?

A. Type

B. Service

C. Deployment

D. Constraint

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Multiple applications and a TIBCO EMS server are in the same Administrator domain. When using a secondary domain server, which three functions are available? (Choose three.)

A. delete an application

B. create queue or topic

C. delete a queue or topic

D. purge a queue or topic

E. deploy an application

F. undeploy an application

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 7:

Click the Exhibit button.

Which two statements are valid about this process? (Choose two.)

A. An otherwise transition should be added to this process for unknown test cases.

B. This process must be restructured because it is not valid to have more than eight transitions.

C. A group placed around the Start and all Map activities can unify the error handling.

D. Because all transitions must be evaluated, there is overhead in the process.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

You wish to allow a message selector to be changed at runtime. Which JMS activity should you use?

A. Get JMS Queue Message

B. JMS Topic Publisher

C. JMS Queue Sender

D. Reply To JMS Message

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

The ActiveEnterprise Adapter Palette supports which transport types?

A. Tibrv Certified and JMS Queue

B. Tibrv Network and Tibrv Certified

C. HTTP and Tibrv Certified

D. JMS Route and JMS Queue

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which three actions can be taken directly from the Project tab in the TIBCO Designer startup panel? (Choose three.)

A. Reopen Project

B. Add Users to Project

C. New Project From Template

D. Validate Project

E. New Empty Project

F. Deploy Project

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 11:

Click the Exhibit button.

You need to map the “any element” data in Activity A to a structured object in Activity B. What should you use?

A. Type Cast

B. Coercion

C. Auto-Map

D. Merge

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which two methods does ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks support for storing trusted certificates? (Choose two.)

A. in a project

B. in an alias library

C. in PKCS12 format

D. in KeyStore format

E. in a design time library

Correct Answer: AE


Question 13:

What are the server options for an HTTP Connection shared resource?

A. JBOSS and HTTP Component

B. Tomcat and GlassFish

C. HTTP Component and Tomcat

D. WebLogic and JBOSS

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which statement is true about how a database connection pool is created when implementing connection pooling?

A. It is created for a JDBC Connection Resource across multiple engines.

B. One is created for each JDBC Connection Resource for an engine.

C. It is created for a domain.

D. One is created for all JDBC Connection Resources for an engine.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

When a loaded process begins with a Start activity that requires input, what are two ways to automatically load the data when you click the Supply Input Data to Starter button? (Choose two.)

A. from a file

B. from a project

C. from a process

D. from a Read File activity

Correct Answer: CD


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Question 1:

Which employment model options are available for newly provisioned HCM Cloud environments?

A. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts multiple assignment

B. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier single contract single assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts single assignment

C. 2-tier multiple assignment, 2-tier single assignment

D. 2-tier single assignment, 2-tier single contract single assignment, 2-tier multiple contracts multiple assignment, 2-tier multiple assignment

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

The Human Resource Representative of the organization is trying to set up the grade rates. During the process, she realizes that the grades were created without steps. Identify two options for adding rates to the grade. (Choose two.)

A. First add the rates for each step, then add the grade to a grade ladder.

B. Add the rates separately using the Manage Grade Rates task.

C. Use the Default Grade rates that are available upon creating grades.

D. First add the grade to a grade ladder, then add the rates for each step.

E. Add the rates at the same time as when you add the grade using the Manage Grades task.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 3:

An IT company\’s consulting department based in Bangalore goes for two team outing events every year. However, the support department, also based in Bangalore, goes for four team outing events every year. All employees in these departments go for the respective team outing events.

How should you define the calendar years?

A. Use Line Manager Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

B. Use Organization Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

C. Use Absence Approval Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

D. Use Geographic Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

E. Use Project Manager Hierarchy as the Hierarchy type for the calendar event.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which three options are true regarding Grade Ladders? (Choose three.)

A. Grade Ladders are used to group grades or grades with steps.

B. Five types of Grade Ladders are available.

C. A Grade Ladder can be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.

D. Two types of Grade Ladders are available.

E. A Grade Ladder cannot be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 5:

You are required to set geography validation for country-specific address style. You have configured the application correctly, but users are still entering addresses in the wrong address format. What can be done to change this?

A. Create a new geography validation.

B. Educate users to use the country-specific address format only.

C. Effective End Date for geography validation is end of time.

D. Set the geography validation level to Error instead of No Validation.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

As an Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud implementation consultant, you are configuring an enterprise structure for an organization that has undergone major restructing. The client wants to you to make multiple versions of the enterprise structure so that they can decide on a final one that suits them based on proper analysis and comparison.

What should you do meet this requirement of the client?

A. Configure multiple enterprise structures by using the Establish Enterprise Structure guided flow. Analyze and compare them by using the configuration review pages, including the Technical Summary Report, before loading the final one.

B. Create and load one enterprise structure at a time through Establish Enterprise Structure, analyze the structure and, if it does not suit the client, use the rollback option before creating another structure.

C. Configure multiple enterprise structures and load all of them simultaneously so that analysis and comparison can be done.

D. Design the enterprise structure by using individual tasks available for each of the organizations and keep changing it until the final structure is agreed upon.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An enterprise operates in a country where contract information is required for employees.

What type of employment model can the enterprise use?

A. multiple assignments

B. contract assignment

C. single assignment

D. single assignment with contracts

E. multiple assignments with contracts

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

The HR of Finance Department searches for an employee who is the Finance Auditor. The search is conducted with an effective date of 01-Jan-2015 on the Person Management page. The search does not yield any results.

