Month: January 2022

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Question 1:

Frances is debugging an iWidget that should show a loader bar until markup is generated and shown, leveraging only lifecycle functions. Right now, she can only see the loader bar, but nothing else happens in the iWidget. She has verified that all dependencies have loaded properly and that the elements have rendered. What should she verify next?

A. Verify that the onUnload method is properly modifying the page content after loading completes.

B. Verify the onLoad method kicked off background functions needed to render the markup.

C. Verify that the readyMarkup method is properly implemented.

D. Verify that the view is a supported mode for the iWidget.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Tyson is the sole IBM WebSphere Portal administrator in his company. He has developed a portlet that uses content spots to bind certain portlet markup to users specific to a certain group accessing the portlet itself. What bindings can Tyson create to associate the users with the content spots to be shown?

A. He can use Personalization Rules based on user and group information, hiding and showing the content spots per each grouping as desired.

B. He can use the ContentPresentationModel to hide and show content spots based on any parameter included in the ContentPresentationResource and change the content spot based on the user\’s group

C. He can store a personalization rule in the theme that creates a new version of the portlet for each user group automatically on first access,using the PortletClientModel and leveraging the PUMA UserGroup object

D. Portlets cannot include dynamic content spots.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Wendy\’s theme was recently installed on a server. A colleague provided her with theme components to deploy, which given design requirements, is packaged as an EAR file inside a compressed ZIP file. Which of the following is a valid option for deploying these components?

A. Use the web-dav-deploy-zip-file to deploy the compressed file. Use the IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console or scripts to deploy theEAR file. Use XMLAccess to import the components into the IBM WebSphere Portal server.

B. Use the web-dav-deploy-zip-file to deploy the compressed file. Use the webdav-expand-ear command to unpackage the EAR on the server,then register the new EAR on the WebSphere Integrated Solutions console.

C. Use the web-dav-deploy-zip-file to deploy the compressed file and use the XMLAccess command to run the script. Use the WebSphereIntegrated Solutions console to add the runtime configuration.

D. EAR files must be deployed using the WebSphere Integrated Solutions console, so she must remove it from the ZIP archive and install itdirectly.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

MegaCorp is working on integrating one of their applications existing in non-IBM WebSphere Portal environments into WebSphere Portal. Which of the following options should they use for this purpose?

A. WebClipping Portlet International Edition

B. IntegrationPortlet

C. WebClipping Portlet

D. IntegrationPortlet_jsEnabled

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which is not a valid CSS style defined in the JSR 286 Portlet Specification?

A. portlet-a

B. portlet-font

C. portlet-msg-info

D. portlet-section-text

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Bill is developing a portlet that uses AJAX to retrieve information from the server. In the serveResource() method first he is setting “AdminName” request attribute and then forwarding control to a JSP for generating markup. Using best practices, how should he print the “AdminName” attribute inside the JSP?

A.

B.

C. ${requestScope.AdminName}

D. ${portalRequest.AdminName}

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

If Lola needs to create a resource collection, which of the following options must she define?

A. An instance of the following:

-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.ResourceCollection

B. An instance of either of the following:

-com.ibm.websphere.resources.ResourceCollectionImpl

-com.ibm.websphere.resources.ResourceManager

C. An instance of one of the following:

-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.resources.Resource

-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.resources.ResourceManager3

-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.resources.ResourceDomain3

-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.resources.AuthIDTranslator

D. An instance of either of the following:

-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.ResourceCollectionImpl

-com.ibm.websphere.resources.ResourceManager

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which one of the following statements is valid regarding credential objects?

A. Credential objects are serializable.

B. To create a slot for storing active credentials, set the active parameter of the CredentialVaultService.createSlot method to true.

C. Passive credential objects hide the credential\’s secret from the portlet.

D. Portlets that use active credential objects need to extract the secret from the credential to authenticate with the backend.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

The following code sample uses the PUMA SPI within a standard portlet.

Sunil needs to retrieve attributes on the current user. Which one of the following lines of code, if inserted at line 6, will provide the functions to retrieve attributes from the User object?

A. PumaProfile p = service.getProfile( (javax.portlet.ActionRequest) request);

B. PumaProfile p = service.getProfile( (javax.portlet.PortletRequest) request);

C. PumaController p = service getController( (javax.portlet.ActionRequest) request);

D. PumaController p = service getController( (javax.portlet.PortletRequest) request);

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Roger has been discussing iWidgets with a prospective client and has been highlighting certain aspects of the specification. Which of the following statements is false and thus ill-advised?

A. Three modes are defined in the iContext Constants (VIEW, EDIT and HELP). An iWidget does not need to support all three modes.

B. Overall page management components are provided by the iContext. These include iWidget coordination, page layout and controls, andbackend service interaction.

C. iScope is a mechanism to support encapsulation of an iWidget\’s assests.

D. The iDescriptor is a special ManagedItemSet which is always persisted by the iContext.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

The JSR 286 Portlet Specification PLT.C appendix defines the Cascading Style Sheet classes for a variety of logical units in the markup. It follows the styles defined by the OASIS Web Services for Remote Portlets Technical Committee. What is the prefix used for the name of the CSS classes defined in this appendix?

