Month: March 2022

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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

What is the correct sequence of prerequisites before a Dell EMC NetWorker CloudBoost device can be created?

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

What is the correct sequence of steps to configure Dell EMC NetWorker as a cluster-aware application for Linux clients?

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

An EMC NetWorker backup job has failed 95% of the way through its operation.

Which functionality is provided by the checkpoint restart feature?

A. The backup can continue from the last known good point

B. The backup can always continue exactly where it left off

C. The backup can be merged with data from the last server checkpoint

D. The backup must be restarted from the beginning

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which three components comprise EMC NetWorker\’s three tier architecture?

A. Server, Storage Node and Client

B. Master Server, Media Server and Client

C. Server, Storage Agent and Client

D. Cell Manager, Devices and Client

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which EMC NetWorker feature allows for a failed backup to restart at a known good point prior to the backup failure?

A. CheckPoint Restart

B. Client Retries

C. Scheduled Backup Attempts

D. Restart Window

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

The calendar shows the level backup that was taken on each day. Which data is sent to the backup server on Friday\’s backup?

A. All changes since Tuesday

B. All changes since Monday

C. All changes since Wednesday

D. All changes since Thursday

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

The EMC NetWorker software distribution feature is supported on which platform?

A. Linux

B. MAC

C. Netware

D. Open VMS

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

An EMC NetWorker backup environment consists of a large database server to be backed up. Backups are performed nightly.

Which schedule would you use starting on Sunday to minimize the number of save sets required for recovery on Friday morning?

A. B. C. D.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What is a characteristic of the EMC NetWorker capacity licensing model?

A. Easy, unlimited deployment of most features, modules, and options.

B. Does not require back end capacity licensing if backing up to Avamar.

C. Does not require back end capacity licensing if backing up to Data Domain.

D. EMC NetWorker module software is not required to backup supported databases in EMC NetWorker.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What EMC NetWorker software component controls the backup device in an EMC NetWorker Data Zone?

A. Storage Node

B. Client

C. Server

D. EMC NetWorker Management Console

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A customer has recently purchased a Data Domain appliance to use with EMC NetWorker as the primary storage. The backup administrator needs to configure EMC NetWorker so that multiple backups and recoveries can be performed from a single device at any given time.

What type of device should the backup administrator configure?

A. AFTD

B. LTO

C. FTD

D. NFS

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

How does EMC NetWorker respond to an AFTD disk full condition?

A. Suspends all saves to that volume and runs nsrim.

B. Marks the volume full and terminates the backup.

C. Marks the volume full and continues the backup to a new volume.

D. Initiates a staging job to move files off the Advance File Type Device (AFTD).

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which backup level requires the fewest number of volumes to restore?

A. Full

B. Level 5

C. Level 1

D. Incremental

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which EMC NetWorker daemon provides client files system information?

A. nsrfsra

B. nsrexecd

C. nsrlcpd

D. nsrindexd

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A backup administrator wants to verify that data was successfully written to an AFTD.

Which window in NMC would the administrator select to go gather this information?

A. Media

B. Devices

C. Configuration

D. Monitoring

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which git sub command copies a local commit to a remote repository? (Specify ONLY the sub command without any path or parameters.)

A. clone

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which of the following statements regarding microservices are true? (Choose three correct answers.)

A. Microservices facilitate the replacement of the implementation of a specific functionality.

B. Microservices applications are hard to scale because microservice architecture allow only one instance of each microservice.

C. Integration tests for microservices are not possible until all microservices forming a specific application are completely developed.

D. Interaction between microservices can be slower that the interaction of similar components within a monolithic application.

E. Within one application, individual microservices can be updated and redeployed independent of the remaining microservices.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 3:

Which statements are true regarding databases during the deployment of a new release of a service using canary deployment? (Choose two correct answers.)

A. Changes to the database schema can take long and reduce the database performance.

B. Traffic to the database will significantly increase because of the additional service instance.

C. The database schema must be compatible to all running versions of a service.

D. The database is locked while its content is copied to the canary database.

E. Canary deployments require two synchronized instances of each database.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 4:

A declarative Jenkins pipeline contains the following excerpt:

parameters {

string (name: `TargetEnvironment\’, defaultValue: `staging\’, description: `Target environment\’)

}

How can a task use the value provided for TargetEnvironment?

A. {{TargetEnvironment}}

B. $TargetEnvironment

C. %TargetEnvironment%

D. ${params.TargetEnvironment}

E. $ENV{TargetEnvironment}

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following HTTP headers is a CORS header?

A. X-CORS-Access-Token:

B. Location:

C. Referer:

D. Authorization:

E. Access-Control-Allow-Origin

Correct Answer: E

https://enable-cors.org/server_apache.html


Question 6:

What implications does container virtualization have for DevOps? (Choose two answers.)

A. Containers decouple the packaging of an application from its infrastructure.

B. Containers require developers to have detailed knowledge of their IT infrastructure.

C. Containers let developers test their software under production conditions.

D. Containers complicate the deployment of software and require early deployment tests.

E. Containers require application specific adjustment to the container platform.

Correct Answer: AC

http://anandmanisankar.com/posts/container-docker-PaaS-microservices/


Question 7:

Which of the following HTTP methods are used by REST? (Choose three correct answers.)