Identify two reasons for this behavior. (Choose two.)

A. The employee was a contingent worker until 31-Dec-2014 and will rejoin as an employee on 02-Jan-2015.

B. The employee is working as a contingent worker in Finance Department.

C. The employee has multiple assignments and being a Finance Auditor is a part of the secondary assignment.

D. The employee is working as an employee in Finance Department.

E. The employee is inactive as of 01-Jan-2015.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 9:

If multiple people update a performance rating for a competency on a worker\’s profile, what is used to provide a unique identifier for each instance of the competency so that you can determine who provided what rating?

A. instance qualifier

B. content library

C. rating model

D. educational establishment

E. content subscriber

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

When configuring a checklist application task what value must be select to ensure you will only be able to select from a list of employee tasks verses manager tasks?

A. Ensure the owner field is set to employee.

B. Ensure the eligibility profile linked to the task contains criteria the include only active employees.

C. Ensure the owner and performer are both set to employee.

D. Ensure the performer field is set to employee.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

You are an HR specialist and want to add new values to a lookup. You have access to the specific work area, but are unable to perform the activity.

Identify the correct statement about this.

A. You cannot add new lookup codes and meanings to the existing lookup types.

B. You can access the task for profile options from the Setup and Maintenance menu.

C. The system administrator must enable the lookup before it is modified in the work area.

D. Oracle applications contain certain predefined system lookups that are locked for editing.

E. You can create new lookup types but cannot modify the existing ones.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

As an implementation consultant, you have defined multiple grades for each job and position. While defining assignments, users must be able to select a grade only from the list that has been defined for the job or position. However, all grades are available.

What is the cause for this?

A. PER_DEFAULT_GRADE_FROM_JOB_POSITION is set to Yes at user level.

B. PER_DEFAULT_GRADE_FROM_JOB_POSITION is set to No at site level.

C. PER_ENFORCE_VALID_GRADES is set to Yes at site level.

D. GRADE_PAY_RATE_TYPE is set to No at site level.

E. PER_ENFORCE_VALID_GRADES is set to No at site level.

Correct Answer: E


Question 13:

A multinational construction company, headquartered in London, has operations in five countries. It has its major operations in the US and UK and small offices in Saudi Arabia, UAE, and India. The company employs 3,000 people in the UK and US and 500 people in the remaining locations. The entire workforce in India falls under the Contingent Worker category.

How many Legislative Data Groups (LDGs), divisions, legal employers, and Payroll Statutory Units (PSUs) need to be configured for this company?

A. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five legal employers, and four PSUs (all except India)

B. four LDGs (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five divisions (one for each country), four legal employers (all except India), and five PSUs

C. five LDGs, five divisions, five legal employers, and five PSUs

D. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), two legal employers, and PSUs (US and UK only, because the workforce is very small in the other countries)

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

As an implementation consultant, you are in the process of setting up geographies in the application. Which three statements are true about defining geographies? (Choose three.)

A. You must identify the top-level of geography as Country and define a geography type.

B. You can only modify all levels of the geography structure before you load geography hierarchy.

C. You must map geography to reporting establishments for reporting purposes.

D. It is mandatory to define geography validations before geography hierarchy can be defined.

E. You must set geography validation for the specific address style for a country.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 15:

A customer has a requirement to add a new Action when hiring Part-Time Employees. What is the correct option?

A. Create an additional Action type Hire Part-Time Employee and do not associate it with any Action type.

B. Create an additional Action Hire Part-Time Employee and associate it with any Action type Hire an Employee.

C. Create an additional Action Reason Hire Part-Time Employee and associate it with any Action type Manage Employee.

D. Create an additional lookup with the value Hire Part-Time Employee.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference. Which method or feature should you use?

A. Database Replay

B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report

C. Active Session History (ASH) report

D. SQL Performance Analyzer

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E24628_01/server.121/e17635/tdppt_degrade.htm


Question 2:

What can be automatically implemented after the SQL Tuning Advisor is run as part of the Automated Maintenance Task?

A. statistics recommendations

B. SQL profile recommendations

C. SQL statement restructure recommendations

D. creation of materialized views to improve query performance

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e16638/sql_tune.htm#PFGRF028


Question 3:

Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMm) is enabled for your database instance, but parameters for the managed components are not defined.

You execute this command:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE = 100M;

Which statement is true?

A. The minimum size for the standard buffer cache is 100 MB.

B. The maximum size for the standard buffer cache is 100 MB.

C. The minimum space guaranteed in the buffer cache for any server process is 100 MB.

D. The maximum space in the buffer cache that can be released for dynamic distribution is 100 MB.

E. The minimum size for all buffer caches is 100 MB.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

You have a production Oracle 12c database running on a host.

You want to install and create databases across multiple new machines that do not have any Oracle database software installed. You also want the new databases to have the same directory structure and components as your existing 12c

database.

The steps in random order:

1.Create directory structures similar to the production database on all new machines. 2.Create a response file for Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) with the same configurations as the production database.

3.Create a database clone template for the database.

4.Run the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database.

5.Run OUI in graphical mode on each machine.

6.Run OUI in silent mode using the OUI response file.

Identify the required steps in the correct sequence to achieve the requirement with minimal human intervention.

A. 2, 1, 6, and 4

B. 2, 3, and 6

C. 3, 1, 5, and 6

D. 2, 3, 1, and 6

E. 1, 5, and 4

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which two statements are true about a common user?