A. css- (for example css-font, css-form-field, css-table-body)

B. wsrp- (for example wsrp-font, wsrp-form-field, wsrp-table-body)

C. portal- (for example portal-font, portal-form-field, portal-table-body)

D. portlet- (for example portlet-font, portlet-form-field, portlet-table-body)

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Bill is developing a mail portlet. One of the requirements of the mail portlet is that it should prompt the user for a user name and password on the first access, then store that information in the credential vault. After that, the mail portlet should read the credential from the credential vault and use it for logging in to the external application. Which type of credential slot should Bill use?

A. System slot

B. Administrative slot

C. Shared user slot

D. Portlet private slot

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

A cloud user is assigned the Service Administrator role. Which cloud actions can this user perform?

A. Perform all tasks in the My Services application, including user and role management tasks.

B. View, create, update, and delete Oracle Compute Cloud Service resources.

C. View only the Oracle Compute Cloud resources.

D. Work with one or more Oracle Cloud services only and use the My Services application to manage his or her own password and security challenge questions.

E. Perform cloud backups of a specific instance.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/computecs_common/OCSUG/GUID-F89D66BD-85F54325-8A1F-F8EEE53A7CF1.htm#OCSUG113


Question 2:

You notice that a database node has hung, so you open a Service Request via My Oracle Support. What diagnostic output will you send to My Oracle Support by default?

A. pkginfo

B. oswatcher

C. AWR

D. v$sessionoutput

E. list of database users

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which statement is true about Exadata Storage Servers?

A. Exadata Storage Servers automatically delete old diagnostic and metric files.

B. Exadata requires a running database instance on all storage servers and database servers.

C. Redundancy for the user data that is stored in a database that is running on Exadata is achieved with RAID5.

D. Communication between a database and an Exadata storage flows over low latency 10 Gigabit Ethernet.

E. Exadata uses network affinity to determine which storage server data is written.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which three items are the main elements of Oracle Database Resource Manager? (Choose three.)

A. SQL Explain Plan

B. resource plan

C. resource consumer group

D. resource plan directive

E. IORMPLAN object

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/dbrm001.htm#ADMIN11844


Question 5:

In a customer\’s ACFS filesystem, they would like you to set up replication between the existing local primary and the remote standby Exadata system.

Which tool would you use to administer the replication process?

A. Replication is controlled by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control.

B. Replication is controlled by using sqlplus while you are logged in as SYSASM.

C. Replication is controlled by using the acfsutil command-line tool.

D. Replication of ACFS filesystems for non-database files on Exadata is not supported.

E. Replication is controlled by using the exacli command-line tool.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/database-technologies/cloud-storage/acfs/ learnmore/acfs-replication-122-3634228.html


Question 6:

Which two statements are true about troubleshooting failed patching activities? (Choose two.)

A. Dependency issues found during yum updates should be ignored by using the force option.

B. Failed storage cell patches are rolled back to the previous release automatically.

C. Failed OS patches on database servers can be rolled back.

D. Dependency issues that are found during yum updates require rolling back to a previous release before retrying.

E. Bundle patches applied by using opatch autocannot roll back only the database or the grid infrastructure home.

F. Database server OS updates can be rolled back by using opatch auto -rollback.

Correct Answer: AF

Reference: http://www.toadworld.com/platforms/oracle/w/wiki/11500.managing-troubleshooting-exadatapart-1-upgrading-patching-exadata


Question 7:

The Exadata architecture is divided into two specific tiers: the database tier and the storage tier. What protocol do these tiers use to communicate with each other?

A. iDB – Intelligent Database Protocol

B. InfiniBand protocol

C. Ethernet protocol

D. Secure Shell protocol

E. Fibre Channel protocol

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E50790_01/doc/doc.121/e50471/concepts.htm#SAGUG20333


Question 8:

Your customer needs to ensure that their data is available on the Exadata machine during patches. The customer wants to be able to patch one server at a time but still be protected against single-node server failure.

What ASM redundancy level should they use?

A. High

B. Normal

C. External

D. Extreme

E. Standard

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/exadata/maa-exadata-asm-cloud-3656632.pdf (page 7)


Question 9:

In which three ways can customers access the ILOM interface to manage the Exadata database and storage server hardware components? (Choose three.)

A. ILOM CLI interface through the management network

B. ILOM Web interface through the management network

C. remote KVM session to the ILOM

D. from the database server operating system tool “ilomcli”

E. from the storage server operating system tool “ilomcli”

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 10:

Your customer is implementing a storage consolidation strategy on their existing Exadata.

Which step represents the Oracle recommended action that the customer should take in their approach?

A. Do not use IORM because it will interfere with the shared database functionality on Exadata.

B. Use ASM to create separate diskgroups for each database instance that is running on Exadata.

C. Use IORM to distribute disk bandwidth among the databases.

D. Set up Oracle Grid Infrastructure to use multiple clusters per hardware pool.

E. Set up a resource consumer group within each database instance and manage it individually.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/topics/cloud/whatsnew/mixedworkloadmgmtexadata300345.pdf page 42


Question 11:

How does Advanced Compression differ from Hybrid Columnar Compression?

A. Advanced Compression is free to use on Exadata Database Machine, whereas Hybrid Columnar Compression must be purchased.

B. They are the same; Advanced Compression is called Hybrid Columnar Compression on Exadata Database Machine.

C. Hybrid Columnar Compression is good for tables with active updates and deletes, and provides deeper compression ratios.