A. CREATE

B. REPLACE

C. PUT

D. DELETE

E. GET

Correct Answer: CDE

https://restfulapi.net/http-methods/


Question 8:

The file index.php, which is being maintained in a git repository, was changed locally and contains an error. If the error has not been committed to the repository yet, which of the following git commands reverts the local copy of index.php to the latest committed version in the current branch?

A. git lastver ?index.php

B. git revert ?index.php

C. git checkout ?index.php

D. git clean ?index.php

E. git repair ?index.php

Correct Answer: B

https://git-scm.com/docs/git-revert


Question 9:

Which of the following statements are true about Jenkins? (Choose two correct answers.)

A. Jenkins is specific to Java based applications.

B. Jenkins can delegate tasks to slave nodes.

C. Jenkins only works on local files and cannot use SCM repositories.

D. Jenkins\’ functionality is determined by plugins.

E. Jenkins includes a series of integrated testing suites.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 10:

What happens when a merge conflict occurs in git? (Choose two correct answers.)

A. The conflicting files remain unchanged in the local repository.

B. Conflict markers are added to the files.

C. A new branch containing the remote changes is created.

D. The affected files are flagged as conflicting.

E. The newest version is placed in the local repository.

Correct Answer: DE


Question 11:

Which configuration option in the Ansible inventory is issued control privilege escalation of the remote user?

A. priv_user

B. elevate

C. super

D. become

E. sudo

Correct Answer: D

https://docs.ansible.com/ansible/2.6/user_guide/become.html


Question 12:

Which Ansible command is used to manage and store sensitive data in encrypted files? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)

A. ansible-vault

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

An Ansible variable file contains the following content:

myapp: option1: one

Which of the following strings can be used to the defined variable? (Choose two correct answers).

A. myapp(option1);

B. [email protected]

C. myapp[`option1\’]

D. myapp.option1

E. myapp{{option1}}

Correct Answer: AE


Question 14:

Which of the following mechanisms are used for service discovery in a container environment? (Choose two correct answers.)

A. The container platform offers a command like docker service discover which should be run within a container.

B. The container platform sets environment variables containing service information within the containers.

C. The container platform lists localhost ports assigned to containers in each container\’s /etc/services file.

D. The container platform mounts the sockets for all available services into the container\’s file systems.

E. The container platforms maintains DNS records which point to containers offering a specific service.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 15:

Which of the statements below are true about the volume created by the following command? (Choose two correct answers.)

docker run –v /data –ti debian

A. The new /data volume contains a copy of the complete container\’s base image.

B. The volume containing the container\’s rootfile system is retained until the /data volume is deleted.

C. The /data volume is discarded when the container terminates.

D. The /data volume can be attached to another Docker container.

E. If the command is run a second time, another volume for /data is created.

Correct Answer: DE


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Question 1:

When the transmit end detects that the b6-b8 of the K2 byte is 110, it indicates that the () alarm is reported at the transmit end.

A. MS-AIS

B. R-LOS

C. R-LOF

D. MS-RDI

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 2:

Which of the following is not a condition for triggering multiplex section protection (MSP)?

A. The MS-AIS signal is detected.

B. AU-AIS is detected.

C. R-LOS is detected.

D. R-LOF is detected.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which of the following can be the center wavelengths of the pump sources in an EDFA? (Multiple Choice)

A. 980 nm

B. 1510 nm

C. 1480 nm

D. 1310 nm

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

Which of the following is the meaning of SFD in the Ethernet frame structure?

A. Preamble

B. Frame check sequence

C. Start frame delimiter

D. Payload

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Only one TCM can be used at a site.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

When setting the LCAS mode, follow the following principles:

1.

If devices at the two ends are both Huawei devices, set them to the “Standard Mode”.

2.

If a Huawei device is interconnected with a third-party device, set the interconnected devices to the same mode according to the mode supported by the third-party device.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following is the frame structure of STM-16?

A. 9*270*1

B. 9*270*4

C. 9*270*16

D. 9*270*64

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Compared with a dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM) system, a coarse wavelength division multiplexing (CWDM) system provides a certain number of wavelengths and a transmission distance within ( ) km, which greatly reduces system cost and has strong flexibility.

A. 50

B. 100

C. 200

D. 20

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

SES: There are 5% or more than 5% bit error blocks or at least one defect (OCI/AIS/LCKAAE/LTCA1M/PLM) within one second.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following is the multiplexing mode of SDH?

A. Flexible mapping

B. Asynchronous multiplexing

C. Flexible mapping and asynchronous multiplexing

D. Flexible mapping and synchronous multiplexing

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which of the following statements about the optical-layer interfaces OTM-n.m and OTM-nr.m of OTN is incorrect?

A. n indicates the number of wavelengths carried by the maximum capacity.

B. m indicates the rate. The value can be 1, 2, or 3.

C. r indicates OTM without the OSC function.

D. OTM-nr.m with OSC signals is OTM-n.m.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

The 1310 nm and 1550 nm transmission windows are low-loss windows. In DWDM systems, only the 1550 nm transmission window is used. Which of the following is the major cause?

A. The working wavelength flatness area of the EDFA is included in this window.

B. The non-linear effect of the 1550 nm wavelength area is small.

C. The 1550 nm wavelength area is applicable to long-haul transmission.

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which of the following can be configured as the monitoring time of NE performance events?