A. A common user connected to a pluggable database (PDB) can exercise privileges across other PDBs.

B. A common user with the create user privilege can create other common users, as well as local users.

C. A common user can be granted only a common role.

D. A common user can have a local schema in a PDB.

E. A common user always uses the global temporary tablespace that is defined at the CDB level as the default temporary tablespace.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

Which three statements are true about persistent lightweight jobs?

A. A user cannot set privileges on them.

B. They generate large amounts of metadata.

C. They may be created as fully self-contained jobs.

D. They must reference an existing Scheduler Program.

E. The are useful when users need to create a large number of jobs quickly.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 7:

Which three statements are true about compression of backup sets?

A. Compressed backups can only be written to media.

B. Binary compression creates performance overhead during a backup operation.

C. Unused blocks below the high-water mark are not backed up.

D. Compressed backups cannot have section size defined during a backup operation

E. It works only for locally managed tablespaces.

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 8:

You issue the RMAN commands:

RMAN> CONFIGURE DEFAULT DEVICE TYPE TO disk;

RKAN> CONFIGURE DEVICE TYPE DISK BACKUP TYPE TO COPY;

RMAN>CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP ON;

RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;

Which three tasks are performed by the BACKUP DATABASE command?

A. switching the online redo log file

B. backing up all data files as image copies and archive log files, and deleting those archive log files

C. backing up only the used blocks in the data files

D. backing up all used and unused blocks in the data files

E. backing up all archived log files and marking them as obsolete

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 9:

A complete database backup to media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?

A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.

B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.

C. Configure large pool if not already done.

D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.

E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by media manager.

F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.

Correct Answer: BCD

Tuning RMAN Backup Performance: Procedure Many factors can affect backup performance. Often, finding the solution to a slow backup is a process of trial and error. To get the best performance for a backup, follow the suggested steps in this section: Step 1: Remove RATE Parameters from Configured and Allocated Channels Step 2: If You Use Synchronous Disk I/O, Set DBWR_IO_SLAVES Step 3: If You Fail to Allocate Shared Memory, Set LARGE_POOL_SIZE Step 4: Tune RMAN Tape Streaming Performance Bottlenecks Step 5: Query V$ Views to Identify Bottlenecks Reference:https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmtunin.htm#BRADV172


Question 10:

For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?

A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog

B. available archived redo log files

C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete

D. backups of tablespaces

E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation: About the LIST Command: The primary purpose of the LIST command is to list backup and copies. For example, you can list: -Backups and proxy copies of a database, tablespace, datafile, archived redo log, or control file Backups that have expired -Backups restricted by time, path name, device type, tag, or recoverability -Archived redo log files and disk copies Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmreprt.htm#BRADV89585


Question 11:

You want to export the pluggable database (PDB) hr pdb1 from the multitenant container database (CDB)CDB1 and import it into the cdb2 CDB as the emp_pdb1 PDB.

Examine the list of possible steps required to perform the task:

1.Create a PDB named emp_pdb1.

2.Export the hr_pdb1 PDB by using the full clause.

3.Open the emp_pdb1 PDB.

4.Mount the emp_pdb1 PDB.

5.Synchronize the emp_pdb1 PDB in restricted mode.

6.Copy the dump file to the Data Pump directory.

7.Create a Data Pump directory in the emp_pdb1 PDB.

8.Import data into emp_pdb1 with the full and remap clauses.

9.Create the same tablespaces in emp_pdb1 as in hr_pdb1 for new local user objects.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, and 8

B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

C. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

D. 2, 1, 3, 5, 7, 6, and 8

Correct Answer: C

Because the step 2 says that you perfom an expdp with the full clause and you don\’t need to create the tablespaces when you perform the impdp. FULL=yes will export tablespace definitions. So no need step 9.

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10501_01/server.920/a96652/ch01.htm


Question 12:

You wish to create jobs to satisfy these requirements:

1.

Automatically bulk load data from a flat file.

2.

Rebuild indexes on the SALES table after completion of the bulk load.

How would you create these jobs?

A. Create both jobs by using Scheduler raised events.

B. Create both jobs using application raised events.

C. Create one job to rebuild indexes using application raised events and another job to perform bulk load using Scheduler raised events.

D. Create one job to rebuild indexes using Scheduler raised events and another job to perform bulk load by using events raised by the application.

Correct Answer: C

The bulk loader would be started in response to a file watcher scheduler event and the indexes would be rebuilt in response to an application event raised by the bulk loader. Your application can raise an event to notify the Scheduler to start a job. A job started in this way is referred to as an event-based job. The job can optionally retrieve the message content of the event. References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/scheduse008.htm#CHDIAJEB https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/scheduse005.htm#CIABIEJA


Question 13:

Your Oracle 12c multitenant container database (CDB) contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). In the PDB hr_pdb, the common user c##admin and the local user b_admin have only the connect privilege.

You create a common role c##role1 with the create table and select any table privileges.

You then execute the commands:

SQL> GRANTc##role1 TO##Madmin CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL>CONNsys/[email protected]_PDB as sysdba

SQL> GRANTc##role1TO b_admin CONTAINER=CURRENT;

Which two statements are true?