D. Advanced Compression is good for tables with active updates and deletes, whereas Hybrid Columnar Compression is best applied to tables or partitions where data is fairly static.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

The Exadata compute node, exadbs04, has been having issues for some time. The server had to be repaired and you just received a new server. Your LVM snapshot was corrupt and now the compute node must be re-imaged with an Oracle Support installation image.

Which three tasks must be performed in order to re-image the compute node? (Choose three.)

A. Create a CELLBOOT USB Flash Drive by using an external USB drive.

B. Mount the LVM backup image across the network and recover the system.

C. Remove exadbs04 from the RAC cluster and all associated Oracle Homes from the central inventory.

D. Reboot the new server by using a bootable recovery image from the external USB drive.

E. Reconfigure all site-specific settings (host name, IP addresses, NTP server, and so on).

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 13:

Which statement is true about instance caging setup?

A. The initialization parameter resource_manager_planshould be set.

B. For a system with 16 threads, the sum of cpu_count for all databases should not be higher than 32 to prevent oversubscribing.

C. Database instances need to be restarted to make changes to cpu_counteffective.

D. The CPU Resource Manager and IORM need to be enabled to make instance caging to work as expected.

E. Instance caging is the right approach to make sure that database instances are not stealin memory from one another.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/performance/instance-caging-wp-166854.pdf


Question 14:

Which three tools can be used on a freshly re-imaged Exadata system to create, resize, or delete ACFS filesystems? (Choose three.)

A. SQL*Plus and ASMCMD

B. ASMCA

C. Enterprise Manager Express

D. Enterprise Manager Cloud Control

E. RMAN

F. OUI

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: https://dbasolutions.wikispaces.com/ACFS on Linux


Question 15:

Your government customer has purchased a full rack of Exadata. The customer has two departments that would like to share the Exadata Database Machine but the concern is that department A will be able to see data from department B.

Which architecture would you suggest to solve this deployment issue?

A. Split the configuration by using Oracle Nimbula\’s cloud software so that four database servers and seven cells can be used by department A and the rest can be used by department B.

B. Split the configuration and use ASM-Scoped Security so that four database servers and seven cells can be used by department A and the rest can be used by department B.

C. Set up instance caging to ensure that department A has access only to four database servers and seven cells and department B has access to the rest.

D. Define the split by setting up database services that are specific to department A and department B.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

_________is a procedural scripting language that is written in discrete pieces, uses a syntax that looks like Java and acts like database stored procedures, and arc executed entirely on the Force.com platform.

A. S-Controls

B. HTML

C. PHP

D. Ajax

E. Apex

Correct Answer: E


Question 2:

___________ allow developers to completely replace the standard page layouts within the Sales force UI with completely custom pages.

A. HTML

B. Apex

C. S-Controls

D. Visual force Pages

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

As an end user what are two things you can do in content?

A. Read

B. Edit

C. Subscribe

D. Post

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

A company currently uses the standard Sales force product and price hook objects. Is it possible for this company to publish product and price hook information to its corporate Web site so customers in different regions sec the correct product catalog with prices in the local currency?

A. Yes, with the Customer portal.

B. No, it is not possible to present multicurrency data.

C. Yes, by building a custom integration following the X-to-Web design pattern.

D. No, it is not possible to present data stored in standard objects other than cases and solutions to a Web site.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

How many days of setup audit history can you download?

A. 7

B. 30

C. 90

D. 180

E. 365

F. You can\’t download this information due to security

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

How many levels deep can cross-object formulas go?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

E. E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Actions to existing steps can be added to an active approval process?

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Apex offers optional creation of test scripts that can be run in a dev environment, in the UI or by sales force support personnel.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Ideas can be used in the self service portal.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

S-Controls are only triggered through the user interface

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You can specify the criteria for specific objects desired in the weekly data export function?

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You should back up your data before changing or deleting data

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

What arc the two keys to setting up Territory Management?

Select all that apply:

A. Enable customizable forecasting

B. Advanced currency management

C. Have an Active Sandbox

D. Marketing User permission enabled

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

What are the two major pieces to most s-controls?

A. HTML (Visual Presentation)

B. CSS Style Sheet

C. Javascript (Function /Code)

D. IFrame

Correct Answer: AC


Question 15:

What are the ways you can get a record\’s unique Sales force ID?

Select all that apply:

A. URL

B. Report

C. API

Correct Answer: ABC


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Question 1:

Where in the controller would we configure a wireless network NOT to use encryption?

A. AAA profile

B. SSID profile

C. ARM profile

D. Radio profile

E. VAP profile

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Firewall rules contain the following fields, except?

A. Action

B. Destination

C. Service

D. Mirror

E. Policy

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

Which of the following parameters is not needed by Visual RF Plan in order to Plan APs on a floor region?

A. AP Type

B. PHY Type

C. Distance to Controller

D. Environment

E. Desired Data Rate

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which of the following is true of an Aruba Mobility Controller acting as a layer 2 switch? (Select two):

A. The Mobility Controller is the client\’s default router.

B. The Mobility Controller acts as a bridge.

C. All stations must use the same VLAN

D. Uplink ports on the Mobility Controller can use 802.1q tagging

E. VLANs cannot have IP addresses

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

In the startup wizard the ports configuration screen allows you to do the following (Select three)?