A. Later than the current time

B. Same as the current time of the NE

C. Earlier than the current time

D. Any time

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

OChr means that the electrical supervisory technology is used.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

When a fiber cut test is performed on a normal MSP ring, which of the following alarms is reported? (Multiple Choice)

A. TU-AIS

B. R-LOS

C. APSJNDI

D. BD STATUS

Correct Answer: BC


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Question 1:

Regarding Quality of Service, what are three IOPS parameters in the NetApp Element software that are defined per volume? (Choose three.)

A. Standard IOPS

B. Extreme IOPS

C. Maximum IOPS

D. Minimum IOPS

E. Burst IOPS

Correct Answer: CDE

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/sfe-115/topic/com.netapp.doc.sfe-ug/GUID-A0C92EA6-37D8-44C4BF6B-464817D6CB0A.html


Question 2:

What provides dynamic storage orchestration services for Kubernetes workloads?

A. Ansible

B. SANtricity OS

C. Trident

D. ONTAP software

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://netapp.io/persistent-storage-provisioner-for-kubernetes/


Question 3:

Where would you create an export policy?

A. in a FlexVol volume

B. in a RAID group

C. in a Storage VM

D. in an aggregate

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.pow-nfs-cg/GUID55EF7FD7-4904-404A-9D53-93ECFFB00B22.html


Question 4:

Which statement is correct about block and file data access?

A. With block data access, the host OS owns the file system; with file data access. ONTAP owns the file system

B. With block data access, ONTAP owns the file system; with file data access, the host OS owns the file system

C. With block and file data access, the host OS owns the file system

D. With block and file data access, ONTAP owns the file system

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

Your users require both NFS and SMB file services. You do not want to manage the storage ONTAP System Manager or the command line interface.

In this scenario, which two products would satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon S3 Glacier

B. Azure Blob Storage

C. Azure NetApp Files

D. Cloud Volumes Service

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/azure-netapp-files-faqs https://www.netapp.com/knowledge-center/what-is-cloud-volumes/


Question 6:

You are using NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP for AWS. You need to have data protection for your cloud data.

What NetApp service would you use to satisfy your requirements?

A. Cloud Sync

B. Cloud Volumes Service for AWS

C. Cloud Backup

D. SaaS Backup

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/cloud-services/cloud-volumes-ontap/aws/


Question 7:

What are three types of data access? (Choose three.)

A. cloud

B. RAID

C. file

D. block

E. object

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 8:

You have multiple on-premises applications writing to ONTAP LUNs and NFS exports. You want to build a disaster recovery solution from your on-premises ONTAP systems to your Microsoft Azure Resource Group while preserving the data efficiency and access properties for block and file.

Which cloud storage destination would you use in Microsoft Azure to accomplish this task?

A. Azure NetApp Files

B. NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP

C. Azure Blob Destination

D. NetApp Cloud Volumes Service

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/whats-new


Question 9:

Which storage type provides access using Amazon S3 APIs?

A. SAN

B. NAS

C. object

D. inode

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://cloud.netapp.com/blog/storage-tiering-ontap-cloud-and-amazon-s3


Question 10:

You are asked to create and manage working environments in NetApp Cloud Manager. In this scenario, which user role would enable you to perform this assignment?

A. Cluster Admin

B. Compliance Viewer

C. Storage Admin

D. Account Admin

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm38/pdfs/sidebar/Get_started_with_Cloud_Manager.pdf (page 6)


Question 11:

What are two benefits of using the ONTAP Tools for VMware vSphere software? (Choose two.)

A. provisioning ONTAP storage from the vCenter Server

B. deploying ONTAP Select instances from the vCenter Server

C. optimizing ESXi hosts settings for ONTAP storage

D. connecting to AWS for virtual machine replication

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

Which cloud architecture model does Cloud Volumes Service have?

A. PaaS

B. DRaaS

C. SaaS

D. IaaS

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which two protocols are supported with an E-Series system? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI

B. NFS

C. FC

D. SMB

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

Your employer asks you to deploy a solution in the cloud for sharing files company-wide. Employees require optimal performance and transparent data access to a single set of data.

In this scenario, which NetApp technology should you deploy?

A. Global File Cache

B. ONTAP Select

C. StorageGRID

D. Cloud Sync service

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cloud.netapp.com/global-file-cache


Question 15:

Which are three focus areas of NetApp E-Series solutions? (Choose three.)

A. video surveillance

B. backup

C. big data analytics

D. virtual desktop infrastructure

E. file shares using SMB

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/data-storage/e-series/


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Question 1:

A company has deployed an e-commerce web application in a new AWS account. An Amazon RDS for MySQL Multi-AZ DB instance is part of this deployment with a database-1.xxxxxxxxxxxx.us-east1.rds.amazonaws.com endpoint listening on port 3306. The company\’s Database Specialist is able to log in to MySQL and run queries from the bastion host using these details.

When users try to utilize the application hosted in the AWS account, they are presented with a generic error message. The application servers are logging a “could not connect to server: Connection times out” error message to Amazon CloudWatch Logs.

What is the cause of this error?

A. The user name and password the application is using are incorrect.

B. The security group assigned to the application servers does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the DB instance.

C. The security group assigned to the DB instance does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the application servers.