A. C##admin can create and select any table, and grant the c##role1 role to users only in the root container.

B. B_admin can create and select any table in both the root container and Hr_pdb.

C. c##admin can create and select any table in the root container and all the PDBs.

D. B_admin can create and select any table only in hr_pdb.

E. The grant c##role1 to b_admin command returns an error because container should be set to ALL.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

You want RMAN to make duplicate copies of data files when using the backup command.

What must you set using the RMAN configure command to achieve this?

A. MAXSETSIZE TO 2;

B. DEVICE TYPE DISK PARALLELISM 2 BACKUP TYPE TO BACKUPSET;

C. CHANNEL DEVICE TYPE DISK FORMAT \’/disk1/%U\’ , \’/disk2/%U\’;

D. DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE DISK TO 2;

Correct Answer: D

Configuring Backup Duplexing You can use the CONFIGURE … BACKUP COPIES command to specify how many copies of each backup piece should be created on the specified device type for the specified type of file. This type of backup is known as a duplexed backup set. The CONFIGURE settings for duplexing only affect backups of datafiles, control files, and archived logs into backup sets, and do not affect image copies. NOT A The CONFIGURE MAXSETSIZE command limits the size of backup sets created on a channel. This CONFIGURE setting applies to any channel, whether manually allocated or configured, when the BACKUP command is used to create backup sets. The default value is given in bytes and is rounded down to the lowest kilobyte value. Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmconfa.htm#BRADV137


Question 15:

Which three types of failures are detected by the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA)?

A. loss of a non-critical data file

B. loss of a control file

C. physical data block corruption

D. logical data block corruption

E. loss of an archived redo log file

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmrepai.htm#BRADV89716


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Question 1:

Which are two custom setup options when installing VMware Horizon Agent on a master image? (Choose two.)

A. USB Redirection

B. Windows Media Multimedia Redirection

C. VMWare Horizon Instant Clone Agent

D. Unity Touch

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.3/horizon-virtual-desktops/GUID-61090F90-186F-4932-BB0F-06902F0908B5.html


Question 2:

The vRealize Operations Manager for VMware Horizon dashboards are all blank except for the Horizon Adapter Self Health dashboard. What two actions will resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Add a vRealize Operations for Horizon License Key

B. Associate Horizon objects with the vRealize Operations for Horizon License Key

C. Create an instance of the Horizon Adapter

D. Configure the vRealize Operations for Horizon Broker Agent

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

Which two deployment types are available to the administrator when enabling View Applications in VMware Identity Manager? (Choose two.)

A. Pool-based

B. User-Activated

C. Automatic

D. Manual

Correct Answer: BC

Reference https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Identity-Manager/2.9.1/com.vmware.wsp-resource_29/GUID-0F51186D-624F-4208-818F-A06D5ACE6F3D.html


Question 4:

Which three are valid types of resources that can be integrated with VMware Identity Manager? (Choose three.)

A. Horizon Flex resources

B. Web Applications

C. Citrix-published resources

D. Microsoft Azure resources

E. Horizon 7 resources

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/identity-manager-27/topic/com.vmware.ICbase/PDF/vidm-27-resource.pdf


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

While using vRealize Operations for VMware Horizon you notice that the Horizon RDS Pools Dashboard displays the message in the exhibit. What should be done to resolve the issue?

A. Verify that the vRealize Operations for Horizon Desktops agent is installed on the RDSH servers

B. Set the RDS Pools Dashboard as the default dashboard

C. Ensure that RDS licensing has been configured for the RDS servers

D. Configure the View Events database

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

An administrator is creating an instant clone pool. During the Add pool wizard process, the Administrator gets to the vCenter Server page, selects Instant Clones and notices that the notices that the Next button is grayed out.

A. The administrator does not have sufficient privileges

B. In the wizard, the Administrator must click on the desired vCenter server in the vCenter Server section

C. The administrator must open PowerCLI, issue the cmdlet mkfs -t ext3 /”My Folder”/”My Disks” to add additional space

D. The VMware View Connection Server service is halted and must be restarted

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which three actions does the User Environment Manager Helpdesk Support Tool allow a desktop support engineer to perform? (Choose three.)

A. Backing up a profile archive

B. Searching and select users

C. Resetting and restoring profile archives

D. Restarting the (VMware UEM Service) FlexEngine service

E. Viewing FlexEngine logs

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/pdf/uem-860-helpdesk-admin-guide.pdf


Question 8:

What is the last step that must be completed to prepare a desktop virtual machine for use in a linked clone pool?

A. Install VMTools on the virtual machine

B. Turn on the virtual machine and then take a snapshot

C. Install the Horizon View Agent on the virtual machine

D. Shut down the virtual machine and then take a snapshot

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

How can an administrator lock down access to the User Environment Manager management console?

A. By disabling the Configure ribbon button

B. By using the Lock down access to VMware UEM Management Console policy setting

C. By locking access to the VMware UEM Management Console ADMX template

D. By disabling access to the User Environment, Personalization, Condition Set, and Application Migration ribbons

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/uem-91/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.user.environment.manager-adminguide/GUID-17CD9E09-C817-42BD-A56E-4C85C9879EB1.html


Question 10:

A Microsoft Windows Server Operating System master image is being developed for use as a single-session host. Which two steps must the administrator perform before installing VMware Horizon Agent? (Choose two.)

A. Install the Remote Desktop Services Role

B. Verify that the Remote Desktop Services role is not installed

C. Install Service Pack 1 for Windows Server 2008 R2 or Windows Server 2012 R2

D. Install the Microsoft IIS Service

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-6/6.2/com.vmware.horizon-view.desktops.doc/GUID-5D941C48-C931-4CA5-BA23-8AA0C392A6DE.html


Question 11:

Which two guest virtual machine components provide the best performance in a View virtual desktop? (Choose two.)