A. Identify trunk ports

B. Configure port channels

C. Assign VLANs

D. Identify the native VLAN for a port

E. Specify the IP address of the Vlan

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 6:

Remote AP in tunnel mode, by default, uses which of the following to encrypt user traffic back to the mobility controller?

A. L2TP over IPSec is used to carry user traffic and control traffic

B. PPTP is used to tunnel user traffic

C. The AP does not encrypt user traffic. The user\’s link layer encryption is used.

D. Remote AP traffic is unencrypted

E. Certificate based tunnel

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

When adding licenses in the startup wizard license screen a reboot is required:

A. After each license is installed

B. Before any other configuration can take place

C. Only if the Policy Enforcement Firewall license is installed

D. Once the last License is added

E. A reboot is not required until you have completed the configuration wizard

Correct Answer: E


Question 8:

WPA and WPA2 can use the following authentication methods: (Select two)

A. WEP Keys

B. PSK

C. 802.1X

D. Captive Portal

E. IPSEC

Correct Answer: BC


Question 9:

An Aruba AP 125 is capable of supporting which of the following network types? (Select three)

A. 802.11b

B. 802.11n

C. 802.11a

D. 802.11w

E. 802.11p

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 10:

What does SET ORIENTATION option do in the Visual RF Plan edit tool?

A. Set the horizontal plane on each floor

B. Give the option to resize a floor

C. Sets the North/South orientation of the building

D. Sets the proper vertical floor plan alignment

E. Allows the planner to set the directional antenna orientation

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which of these is NOT a valid license type? (Select two)

A. RFprotect

B. Application Security

C. Base AOS

D. PEF NG

E. Content Security

Correct Answer: BC


Question 12:

In a Campus AP deployment, an access point has been provisioned statically with an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and Controller IP address. Control Plane Security has been disabled. Both the Controller and the Access Point are using 6.1 firmware. If a 3rd party firewall is placed in between the AP and controller, what traffic would need to be allowed for the AP to boot successfully and broadcast Wireless Networks? (Select two)

A. DHCP

B. PAPI

C. GRE

D. SNMP

E. NTP

Correct Answer: BC


Question 13:

Web based captive portal can be authenticated by the following types of databases: (Select two)

A. Internal

B. PEAP

C. RADIUS

D. Kerberos

E. Tacacs

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

What is the IP address of the controller when using the startup wizard?

A. 192.168.1.1

B. 172.16.0.1

C. 10.1.1.1

D. 172.16.0.254

E. 10.1.10.100

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

When local controller is selected as the controller\’s operation mode in the startup wizard, which is no longer configurable?

A. Licenses

B. WLANs

C. VLANs and IP addressing

D. Controller country code

E. Time zone

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular project. In the data warehouse, a table named Sales Persons and Territories defines a relationship between a salesperson\’s name, logon ID, and assigned sales territory.

You need to ensure that each salesperson has access to data from only the sales territory assigned to that salesperson. You need to use the least amount of development effort to achieve this goal.

What should you do? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. Create a new role named Sales Persons with Read permission. Add each salesperson\’s logon as a member to the role.

B. Add the Sales Persons and Territories table to the model, define the relationships, and then implement dynamic security by using row filters. Grant each salesperson access to the model.

C. Create a new Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) security group and add each salesperson as a member. Then create a new role named Sales Persons with Read permission. Add the group as a member to the new role.

D. Create a separate tabular model for each sales territory and assign each tabular model a corresponding sales territory name. Grant each salesperson access to the corresponding tabular model of the assigned sales territory.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

You are designing a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report for a bank. The bank has Automated Teller Machines (ATMs) in several regions. ATM operational data is stored in a Microsoft Azure SQL Database database. The report must use a map to display the location and status of the ATMs as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to ensure that the report displays only a user selected map region. Which source of spatial data should you use for the map?

A. SQL Server spatial query

B. Map gallery

C. ESRI shape file

D. Bing Maps layer

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

You are designing a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report.

The report defines a single SQL Server data source and dataset.

You need to include additional data sourced from a Microsoft Azure SQL Database in the report.

What should you do?

A. Create a SQL Server data source and then add a dataset that uses the new data source.

B. Create a Microsoft Azure SQL Database data source and then add a dataset that uses the new data source.

C. Generate an Atom-compliant data feed for the report.

D. Create a Microsoft Azure SQL Database dataset that uses the existing data source.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) multidimensional project.

A fact table is related to a dimension table named DimScenario by a column named ScenarioKey.

The dimension table contains three rows for the following scenarios:

Actual

Budget Q1

Budget Q3

You need to create a dimension to allow users to view and compare data by scenario.

What should you do?

A.

Use role playing dimensions.

B.

Use the Business Intelligence Wizard to define dimension intelligence.

C.

Add a measure that uses the Count aggregate function to an existing measure group.

D.

Add a measure that uses the DistinctCount aggregate function to an existing measure group.

E.

Add a measure group that has one measure that uses the DistinctCount aggregate function.

F.

Add a calculated measure based on an expression that counts members filtered by the Exists and NonEmpty functions.

G.

Add a hidden measure that uses the Sum aggregate function. Add a calculated measure aggregating the measure along the time dimension.

H.

Create several dimensions. Add each dimension to the cube.

I.

Create a dimension. Then add a cube dimension and link it several times to the measure group.

J.