D. The user name and password are correct, but the user is not authorized to use the DB instance.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://forums.aws.amazon.com/thread.jspa?threadID=129700


Question 2:

An AWS CloudFormation stack that included an Amazon RDS DB instance was accidentally deleted and recent data was lost. A Database Specialist needs to add RDS settings to the CloudFormation template to reduce the chance of accidental instance data loss in the future.

Which settings will meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Set DeletionProtection to True

B. Set MultiAZ to True

C. Set TerminationProtection to True

D. Set DeleteAutomatedBackups to False

E. Set DeletionPolicy to Delete

F. Set DeletionPolicy to Retain

Correct Answer: ACF

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSCloudFormation/latest/UserGuide/aws-attributedeletionpolicy.html https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/cloudformation-accidental-updates/


Question 3:

A Database Specialist is troubleshooting an application connection failure on an Amazon Aurora DB cluster with multiple Aurora Replicas that had been running with no issues for the past 2 months. The connection failure lasted for 5 minutes and corrected itself after that. The Database Specialist reviewed the Amazon RDS events and determined a failover event occurred at that time. The failover process took around 15 seconds to complete.

What is the MOST likely cause of the 5-minute connection outage?

A. After a database crash, Aurora needed to replay the redo log from the last database checkpoint

B. The client-side application is caching the DNS data and its TTL is set too high

C. After failover, the Aurora DB cluster needs time to warm up before accepting client connections

D. There were no active Aurora Replicas in the Aurora DB cluster

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A company is deploying a solution in Amazon Aurora by migrating from an on-premises system. The IT department has established an AWS Direct Connect link from the company\’s data center. The company\’s Database Specialist has selected the option to require SSL/TLS for connectivity to prevent plaintext data from being set over the network. The migration appears to be working successfully, and the data can be queried from a desktop machine.

Two Data Analysts have been asked to query and validate the data in the new Aurora DB cluster. Both Analysts are unable to connect to Aurora. Their user names and passwords have been verified as valid and the Database Specialist can connect to the DB cluster using their accounts. The Database Specialist also verified that the security group configuration allows network from all corporate IP addresses.

What should the Database Specialist do to correct the Data Analysts’ inability to connect?

A. Restart the DB cluster to apply the SSL change.

B. Instruct the Data Analysts to download the root certificate and use the SSL certificate on the connection string to connect.

C. Add explicit mappings between the Data Analysts’ IP addresses and the instance in the security group assigned to the DB cluster.

D. Modify the Data Analysts’ local client firewall to allow network traffic to AWS.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A company is concerned about the cost of a large-scale, transactional application using Amazon DynamoDB that only needs to store data for 2 days before it is deleted. In looking at the tables, a Database Specialist notices that much of the data is months old, and goes back to when the application was first deployed.

What can the Database Specialist do to reduce the overall cost?

A. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and create an AWS Glue transformation to delete entries more than 2 days old.

B. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable DynamoDB Streams on each table.

C. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable time to live (TTL) on each table.

D. Create an Amazon CloudWatch Events event to export the data to Amazon S3 daily using AWS Data Pipeline and then truncate the Amazon DynamoDB table.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A clothing company uses a custom ecommerce application and a PostgreSQL database to sell clothes to thousands of users from multiple countries. The company is migrating its application and database from its on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud. The company has selected Amazon EC2 for the application and Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL for the database. The company requires database passwords to be changed every 60 days. A Database Specialist needs to ensure that the credentials used by the web application to connect to the database are managed securely.

Which approach should the Database Specialist take to securely manage the database credentials?

A. Store the credentials in a text file in an Amazon S3 bucket. Restrict permissions on the bucket to the IAM role associated with the instance profile only. Modify the application to download the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file every 60 days.

B. Configure IAM database authentication for the application to connect to the database. Create an IAM user and map it to a separate database user for each ecommerce user. Require users to update their passwords every 60 days.

C. Store the credentials in AWS Secrets Manager. Restrict permissions on the secret to only the IAM role associated with the instance profile. Modify the application to retrieve the credentials from Secrets Manager on start up. Configure the rotation interval to 60 days.

D. Store the credentials in an encrypted text file in the application AMI. Use AWS KMS to store the key for decrypting the text file. Modify the application to decrypt the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file and publish a new AMI every 60 days.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A financial services company is developing a shared data service that supports different applications from throughout the company. A Database Specialist designed a solution to leverage Amazon ElastiCache for Redis with cluster mode enabled to enhance performance and scalability. The cluster is configured to listen on port 6379.

Which combination of steps should the Database Specialist take to secure the cache data and protect it from unauthorized access? (Choose three.)

A. Enable in-transit and at-rest encryption on the ElastiCache cluster.

B. Ensure that Amazon CloudWatch metrics are configured in the ElastiCache cluster.

C. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache cluster allows all inbound traffic from itself and inbound traffic on TCP port 6379 from trusted clients only.

D. Create an IAM policy to allow the application service roles to access all ElastiCache API actions.

E. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache clients authorize inbound TCP port 6379 and port 22 traffic from the trusted ElastiCache cluster\’s security group.

F. Ensure the cluster is created with the auth-token parameter and that the parameter is used in all subsequent commands.