A. vmxnet3

B. BusLogic

C. PVSCSI

D. e1000

Correct Answer: CD


Question 12:

During an installation of View Connection Server, the Install HTML Access option setting is not being displayed in the installer. What is the probable cause?

A. FIPS mode is disabled

B. Configure Windows Firewall automatically option is selected

C. IPv6 is selected as Internet Protocol (IP)

D. IPv4 is selected as Internet Protocol (IP)

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/horizon-7-view/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.horizon-view.installation.doc/GUID-9F93A59F-C35F-4388-B3D6-CE4F50D8BAFD.html


Question 13:

What are two required Active Directory permissions for the Instant Clone Domain Admin account? (Choose two.)

A. Read all properties

B. Write all properties

C. Create computer objects

D. Full control

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.0/com.vmware.horizon-view.installation.doc/GUID-E91881F4-F8C0-48A5-A1A4-61577E287E29.html


Question 14:

When preparing a master image for a virtual desktop infrastructure environment, how should disk defragmentation be configured?

A. Run a disk defragmentation and then schedule automatic defragmentation tasks prior to publishing the desktop

B. Do not run a disk defragmentation but schedule automatic defragmentation tasks prior to publishing the desktop

C. Run a disk defragmentation and then disable automatic defragmentation tasks prior to publishing the desktop

D. Do not run a disk defragmentation but disable automatic defragmentation tasks prior to publishing the desktop

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Horizon-7/7.1/view-71-setting-up-virtual-desktops.pdf


Question 15:

What task is a prerequisite before installing View Composer?

A. Enable TLSv1.0 security protocol

B. Create a database and data source name (DSN)

C. Configure an SSL Certificate for View Composer that is signed by a Certificate Authority (CA)

D. Pair the connection server with the security server

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/horizon-7-view/topic/com.vmware.horizon-view.installation.doc/GUID-4CF63F93-8AEC-4840-9EEF-2D60F3E6C6D1.html


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Question 1:

A process includes an implementation that requires the port number for an external application. Which variable should be used to set the port number for each environment in which the process will run?

A. Global Variable

B. Environment Variable

C. Exposed Process Value

D. Exposed Process Variable

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A developer has an Output Text with control ID \’Output_Text1\’ above a Table in a Coach. Within the Table, there are two columns:

1.

The first column is a Text Control with control ID TextV

2.

The second column is a Button control with control ID \’Button1\’

How would a developer set the value of a Text control to \’Clicked\’ when a Button on the same row is pressed?

A. Set the Text\’s \’On Change\’ Event configuration option to: ${Textl=}.setText(\’clicked\’) ;

B. Set the Button\’s \’On click\’ Event configuration options to: ${Text1=}.setText<\'Clicked\') ;

C. Set the Table\’s \’On custom cell\’ Event configuration option to: ${Text1=}.setText(\’Clicked\’);

D. Set the Text\’s \’On boundary event\’ Event configuration option to: ${Text1=).setText(fClicked\’);

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

The IBM embedded document store should be considered based on which business requirement?

A. Document is not accessed during the process

B. Coaches should be able to display the documents

C. Lifecycle of the document needs to be tied to the process

D. Documents need to be retained long after the process instances are deleted

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

The first component of the Vehicle Details coach is a Text field with the label Search Vehicle in a coach view, which is configured to fire a boundary event. Which one of the events does the BPM application developer need to use so that the Vehicle List table filters to matching vehicle selected from Search Vehicle field?

A. Onload

B. Onclick

C. On input

D. Change the event handler and specify this.context.refreshView();

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Where are bulk user attribute assignments set?

A. Process Admin

B. Process Center

C. Process Designer

D. Process Inspector

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

How can process applications be enabled to create, update, or download ECM documents?

A. Use an external ECM server instead of the internal IBM BPM document store.

B. Select \’Always use this connection information\’ properties of the ECM server definition.

C. Use the Document List or Document Viewer coach views to create, update, or download the documents.

D. Add the \’enable-document-authorization-security-service\’ configuration setting to the 100Custom.xml.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is a valid logging command to print log statements to the client-side browser?

A. print.log(`\’info”)

B. debug.log(“info\’\’)

C. client.log(`\’infon\’\’)

D. console.log(`\’info”)

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which statement is true regarding the Tab index configuration option?

A. It sequences each Tab dynamically for the Tab control.

B. It flags the control to display with the warning color.

C. It only works when the Coach is set to Responsive mode.

D. It sets the sequence index for the control on the form when the user presses their Tab1 keyboard button.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which statement is true about working with system data toolkits?

A. The system data toolkit includes many predefined variable types.

B. Administrative access is required to edit the library items in a system data toolkit.

C. When a new process application is created, the system data toolkit needs to be added as a dependency.

D. Adding a dependency on the system data toolkit allows the creation of custom, localized dashboards with the reusable interface elements.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What are two IBM BPM tools a developer can use to immediately fire a timer event while testing a process instance?

A. The BPMConfig script

B. The Event Manager in the WAS admin console

C. The Process Inspector in the Process Designer

D. The Process Inspector in the Process Admin console

E. The Process Performance Dashboard in the Process Portal

Correct Answer: CD


Question 11:

What would be the first step for a developer asked to replicate functionality from an out-of-the-box IBM BPM Process Portal Dashboard in a new custom coach view?