Create a dimension. Create regular relationships between the cube dimension and the measure group. Configure the relationships to use different dimension attributes.

K.

Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the IsAggregatable property to False and then set the DefaultMember property. Use a regular relationship between the dimension and measure group.

L.

Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the IsAggregatable property to False and then set the DefaultMember property. Use a many-to-many relationship to link the dimension to the measure group.

M.

Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the IsAggregatable property to False and then set the DefaultMember property. Use a many-to-many relationship to link the dimension to the measure group.

N.

Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the ValueColumn property, set the IsAggregatable property to False, and then set the DefaultMember property. Configure the cube dimension so that it does not have a relationship with the measure group. Add a calculated measure that uses the MemberValue attribute property.

O.

Create a new named calculation in the data source view to calculate a rolling sum. Add a measure that uses the Max aggregate function based on the named calculation.

Correct Answer: K


Question 5:

You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) cube for the sales department at your company.

The sales department requires the following set of metrics: Unique count of customers

Unique count of products sold

Sum of sales You need to ensure that the cube meets the requirements while optimizing query response time.

What should you do? (Each answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)

A. Place the measures in a single measure group.

B. Place the distinct count measures in separate measure groups.

C. Use the additive measure group functions.

D. Use the semiadditive measure group functions.

E. Use the Count and Sum measure aggregation functions.

F. Use the Distinct Count and Sum measure aggregation functions.

Correct Answer: BF


Question 6:

You are developing a BI Semantic Model (BISM) based on a simple and small dataset sourced from SQL Server. The data size and complexity of the data relationships will not change. The model will be used to produce reports in Power

View.

You need to use an appropriate project type.

Which project types should you use? (Each answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)

A. A tabular project that uses the In-Memory query mode

B. A tabular project that uses the DirectQuery query mode

C. A multidimensional project that uses the MOLAP storage mode

D. A PowerPivot workbook that is deployed to Microsoft SharePoint Server 2010

E. A multidimensional project that uses the ROLAP storage mode

Correct Answer: ABD

Power View is a thin web client that launches right in the browser from a data model in SharePoint Server 2010. The model can be a PowerPivot model workbook or a tabular model running on a SQL Server 2012 Analysis Services (SSAS) server.


Question 7:

You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) cube. The cube contains several dimensions, a local measure group, and a linked measure group.

Both measure groups use MOLAP partitions.

You need to write-enable one of the linked measure group partitions to support Microsoft Excel 2010 PivotTable What-If Analysis.

What should you do before the partition can be write-enabled?

A. Set the Type property of the partition\’s measure group to Forecast.

B. Implement the linked measure group as a local measure group.

C. Implement the local measure group as a linked measure group.

D. Set the StorageMode property of the linked measure group to Rolap.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You are developing a BI Semantic Model (BISM) that retrieves data from several sources including a Microsoft Azure SQL Database database and an OData data feed. The model will be deployed to a server with significantly more memory

than the total size of the source data.

You have the data feed URL, which you will use when developing the model in SQL Server Data Tools (SSDT).

The model must meet the following requirements:

Maximize performance

Data latency of up to one month is acceptable

You need to choose a project type and a data access mode to meet the requirements.

What should you do?

A.

Select the multidimensional project type and use the ROLAP storage mode.

B.

Select the tabular project type and use the In-Memory query mode.

C.

Select the tabular project type and use the DirectQuery query mode.

D.

Select the multidimensional project type and use the MOLAP storage mode.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

You are modifying a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) cube.

The cube consists of a single measure group that contains the following measures:

Total Quantity On Hand

Average Quantity On Hand

The measure group has a single partition that uses the MOLAP storage mode.

You need to modify the cube design to ensure that the Total Quantity On Hand measure is updated in real-time and that Average Quantity On Hand measure is updated hourly.

What should you do?

A.

Create a new measure group for the Total Quantity On Hand measure. Configure the storage mode for the new measure group\’s partition to ROLAP.

B.

Create a drillthrough action that will query the underlying data source in real time for the Total Quantity On Hand measure.

C.

Change the storage mode of the partition to ROLAP.

D.

Add an additional MOLAP partition to the measure group.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You are conducting a design review of a multidimensional project.

In the Customer Geography dimension, all non-key attributes relate directly to the key attribute.

The underlying data of the Customer Geography dimension supports relationships between attributes.

You need to increase query and dimension processing performance.

What should you do?

A. For the dimension attributes of the Customer Geography dimension, define appropriate attribute relationships.

B. For the dimension attributes of the Customer Geography dimension, set the GroupingBehavior property to EncourageGrouping.

C. For the Customer Geography dimension, set the Processing Mode property to LazyAggregations.

D. For the Customer Geography dimension, set the ProcessingPriority property to 1.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular project. A model defines a measure named Revenue and includes a table named Date. The table includes year, semester, quarter, month, and date columns. The Date

column is of data type Date. The table contains a set of contiguous dates.

You need to create a measure to report on year-over-year growth of revenue.

What should you do? (Each answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)

A. B. C. D.

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 12:

You are developing a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report. The report includes a dataset with fields named Year, MonthNumber, and RegCount. The report includes a table that displays the number of recorded registration occurrences per year, as shown in the following table.

You need to modify the table to include a graphical item displaying the monthly registration trend to the right of the Reg Count column. What should you do?