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/getting-started/tutorials/setting-up-a-redis-cluster-with-amazonelasticache/


Question 8:

A company is running an Amazon RDS for PostgeSQL DB instance and wants to migrate it to an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster. The current database is 1 TB in size. The migration needs to have minimal downtime.

What is the FASTEST way to accomplish this?

A. Create an Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster. Set up replication from the source RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance using AWS DMS to the target DB cluster.

B. Use the pg_dump and pg_restore utilities to extract and restore the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance to the Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

C. Create a database snapshot of the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance and use this snapshot to create the Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

D. Migrate data from the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance to an Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster using an Aurora Replica. Promote the replica during the cutover.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A Database Specialist is migrating a 2 TB Amazon RDS for Oracle DB instance to an RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance using AWS DMS. The source RDS Oracle DB instance is in a VPC in the us-east-1 Region. The target RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance is in a VPC in the use-west-2 Region.

Where should the AWS DMS replication instance be placed for the MOST optimal performance?

A. In the same Region and VPC of the source DB instance

B. In the same Region and VPC as the target DB instance

C. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the target DB instance

D. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the source DB instance

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

The Development team recently executed a database script containing several data definition language (DDL) and data manipulation language (DML) statements on an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster. The release accidentally deleted thousands of rows from an important table and broke some application functionality. This was discovered 4 hours after the release. Upon investigation, a Database Specialist tracked the issue to a DELETE command in the script with an incorrect WHERE clause filtering the wrong set of rows. The Aurora DB cluster has Backtrack enabled with an 8-hour backtrack window. The Database Administrator also took a manual snapshot of the DB cluster before the release started. The database needs to be returned to the correct state as quickly as possible to resume full application functionality. Data loss must be minimal. How can the Database Specialist accomplish this?

A. Quickly rewind the DB cluster to a point in time before the release using Backtrack.

B. Perform a point-in-time recovery (PITR) of the DB cluster to a time before the release and copy the deleted rows from the restored database to the original database.

C. Restore the DB cluster using the manual backup snapshot created before the release and change the application configuration settings to point to the new DB cluster.

D. Create a clone of the DB cluster with Backtrack enabled. Rewind the cloned cluster to a point in time before the release. Copy deleted rows from the clone to the original database.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

A company is load testing its three-tier production web application deployed with an AWS CloudFormation template on AWS. The Application team is making changes to deploy additional Amazon EC2 and AWS Lambda resources to expand the load testing capacity. A Database Specialist wants to ensure that the changes made by the Application team will not change the Amazon RDS database resources already deployed. Which combination of steps would allow the Database Specialist to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Review the stack drift before modifying the template

B. Create and review a change set before applying it

C. Export the database resources as stack outputs

D. Define the database resources in a nested stack

E. Set a stack policy for the database resources

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

A manufacturing company\’s website uses an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

Which configurations will result in the LEAST application downtime during a failover? (Choose three.)

A. Use the provided read and write Aurora endpoints to establish a connection to the Aurora DB cluster.

B. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alert triggering a restore in another Availability Zone when the primary Aurora DB cluster is unreachable.

C. Edit and enable Aurora DB cluster cache management in parameter groups.

D. Set TCP keepalive parameters to a high value.

E. Set JDBC connection string timeout variables to a low value.

F. Set Java DNS caching timeouts to a high value.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 13:

A company is hosting critical business data in an Amazon Redshift cluster. Due to the sensitive nature of the data, the cluster is encrypted at rest using AWS KMS. As a part of disaster recovery requirements, the company needs to copy the Amazon Redshift snapshots to another Region.

Which steps should be taken in the AWS Management Console to meet the disaster recovery requirements?

A. Create a new KMS customer master key in the source Region. Switch to the destination Region, enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

B. Create a new IAM role with access to the KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication using the new IAM role, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

C. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots in the source Region, and create a snapshot copy grant and use a KMS key in the destination Region.

D. Create a new KMS customer master key in the destination Region and create a new IAM role with access to the new KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication in the source Region and use the KMS key of the destination Region.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/redshift/latest/mgmt/working-with-snapshots.html


Question 14:

A company has a production Amazon Aurora Db cluster that serves both online transaction processing (OLTP) transactions and compute-intensive reports. The reports run for 10% of the total cluster uptime while the OLTP transactions run all the time. The company has benchmarked its workload and determined that a six-node Aurora DB cluster is appropriate for the peak workload. The company is now looking at cutting costs for this DB cluster, but needs to have a sufficient number of nodes in the cluster to support the workload at different times. The workload has not changed since the previous benchmarking exercise. How can a Database Specialist address these requirements with minimal user involvement?

A. Split up the DB cluster into two different clusters: one for OLTP and the other for reporting. Monitor and set up replication between the two clusters to keep data consistent.

B. Review all evaluate the peak combined workload. Ensure that utilization of the DB cluster node is at an acceptable level. Adjust the number of instances, if necessary.

C. Use the stop cluster functionality to stop all the nodes of the DB cluster during times of minimal workload. The cluster can be restarted again depending on the workload at the time.

D. Set up automatic scaling on the DB cluster. This will allow the number of reader nodes to adjust automatically to the reporting workload, when needed.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

A company is running a finance application on an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance. The application is

governed by multiple financial regulatory agencies. The RDS DB instance is set up with security groups to

allow access to certain Amazon EC2 servers only. AWS KMS is used for encryption at rest.