A. Retrieve the Process Portal .ear file from the WAS console and inspect the file for the desired functionality.

B. Copy the existing coach views and functionality in the Process Portal process application that comes with IBM BPM.

C. Open the Process Portal Dashboard and use the browser\’s developer tools to inspect and recreate the desired functionality.

D. Create a new process application, add the BPM Ul toolkit dependency, and refer to the BPM Ul toolkit controls that were part of the Process Portal Dashboard.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which gateway can be used for a service flow where more than one path can be followed for a specific process instance?

A. Event Gateway

B. Parallel Gateway

C. Exclusive Gateway

D. Decision Task Gateway

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What is the definition of the `\’item\’\’ type shown in the diagram below?

A. It must be completed by process participants

B. It uses JavaScript to access and manipulate data

C. It must be completed by an automated system or service

D. It uses JavaScript APIs to evaluate a condition in a business rule

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which two coach views can a developer use to show a list of ECM documents on a Coach?

A. BPM File List

B. ECM File Uploader

C. Document Explorer

D. BPM Document List

E. ECM Document List

Correct Answer: AE


Question 15:

A developer believes there is an issue with a UCA being invoked. What are two places the developer can look for more information?

A. SystemOut.log

B. Process Admin \’Event Manager\’ page a

C. Process Admin \’Installed Apps\’ page

D. Process Designer \’Process Details\’ page

E. Process Portal \’Process Instance Details\’ page

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

What is an advantage of adopting a microservices strategy in an application development environment?

A. All microservices of an application are always updated at the same time for maintaining consistency in the application

B. Every microservice can be deployed, upgraded, scaled, and restarted independent of other services in the application

C. Microservices are tightly coupled so it is easy to scale all the services at once to meet business demands

D. Microservices provide the application platform to implement DevOps in the organization easily and at low cost

Correct Answer: B


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Which role in service portfolio management determines and delivers the services that provide value and strategic advantage to the provider?

A. Cloud Service Account Manager

B. Cloud Automation Engineer

C. Cloud Administrator

D. Cloud Auditor

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit, which represents a consumer environment consisting of multiple VMs running Windows operating systems (OSs).

For compliance reasons, the cloud service provider maintains version control over the OS provided to the consumer. The service provider also ensures that the configurations of the VMs comply with the configuration policy for the OS version. The configuration policy includes the two conditions shown in the exhibit. A monitoring tool verifies VM configurations against the configuration policy and provides the compliance results shown.

What is the percentage of compliance non-adherence?

A. 30.12%

B. 33.34%

C. 58.33%

D. 66.67%

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which management process ensures business continuity by eliminating single points of failure in a data center?

A. Availability management

B. Security management

C. Capacity management

D. Performance management

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which Dell EMC product is used for a disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides inherent source-based data deduplication?

A. NetWorker

B. ProtectPoint

C. Data Domain

D. Avamar

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

The incident management team is unable to determine the root cause of an incident. To which team should the error-correction activity be transferred?

A. Performance Management

B. Change Management

C. Availability Management

D. Problem Management

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What capability is provided by the “Open and extensible” attribute of software-defined infrastructure (SDI)?

A. Uses APIs to integrate multivendor resources into the SDI environment

B. Optimizes resource usage and generates value reports about the SDI environment

C. Provides a control point for the entire SDI environment

D. Provides multitenancy that enables consumers to share resources in the SDI environment

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What is the function of a monitoring and alerting tool?

A. Focus on examining the usage of resources by customers and service providers and provide notification to optimize and manage workloads

B. Control charges for cloud usage by optimizing cloud resource utilization

C. Automate tasks and IT processes and manage the IT environment

D. Enable people to work closely together on a common project, in real time, by making communication among them easier

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What capability does an orchestration workflow provide?

A. Helps administer the cloud infrastructure, such as adding resources to a resource pool, billing, and reporting

B. Helps to consolidate all the IT resources in the cloud environment

C. Enables the administrator to control the underlying physical infrastructure using a single unified management console

D. Creates an automated set of tasks to update the service catalog by cloud consumers without requiring manual intervention

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What is a characteristic of thin LUNs?

A. When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is automatically reclaimed to the pool.

B. When a thin LUN is created, physical storage is fully allocated for it

C. Once a thin LUN is created it cannot be destroyed until all data is deleted from it

D. When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is reserved until an administrator reclaims it

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which product provides key management and a data-at-rest encryption mechanism for private, public, and hybrid clouds?

A. RSA SecurID

B. Dell EMC CloudArray

C. RSA Archer eGRC

D. Dell EMC CloudLink

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

An organization needs to deploy remote replication between two sites that are 100 km (62 miles) apart. The organization requires a near zero recovery point objective.

Which solution would you recommend?

A. Hypervisor-based asynchronous replication

B. Synchronous replication

C. Snapshot replication

D. Asynchronous replication

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which method optimizes network performance by distributing network traffic across the shared bandwidth of all the ISLs?

A. Link aggregation

B. Network zoning

C. Network segmentation

D. Link failover

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which cloud service model is represented in the exhibit?

A. Software as a Service

B. Infrastructure as a Service

C. Platform as a Service

D. Database as a Service

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which process involves determining the optimal resources required to meet seasonal spikes in resource demand?

A. Configuration management

B. Change management

C. Capacity management

D. Incident management

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and medium availability?