A. Add an Indicator item to a new column on the right of the Reg Count column. Select the Directional Indicator Type and then assign the MonthNumber field to the Start property.

B. Add an Indicator item to a new column on the right of the Reg Count column. Select the Directional Indicator Type and then select the MonthNumber field for Value.

C. Add a Sparkline item to a new column on the right of the Reg Count column. Then select the RegCount field for Values and the MonthNumber field for Series Groups.

D. Add a text box to a new column on the right of the Reg Count column. Then use a Go to report action to link to a separate report showing the monthly trend.

E. Add a Sparkline item to a new column on the right of the Reg Count column. Then select the RegCount field for Values and the MonthNumber field for Category Groups.

Correct Answer: E


Question 13:

You are designing a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report based on a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSASJ cube.

The cube contains a Key Performance Indicator (KPI) to show if a salesperson\’s sales are off target slightly off target, or on target.

You need to add a report item that visually displays the KPI status value as a red, yellow, or green circle.

Which report item should you add?

A. Linear Gauge

B. Indicator

C. Data Bar

D. Radial Gauge

E. Sparkline

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

You need to ensure that all reports meet the reporting requirements.

What is the best way to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A. Create a report part. Publish the report part to a server that has SSRS installed. Add the report part to each new report that is created.

B. Create a report part. Publish the report part to a SharePoint site. Add the report part to each new report that is created.

C. Create a report. Copy the report to source code control. Create each new report by using the report template in source code control.

D. Create a report. Copy the report to the PrivateAssemblies\ProjectItems\ReportProject folder in the Visual Studio directory. Create each new report by using the locally stored report.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

After you deploy the RegionalSales report, users report that they cannot see product data when they receive the reports by email.

You need to ensure that the sales department managers can see all of the data.

In the report, you update the Hidden property of each group.

What should you do next?

A. When the report is initially run, select Show or hide based on an expression. Set the expression to = (Globals!RenderFormat.IsInteractive)

B. When the report is initially run, select Show.

C. When the report is initially run, select Show or hide based on an expression. Set the expression to =NOT (Globals!RenderFormat.IsInteractive).

D. When the report is initially run, select Hide.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

A new test to diagnose a disease is evaluated on 1152 people, and 106 people have the disease, and 1046 people do not have the disease. The test results are summarized below:

In this sample, how many cases are false positives and false negatives?

A. 33 false positives and 81 false negatives

B. 81 false positives and 73 false negatives

C. 73 false positives and 81 false negatives

D. 81 false positives and 33 false negatives

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

With the help of AI algorithms, which type of analytics can help organizations make decisions based on facts and probability-weighted projections?

A. prescriptive analytics

B. cognitive analytics

C. predictive analytics

D. descriptive analytics

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/p/prescriptive-analytics.asp


Question 3:

What is the technique called for vectorizing text data which matches the words in different sentences to determine if the sentences are similar?

A. Cup of Vectors

B. Box of Lexicon

C. Sack of Sentences

D. Bag of Words

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://medium.com/@adriensieg/text-similarities-da019229c894


Question 4:

Which statement is true in the context of evaluating metrics for machine learning algorithms?

A. A random classifier has AUC (the area under ROC curve) of 0.5

B. Using only one evaluation metric is sufficient

C. The F-score is always equal to precision

D. Recall of 1 (100%) is always a good result

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

When should median value be used instead of mean value for imputing missing data?

A. for skewed data

B. for real numbers

C. for normally distributed data

D. for large data sets

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Given the following matrix multiplication:

What is the value of P?

A. ?

B. 17

C. 12

D. ?

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.mathsisfun.com/algebra/matrix-multiplying.html


Question 7:

A neural network is composed of a first affine transformation (affine1) followed by a ReLU non-linearity, followed by a second affine transformation (affine2). Which two explicit functions are implemented by this neural network? (Choose two.)

A. y = affine1(ReLU(affine2(x)))

B. y = max(affine1(x), affine2(x))

C. y = affine2(ReLU(affine1(x)))

D. y = affine2(max(affine1(x), 0))

E. y = ReLU(affine1(x), affine2(x))

Correct Answer: CD


Question 8:

The formula for recall is given by (True Positives) / (True Positives False Negatives).

What is the recall for this example?

A. 0.2

B. 0.25

C. 0.5

D. 0.33

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://machinelearningmastery.com/precision-recall-and-f-measure-for-imbalanced- classification/


Question 9:

After importing a Jupyter notebook and CSV data file into IBM Watson Studio in the IBM Public Cloud project, it is discovered that the notebook code can no longer access the CSV file. What is the most likely reason for this problem?

A. CSV files cannot be used as data sources in Watson Studio.

B. The CSV file was converted to a binary blob and must be converted in the notebook code.

C. The CSV file is stored in a Cloud Object Storage.

D. The CSV file is stored in a Watson Machine Learning instance and is only accessible via REST API.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://github.com/IBM/watson-stock-market-predictor/blob/master/README.md


Question 10:

Determine the number of bigrams and trigrams in the sentence. “Data is the new oil”.

A. 3 bigrams, 3 trigrams

B. 4 bigrams, 4 trigrams

C. 3 bigrams, 4 trigrams

D. 4 bigrams, 3 trigrams

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which is a technique that automates the handling of categorical variables?