Which step will provide additional security?

A. Set up NACLs that allow the entire EC2 subnet to access the DB instance

B. Disable the master user account

C. Set up a security group that blocks SSH to the DB instance

D. Set up RDS to use SSL for data in transit

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/database/applying-best-practices-for-securing-sensitive-data-inamazon-rds/


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Question 1:

A web-based company wants to improve its conversion rate on its landing page. Using a large historical dataset of customer visits, the company has repeatedly trained a multi-class deep learning network algorithm on Amazon SageMaker. However, there is an overfitting problem: training data shows 90% accuracy in predictions, while test data shows 70% accuracy only.

The company needs to boost the generalization of its model before deploying it into production to maximize conversions of visits to purchases.

Which action is recommended to provide the HIGHEST accuracy model for the company\’s test and validation data?

A. Increase the randomization of training data in the mini-batches used in training.

B. Allocate a higher proportion of the overall data to the training dataset

C. Apply L1 or L2 regularization and dropouts to the training.

D. Reduce the number of layers and units (or neurons) from the deep learning network.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A Data Scientist is developing a machine learning model to classify whether a financial transaction is fraudulent. The labeled data available for training consists of 100,000 non-fraudulent observations and 1,000 fraudulent observations.

The Data Scientist applies the XGBoost algorithm to the data, resulting in the following confusion matrix when the trained model is applied to a previously unseen validation dataset. The accuracy of the model is 99.1%, but the Data Scientist has been asked to reduce the number of false negatives.

Which combination of steps should the Data Scientist take to reduce the number of false positive predictions by the model? (Choose two.)

A. Change the XGBoost eval_metric parameter to optimize based on rmse instead of error.

B. Increase the XGBoost scale_pos_weight parameter to adjust the balance of positive and negative weights.

C. Increase the XGBoost max_depth parameter because the model is currently underfitting the data.

D. Change the XGBoost evaljnetric parameter to optimize based on AUC instead of error.

E. Decrease the XGBoost max_depth parameter because the model is currently overfitting the data.

Correct Answer: DE


Question 3:

A Machine Learning Specialist prepared the following graph displaying the results of k-means for k = [1..10]:

Considering the graph, what is a reasonable selection for the optimal choice of k?

A. 1

B. 4

C. 7

D. 10

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A manufacturing company asks its Machine Learning Specialist to develop a model that classifies defective parts into one of eight defect types. The company has provided roughly 100000 images per defect type for training During the injial training of the image classification model the Specialist notices that the validation accuracy is 80%, while the training accuracy is 90% It is known that human-level performance for this type of image classification is around 90%

What should the Specialist consider to fix this issue1?

A. A longer training time

B. Making the network larger

C. Using a different optimizer

D. Using some form of regularization

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

An office security agency conducted a successful pilot using 100 cameras installed at key locations within the main office. Images from the cameras were uploaded to Amazon S3 and tagged using Amazon Rekognition, and the results were stored in Amazon ES. The agency is now looking to expand the pilot into a full production system using thousands of video cameras in its office locations globally. The goal is to identify activities performed by non-employees in real time.

Which solution should the agency consider?

A. Use a proxy server at each local office and for each camera, and stream the RTSP feed to a unique Amazon Kinesis Video Streams video stream. On each stream, use Amazon Rekognition Video and create a stream processor to detect faces from a collection of known employees, and alert when non-employees are detected.

B. Use a proxy server at each local office and for each camera, and stream the RTSP feed to a unique Amazon Kinesis Video Streams video stream. On each stream, use Amazon Rekognition Image to detect faces from a collection of known employees and alert when non-employees are detected.

C. Install AWS DeepLens cameras and use the DeepLens_Kinesis_Video module to stream video to Amazon Kinesis Video Streams for each camera. On each stream, use Amazon Rekognition Video and create a stream processor to detect faces from a collection on each stream, and alert when nonemployees are detected.

D. Install AWS DeepLens cameras and use the DeepLens_Kinesis_Video module to stream video to Amazon Kinesis Video Streams for each camera. On each stream, run an AWS Lambda function to capture image fragments and then call Amazon Rekognition Image to detect faces from a collection of known employees, and alert when non-employees are detected.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/machine-learning/video-analytics-in-the-cloud-and-at-the-edgewith-aws-deeplens-and-kinesis-video-streams/


Question 6:

Example Corp has an annual sale event from October to December. The company has sequential sales data from the past 15 years and wants to use Amazon ML to predict the sales for this year\’s upcoming event. Which method should Example Corp use to split the data into a training dataset and evaluation dataset?

A. Pre-split the data before uploading to Amazon S3

B. Have Amazon ML split the data randomly.

C. Have Amazon ML split the data sequentially.

D. Perform custom cross-validation on the data

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A bank\’s Machine Learning team is developing an approach for credit card fraud detection The company has a large dataset of historical data labeled as fraudulent The goal is to build a model to take the information from new transactions and predict whether each transaction is fraudulent or not

Which built-in Amazon SageMaker machine learning algorithm should be used for modeling this problem?

A. Seq2seq

B. XGBoost

C. K-means

D. Random Cut Forest (RCF)

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

When submitting Amazon SageMaker training jobs using one of the built-in algorithms, which common parameters MUST be specified? (Select THREE.)