A. MAC III

B. MAC IV

C. MAC I

D. MAC II

Correct Answer: D

The various MAC levels are as follows: MAC I: It states that the systems have high availability and high integrity. MAC II: It states that the systems have high integrity and medium availability. MAC III: It states that the systems have basic integrity and availability.


Question 2:

Which of the following coding practices are helpful in simplifying code? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a single complex function.

B. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursions, and GoTo statements.

C. Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow proper coding standards.

D. Processes should have multiple entry and exit points.

Correct Answer: ABC

The various coding practices that are helpful in simplifying the code are as follows: Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow the proper coding standards. Software should implement the functions that are defined in the software specification. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursion, and GoTo statements. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a complex function. The processes should have only one entry point and minimum exit points. Interdependencies should be minimum so that a process module or component can be disabled when it is not needed, or replaced when it is found insecure or a better alternative is available, without disturbing the software operations. Programmers should use object-oriented techniques to keep the code simple and small. Some of the object-oriented techniques are object inheritance, encapsulation, and polymorphism. Answer: D is incorrect. Processes should have only one entry point and the minimum number of exit points.


Question 3:

Which of the following methods does the Java Servlet Specification v2.4 define in the HttpServletRequest interface that control programmatic security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. getCallerIdentity()

B. isUserInRole()

C. getUserPrincipal()

D. getRemoteUser()

Correct Answer: BCD

The various methods of the HttpServletRequest interface are as follows: getRemoteUser(): It returns the user name that is used for the client authentication. The value of the getRemoteUser() method returns null if no user is authenticated. isUserInRole(): It determines whether the remote user is granted a specified user role. The value of the isUserInRole() method returns true if the remote user is granted the specified user role; otherwise it returns false. getUserPrincipal(): It determines the principle name of the current user and returns the java.security.Principal object. The java.security.Principal object contains the remote user name. The value of the getUserPrincipal() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer: A is incorrect. It is not defined in the HttpServletRequest interface. The getCallerIdentity() method is used to obtain the java.security.Identity of the caller.


Question 4:

You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis?

A. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances.

B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances.

C. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible.

D. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis.

Correct Answer: C

Of all the choices only this answer is accurate. The PMBOK clearly states that the data must be accurate and unbiased to be credible. Answer: D is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer: A is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data.


Question 5:

You work as the senior project manager in SoftTech Inc. You are working on a software project using configuration management. Through configuration management you are decomposing the verification system into identifiable, understandable, manageable, traceable units that are known as Configuration Items (CIs). According to you, which of the following processes is known as the decomposition process of a verification system into Configuration Items?

A. Configuration status accounting

B. Configuration identification

C. Configuration auditing

D. Configuration control

Correct Answer: B

Configuration identification is known as the decomposition process of a verification system into Configuration Items. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed. Answer: D is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item\’s attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Configuration control is a means of ensuring that system changes are approved before being implemented. Only the proposed and approved changes are implemented, and the implementation is complete and accurate. Answer: A is incorrect. The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration auditing is the quality assurance element of configuration management. It is occupied in the process of periodic checks to establish the consistency and completeness of accounting information and to validate that all configuration management policies are being followed. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation.


Question 6:

Which of the following are the common roles with regard to data in an information classification program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Editor

B. Custodian

C. Owner

D. User

E. Security auditor

Correct Answer: BCDE

The following are the common roles with regard to data in an information classification program: Owner Custodian User Security auditor The following are the responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program: Determining what level of classification the information requires. Reviewing the classification assignments at regular time intervals and making changes as the business needs change. Delegating the responsibility of the data protection duties to the custodian. The following are the responsibilities of the custodian with regard to data in an information classification program: Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data Performing data restoration from the backups when necessary Controlling access, adding and removing privileges for individual users The users must comply with the requirements laid out in policies and procedures. They must also exercise due care. A security auditor examines an organization\’s security procedures and mechanisms.


Question 7:

The Phase 1 of DITSCAP CandA is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the CandA level of effort, identify the main CandA roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Negotiation

B. Registration

C. Document mission need

D. Initial Certification Analysis

Correct Answer: ABC

The Phase 1 of DITSCAP CandA is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the CandA level of effort, identify the main CandA roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. The Phase 1 starts with the input of the mission need. This phase comprises three process activities: Document mission need


Question 8:

Which of the following tools is used to attack the Digital Watermarking?

A. Steg-Only Attack

B. Active Attacks

C. 2Mosaic

D. Gifshuffle

Correct Answer: C

2Mosaic is a tool used for watermark breaking. It is an attack against a digital watermarking system. In this type of attack, an image is chopped into small pieces and then placed together. When this image is embedded into a web page, the web browser renders the small pieces into one image. This image looks like a real image with no watermark in it. This attack is successful, as it is impossible to read watermark in very small pieces. Answer: D is incorrect. Gifshuffle is used to hide message or information inside GIF images. It is done by shuffling the colormap. This tool also provides compression and encryption. Answer: B and A are incorrect. Active Attacks and Steg- Only Attacks are used to attack Steganography.


Question 9:

Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?