A. binary encoding

B. decoding

C. autoencoding

D. one-hot encoding

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://hub.packtpub.com/how-to-handle-categorical-data-for-machine-learning-algorithms/


Question 12:

Which two statements are correct about deploying machine learning models? (Choose two.)

A. It allows integration within business applications.

B. It makes it possible to create reports for management dynamically using specific parameters from executives.

C. It is critical for achieving high accuracy in training.

D. It is a necessary step in training and evaluating the performance of the models.

E. It is only possible on the cloud because they require a large amount of compute resources.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 13:

Which of the following entity extraction techniques would be best for the extraction of telephone numbers from a text document?

A. complex pattern-based

B. regex

C. statistical

D. dictionary

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.researchgate.net/ publication/318093829_Developing_an_innovative_entity_extraction_method_for_unstructured_data


Question 14:

What statement is true about UTF-8?

A. It is encoding for Latin script.

B. It is rarely used today.

C. It is encoding for Unicode characters.

D. It is equal to ASCII.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.w3.org/International/questions/qa-what-is-encoding


Question 15:

Which test is applied to determine the relationship between two categorical variables?

A. paired t-test

B. chi squared test

C. z test

D. t-test

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.pluralsight.com/guides/testing-for-relationships-between-categorical-variables- using-the-chi-square-test


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Question 1:

When a multinational firm decides to sell its products abroad, one of the risks the firm faces is that the government of the foreign market charges the firm with dumping. Dumping occurs when

A. The same product sells at different prices in different countries.

B. A firm charges less than the cost to make the product so as to enter or win a market.

C. Lower quality versions of the product are sold abroad so as to be affordable.

D. Transfer prices are set artificially high so as to minimize tax payments.

Correct Answer: B

Dumping is an unfair trade practice that violates international agreements. It occurs when a firmcharges a price (1) lower than that in its home market or (2) less than the cost to make the product. Dumping may be done to penetrate a market or as a result of export subsidies.


Question 2:

A global firm

A. Has achieved economies of scale in the firm\’s domestic market.

B. Plans, operates, and coordinates business globally.

C. Relies on indirect export.

D. Tends to rely more on one product market.

Correct Answer: B

According to Kotler, “Global firms plan, operate, and coordinate their activities on a worldwide basis.” Thus, a global firm secures cost or product differentiation advantages not available to domestic firms.


Question 3:

A firm expands into international markets to

A. Be in foreign markets.

B. Eliminate foreign competition

C. Pursue new, higher-profit opportunities.

D. Preclude piracy of the firm\’s products.

Correct Answer: C

A firm may decide to go abroad for many reasons, for example, to respond to a competitive challenge in its home country by another global firm, to pursue opportunities yielding greater profits, to achieve economies of scale, to diversify, or to follow customers who need international service.


Question 4:

A firm wishing to become global must consider how many national markets to enter. A firm should enter fewer national markets when

A. Communication adaptation costs are low.

B. The product need not be adapted.

C. Entry costs are low.

D. The first countries chosen are heavily populated and have high incomes.

Correct Answer: D

According to Ayal and Zif, the following are factors indicating that few national markets should be entered:

(1)

entry costs are high;

(2)

market control costs are high;

(3)

product adaptation costs are high;

(4)

communication adaptation costs are high;

(5)

the first countries selected have large populations, high incomes, and high income growth;

(6)

a dominant firm can erect high entry barriers.


Question 5:

An advantage of a direct investment strategy when entering a foreign market is

A. Reduction in the capital at risk.

B. Shared control and responsibility.

C. Assurance of access when the foreign country imposes domestic content rules.

D. Avoidance of interaction with the local bureaucracy.

Correct Answer: C

Direct investment has many advantages:

(1)

cheaper materials or labor,

(2)

receipt of investment incentives from the host government, (3) a strong relationship with interested parties in the host country, (4) control of the investment,

(5)

a better image in the host country,

(6)

market access when domestic contest rules are in effect. However, direct investment is risky because of exposure to currency fluctuations, expropriation, potentially high exit barriers, and restraints on sending profits out of the country.


Question 6:

A firm that moves from not exporting on a regular basis to establishing plants in foreign countries has

A. Globalized.

B. Nationalized.

C. Glocalized.

D. Internationalized.

Correct Answer: D

The internationalization process is of crucial interest to nations that wish to encourage local firms to grow and to operate globally. According to Swedish researchers, it involves the following steps:

(1)

Lack of regular exports;

(2)

export via independent agents with a few markets, with later expansion to more countries;

(3)

creation of sales subsidiaries in larger markets; (4) establishment of plants in foreign countries.


Question 7:

Which strategy for a global marketing organization is based on a portfolio of national markets?

A. reaction of a division to manage international marketing.

B. A multinational strategy.

C. A global strategy.

D. Creation of an export department

Correct Answer: B

International marketing efforts take three basic forms:creation of an export department, creation of a division to manage international marketing, or global organization. The latter encompasses genuinely worldwide functions, e.g., manufacturing, marketing, finance, and logistics. Thus, worldwide operations are the organization\’s focus, not merely that of a department or division of a national firm. A global organization may follow a multinational, global, or glocal strategy. A multinational strategy adopts a portfolio approach. Its emphasis is on national markets because the need for global integration is not strong. The product is customized for each market and therefore incurs higher production costs. Decision making is primarily local with a minimum of central control. This strategy is most effective given large differences between countries. Also, exchange rate risk is reduced when conducting business in this manner.