A. The training channel identifying the location of training data on an Amazon S3 bucket.

B. The validation channel identifying the location of validation data on an Amazon S3 bucket.

C. The 1AM role that Amazon SageMaker can assume to perform tasks on behalf of the users.

D. Hyperparameters in a JSON array as documented for the algorithm used.

E. The Amazon EC2 instance class specifying whether training will be run using CPU or GPU.

F. The output path specifying where on an Amazon S3 bucket the trained model will persist.

Correct Answer: AEF


Question 9:

A Machine Learning Specialist is required to build a supervised image-recognition model to identify a cat.

The ML Specialist performs some tests and records the following results for a neural network-based image

classifier:

Total number of images available = 1,000 Test set images = 100 (constant test set)

The ML Specialist notices that, in over 75% of the misclassified images, the cats were held upside down by

their owners.

Which techniques can be used by the ML Specialist to improve this specific test error?

A. Increase the training data by adding variation in rotation for training images.

B. Increase the number of epochs for model training.

C. Increase the number of layers for the neural network.

D. Increase the dropout rate for the second-to-last layer.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

The Chief Editor for a product catalog wants the Research and Development team to build a machine learning system that can be used to detect whether or not individuals in a collection of images are wearing the company\’s retail brand The team has a set of training data

Which machine learning algorithm should the researchers use that BEST meets their requirements?

A. Latent Dirichlet Allocation (LDA)

B. Recurrent neural network (RNN)

C. K-means

D. Convolutional neural network (CNN)

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A manufacturing company has structured and unstructured data stored in an Amazon S3 bucket A Machine Learning Specialist wants to use SQL to run queries on this data. Which solution requires the LEAST effort to be able to query this data?

A. Use AWS Data Pipeline to transform the data and Amazon RDS to run queries.

B. Use AWS Glue to catalogue the data and Amazon Athena to run queries

C. Use AWS Batch to run ETL on the data and Amazon Aurora to run the quenes

D. Use AWS Lambda to transform the data and Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics to run queries

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A Machine Learning Specialist is preparing data for training on Amazon SageMaker The Specialist is transformed into a numpy .array, which appears to be negatively affecting the speed of the training

What should the Specialist do to optimize the data for training on SageMaker\’?

A. Use the SageMaker batch transform feature to transform the training data into a DataFrame

B. Use AWS Glue to compress the data into the Apache Parquet format

C. Transform the dataset into the Recordio protobuf format

D. Use the SageMaker hyperparameter optimization feature to automatically optimize the data

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

An online reseller has a large, multi-column dataset with one column missing 30% of its data A Machine Learning Specialist believes that certain columns in the dataset could be used to reconstruct the missing data

Which reconstruction approach should the Specialist use to preserve the integrity of the dataset?

A. Listwise deletion

B. Last observation carried forward

C. Multiple imputation

D. Mean substitution

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://worldwidescience.org/topicpages/i/imputing missing values.html


Question 14:

A manufacturing company has a large set of labeled historical sales data The manufacturer would like to predict how many units of a particular part should be produced each quarter Which machine learning approach should be used to solve this problem?

A. Logistic regression

B. Random Cut Forest (RCF)

C. Principal component analysis (PCA)

D. Linear regression

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A monitoring service generates 1 TB of scale metrics record data every minute A Research team performs queries on this data using Amazon Athena The queries run slowly due to the large volume of data, and the team requires better performance

How should the records be stored in Amazon S3 to improve query performance?

A. CSV files

B. Parquet files

C. Compressed JSON

D. RecordIO

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which port needs to be opened for Alert Channel communication between Sensor and Manager through a firewall?

A. 8501

B. 8502

C. 8503

D. 8555

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

DoS detection is implemented in which of the following modes? (Choose two)

A. Learning mode

B. Configuration mode

C. Threshold mode

D. Bidirectional mode

E. Inbound mode

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

Which port is correctly defined for the Alert Channel on the Network Security Manager?

A. 8500

B. 8501

C. 8502

D. 8504

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which mode is used when certain hosts are located on the same network as a sensor and other hosts enter through a router or VPN?

A. Mixed

B. Hybrid

C. Enforcement

D. Prevention

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which mode needs to be set to redirect an unmanaged system to the guest portal?

A. Audit

B. Simulation

C. Enforcement

D. Prevention

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Reconnaissance Policies can be applied to which of the following sensor nodes?

A. Sensor name node only

B. Sensor interface node only

C. Sensor sub-interface node only

D. Sensor name, interface and sub-interface node

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which of the following methods are available for upgrading a Sensor image?

A. TFTP and/or through the Manager

B. PUTTY and/or through the Manager

C. Console connection and/or through the Manager

D. TFTP, console connection and/or through the Manager

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which type of NAC configuration allows a host to be subjected to both DHCP and IBAC based NAC when configured on different ports?

A. Integrated

B. DHCP

C. Health-based

D. Hybrid

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which of the following rules do sub-interfaces inherit when they are created?

A. ACL rules

B. Sensor rules only

C. Port rules only

D. Sensor and port rules

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which command can be issued on a Sensor to check the health of the Sensor?

A. show

B. show settings

C. status

D. check health

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

McAfee recommends which of the following methods to cable the heartbeat connection of a sensor failover pair?