A. DoD 8910.1

B. DoD 7950.1-M

C. DoDD 8000.1

D. DoD 5200.22-M

E. DoD 5200.1-R

Correct Answer: B

The various DoD directives are as follows:

DoD 5200.1-R: This DoD directive refers to the \’Information Security Program Regulation\’. DoD 5200.22-M: This DoD directive refers the \’National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual\’. DoD 7950.1-M: This DoD directive refers to the

\’Defense Automation Resources Management Manual\’. DoDD 8000.1: This DoD directive refers to the \’Defense Information Management (IM) Program\’. DoD 8910.1: This DoD directive refers to the \’Management and Control of Information

Requirements\’.


Question 10:

Della works as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. She wants to establish configuration management and control procedures that will document proposed or actual changes to the information system. Which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 CandA methodology will define the above task?

A. Initiation

B. Security Certification

C. Continuous Monitoring

D. Security Accreditation

Correct Answer: C

The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 CandA are as follows:

Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls

and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors

the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.


Question 11:

Which of the following authentication methods is used to access public areas of a Web site?

A. Anonymous authentication

B. Biometrics authentication

C. Mutual authentication

D. Multi-factor authentication

Correct Answer: A

Anonymous authentication is an authentication method used for Internet communication. It provides limited access to specific public folders and directory information or public areas of a Web site. It is supported by all clients and is used to access unsecured content in public folders. An administrator must create a user account in IIS to enable the user to connect anonymously. Answer: D is incorrect. Multi-factor authentication involves a combination of multiple methods of authentication. For example, an authentication method that uses smart cards as well as usernames and passwords can be referred to as multi-factor authentication. Answer: C is incorrect. Mutual authentication is a process in which a client process and server are required to prove their identities to each other before performing any application function. The client and server identities can be verified through a trusted third party and use shared secrets as in the case of Kerberos v5. The MS-CHAP v2 and EAP-TLS authentication methods support mutual authentication. Answer: B is incorrect. Biometrics authentication uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user.


Question 12:

Which of the following terms ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data?

A. Non-repudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authentication

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: B

Integrity ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data. Answer: D is incorrect. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access. Administrators can provide confidentiality by encrypting data. Answer: A is incorrect. Non-repudiation is a mechanism to prove that the sender really sent this message. Answer: C is incorrect. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a person or network host.


Question 13:

Which of the following types of obfuscation transformation increases the difficulty for a de- obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version?

A. Preventive transformation

B. Data obfuscation

C. Control obfuscation

D. Layout obfuscation

Correct Answer: A

Preventive transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot


Question 14:

Which of the following is a standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system?

A. FITSAF

B. FIPS

C. TCSEC

D. SSAA

Correct Answer: C

Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) is a United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system. TCSEC was used to evaluate, classify, and select computer systems being considered for the processing, storage, and retrieval of sensitive or classified information. It was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria international standard originally published in 2005. The TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD Rainbow Series publications. Answer: D is incorrect. System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA) is an information security document used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems. The SSAA is part of the Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process, or DITSCAP (superseded by DIACAP). The DoD instruction (issues in December 1997, that describes DITSCAP and provides an outline for the SSAA document is DODI 5200.40. The DITSCAP application manual (DoD8510.1- M), published in July 2000, provides additional details. Answer: A is incorrect. FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. It provides an approach for federal agencies. It determines how federal agencies are meeting existing policy and establish goals. The main advantage of FITSAF is that it addresses the requirements of Office of Management and Budget (OMB). It also addresses the guidelines provided by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIsT). Answer: B is incorrect. The Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) are publicly announced standards developed by the United States federal government for use by all non-military government agencies and by government contractors. Many FIPS standards are modified versions of standards used in the wider community (ANSI, IEEE, ISO, etc.). Some FIPS standards were originally developed by the U.S. government. For instance, standards for encoding data (e.g., country codes), but more significantly some encryption standards, such as the Data Encryption Standard (FIPS 46-3) and the Advanced Encryption Standard (FIPS 197). In 1994, NOAA (Noaa) began broadcasting coded signals called FIPS (Federal Information Processing System) codes along with their standard weather broadcasts from local stations. These codes identify the type of emergency and the specific geographic area (such as a county) affected by the emergency.


Question 15:

Which of the following refers to a process that is used for implementing information security?

A. Classic information security model

B. Five Pillars model

C. Certification and Accreditation (CandA)

D. Information Assurance (IA)

Correct Answer: C

Certification and Accreditation (CandA or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The CandA process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some CandA processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls. Answer: D is incorrect. Information Assurance (IA) is the practice of managing risks related to the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information or data and the systems and processes used for those purposes. While focused dominantly on information in digital form, the full range of IA encompasses not only digital but also analog or physical form. Information assurance as a field has grown from the practice of information security, which in turn grew out of practices and procedures of computersecurity. Answer: A is incorrect. The classic information security model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. The classic information security model, also called the CIA Triad, addresses three attributes of information and information systems, confidentiality, integrity, and availability. This C-I-A model is extremely useful for teaching introductory and basic concepts of information security and assurance; the initials are an easy mnemonic to remember, and when properly understood, can prompt systems designers and users to address the most pressing aspects of assurance. Answer: B is incorrect. The Five Pillars model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. It was promulgated by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) in a variety of publications, beginning with the National Information Assurance Glossary, Committee on National Security Systems Instruction CNSSI-4009. Here is the definition from that publication: “Measures that protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and non-repudiation. These measures include providing for restoration of information systems by incorporating protection, detection, and reaction capabilities.” The Five Pillars model is sometimes criticized because authentication and non-repudiation are not attributes of information or systems; rather, they are procedures or methods useful to assure the integrity and authenticity of information, and to protect the confidentiality of the same.