A. direct fiber connection with specified monitoring ports

B. direct copper connection using response ports

C. switched fiber connection

D. direct copper connection using failopen port

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A sensor is placed in-line and is dropping traffic. This situation demands an immediate removal of the sensor from the network to let traffic flow uninterrupted. Which option will you use to verify whether the issue is due to sensor configuration or network congestion?

A. Layer2modeon

B. Layer2 mode assert

C. Layer2 mode deassert

D. Layer2 mode off

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Setting a threshold limit in order for the IPS to react if traffic volume exceeds this limit is an example of which type of detection method?

A. Statistical anomaly

B. Protocol anomaly

C. Pattern matching

D. Application anomaly

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which command allows an off-line signature file download from a tftp server when connectivity to the Manager is unavailable?

A. Loadimage

B. Loadconfig

C. Loadconfiguration

D. Loadsigset

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which of the following are the methods used by NSP to recognize and react to Denial-of-Service (DoS) attacks? (Choose three)

A. Blocking

B. Shutting down the sensor

C. Thresholds

D. Self-learning

E. Logging

F. DDoS attack tool with exploit signatures

Correct Answer: CDF


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Question 1:

A hospital in another county just received a new variant of ransom ware that infected 70% of its systems. After learning the characteristics of this ransom ware, the security team wants to implement a protection policy to stop certain files from being modified and new registry keys from being created that are relevant to the ransom ware. Which of the following policies meets this requirement?

A. Exploit prevention policy

B. Block and allow list policy

C. Access protection policy

D. Firewall rules policy

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

By using which of the following techniques does Real Protect scanner inspect suspicious files and activities on an endpoint to detect malicious patterns?

A. Machine learning

B. Intrusion prevention

C. Sandboxing

D. Static code analysis

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

In which of the following locations are the installation log files stored by default on a Windows machine?

A. %TEMP%\McAfeeLogs

B. %PROGRAMDATA%\McAfee\Logs

C. %USERDATA%\McAfeeLogFiles

D. %PROGRAMFILES%\CommonFiles\McAfeeLogs

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A company\’s security posture requires the ENS firewall to be enabled; however, the team is unsure of communication flows in the environment. In which of the following modes should the ePO administrator deploy the firewall policy to achieve flow awareness?

A. Adaptive Mode

B. Interface Mode

C. Enforce Mode

D. Observe Mode

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following server roles has a McAfee-defined policy bundled with the product?

A. Exchange

B. Internet Information Services (IIS)

C. Active Directory

D. SQL

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

While tuning the firewall policy, the ePO administrator notices unauthorized traffic is being initiated by a file transfer utility application. If this is a recently approved application, in which of the following locations should this be configured to allow FTP traffic only with this application?

A. Add a new rule within the Access Protection policy to block port 21 and exclude the executable for the software.

B. Put a new rule in the Exploit Prevention policy to include the executable for the software for additional protection.

C. Exclude the process associated with the software within the On Access Scan policy\’s Low-Risk Processes section.

D. Create an allow rule within the Rules policy for inbound/outbound on port 21 and the executable for the software.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A user navigates to a new website that has not been rated by ENS Web Control yet. In which of the following ways will ENS Web Control handle this request by default?

A. Delete

B. Block

C. Allow

D. Warn

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

In Web Control, “Enable Web Category blocking of restricted content” is enforced. Which of the following describes the result if a user enters a restricted site?

A. The color is gray, and access is denied.

B. The pop-up color is red, and access is denied.

C. The color is orange, and access is denied.

D. The pop-up color is blue, and access denied.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

If the ePO server\’s access to the Internet is allowed, which of the following options would the administrator have to check in the McAfee ENS Migration Assistant extension?

A. Software Manager

B. Server Client Package Install

C. Master Repository

D. Workstation Client Package Install

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

The network operations team has configured the company\’s VPN connector to deny connectivity if virus scan definitions are older than seven days. In order for a user to immediately meet the VPN connector\’s policy, which of the following should the administrator enable?

A. Managed custom tasks

B. “Update now” button

C. Default client update task schedule

D. Proxy server

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which of the following describes the role of a cloud-based Real Protect scanner?

A. It sends environmental variables to the cloud for analysis.

B. It sends potentially malicious code to the cloud for analysis.

C. It sends behavior information to the cloud for analysis.

D. It sends personally identifiable information to the cloud for analysis.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

An administrator wants to know how many machines have exploit prevention enabled. Which of the following dashboards installed with ENS should the administrator look at?

A. Endpoint Security: Environmental Health

B. Endpoint Security: Threat Behavior

C. Endpoint Security: Content Status

D. Endpoint Security: Installation Status

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The security team wants to schedule an on-demand scan to run at noon every day for all workstations. However, the team would like to ensure system performance is not impacted because users may be working. Which of the following is a system utilization setting that meets this criteria?

A. Below normal

B. Low

C. Scan only when the system is idle

D. Normal

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

A user goes to four different websites, each with a different rating. One of the four sites is blocked and unable to be accessed. Using default configuration to determine the rating, which of the following ratings does this site have?

A. Gray

B. Red

C. Yellow

D. Green

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A security technician is configuring the exploit prevention policy. Based on best practices for critical servers, which of the following severity levels should the technician configure signatures to block after a requisite period of tuning?

A. Low

B. High

C. Informational

D. Medium

Correct Answer: B