Question 8:

The creation of regional free trade zones is a global phenomenon. Trade barriers are lowered in these areas, and other steps are taken to promote economic cooperation. For example, a common currency has been adopted by the nations of:

A. NAFTA.

B. Mercosul.

C. APEC.

D. The European Union.

Correct Answer: D

The European Union (Eli) is a collection of 27 European nations that have lowered trade barriers among member states, and most of the nations share a common currency and trade policy. The euro is the common currency of the European Union.


Question 9:

The three major factors favoring globalization are

A. Cultural, commercial, and technical.

B. Flexibility, proximity, and adaptability.

C. Political, technological, and social.

D. Ambition, positioning, and organization.

Correct Answer: C

The new economy is driven by the digital revolution that facilitates international commerce by providing capabilities that did not exist a relatively few years ago. It is also driven by such political events as the fall of the Soviet Union, the participation of China in the world economic system, the emergence of the European Union, and the creation of other regional free trade zones. These technological and political factors are intertwined with social changes, for example, greater concern for the rights of women and minorities; the advance of multilingualism; and the convergence of tastes in fashion, music, and certain other cultural factors. Accordingly, these factors favor globalization by reducing trade barriers, reducing cost of coordination, increasing economies of scale, and encouraging standardization and global branding.


Question 10:

Which method of expanding into international markets is most likely the riskiest?

A. A local storage and sale arrangement.

B. Local component assembly.

C. Direct investment.

D. Joint venture.

Correct Answer: C

Direct investment has many advantages:

(1)

cheaper materials or labor,

(2)

receipt of investment incentives from the host government, (3) a strong relationship with interested parties in the host country, (4) control of the investment,

(5)

a better image in the host country,

(6)

market access when domestic contest rules are in effect. However, direct investment is risky because of exposure to currency fluctuations, expropriation, potentially high exit barriers, and restraints on sending profits out of the country.


Question 11:

Which strategy for a global marketing organization emphasizes relatively strong central control?

A. Global.

B. Multinational.

C. Creation of an international division.

D. Global

Correct Answer: A

A global strategy regards the world as one market. The product is essentially the same in all countries. Central control of the production process is relatively strong. Faster product development and lower production cost are typical.


Question 12:

Which of the following is a regional free-trade zone currently limited to South American nations?

A. APEC

B. Mercosul.

C. The Triad Market.

D. NAFTA.

Correct Answer: B

Mercosul is a free-trade agreement among South American nations. They include Argentina, Brazil, Uruguay, and Paraguay. Chile and Bolivia are associate members.


Question 13:

A country has a comparative advantage in international trade when

A. Firms in the country have a lower cost of production because of natural resources.

B. It has an absolute advantage with respect to at least one input to production.

C. Firms in the country have a lower cost of production because of transportation and other geographic factors.

D. It produces whatever it can produce most efficiently.

Correct Answer: D

A country has a comparative advantage when it can achieve a lower cost of production due to a focus on and a cooperative specialization in a particular product. The greatest advantage from trade is obtained when each nation specializes in producing what it can produce most efficiently. If nations specialize and then exchange with others, more is produced and consumed than if each nation tries to be self-sufficient. Specialization of labor is beneficial for individuals; the same principle applies to nations.


Question 14:

Michael E Porter developed what is popularly known as the diamond model for determining national advantages in the global business environment. According to this model.

A. Factor conditions are production advantages that are nature-made or inherited.

B. Foreign markets exert less influence than home markets on a firm\’s ability to detect demand trends.

C. Reliance on related and supporting industries in the home country weakens a firm\’s international competitiveness.

D. Cooperation with domestic competitors clearly aids international competitiveness.

Correct Answer: B

Home demand conditions determine the inherent demand for goods or services that originate within the home country. Porter believes that home markets exert a much higher influence on a firm\’s ability to recognize consumer trends than those in a foreign market. Moreover, home demand offsets innovation and product development. Home demand is a function of

(1)

the mixture of customer needs and wants,

(2)

their scope and growth rate,

(3)

the means by which domestic preferences are communicated to international markets. Moreover, a national advantage is achieved when home demand provides more timely and clear trend indicators to domestic firms than to foreign firms.


Question 15:

U.S

firm most likely may decide to enter the Australian market because of

A.

Geography.

B.

The unmet needs of an undeveloped country.

C.

Psychic proximity.

D.

Population.

Correct Answer: C

Attractiveness of a foreign market is a function of such factors as geography, income, climate, population, and the product. Another major factor is the unmet needs of a developing nation, for example, China or India. Entry into a market abroad may be based on many factors, for example, psychic proximity. Thus, a first-time venture abroad might be in a market with a related culture, language, or laws.


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Question 1:

In CSS, the flow-into property deposits:

A. the flow into the content.

B. the regions into a flow.

C. the flow into the regions.

D. content into the flow.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

You create an interface for a touch-enabled application. During testing you discover that some touches trigger multiple input areas. Which situation will cause this problem?

A. The touch screen is not calibrated.

B. The input areas are too close together.

C. The defined input areas are too small.

D. The input areas are semi-transparent.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which two code fragments represent ways to use HTML5 to save values to session storage? (Choose two.)

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

When you are testing a touch interface, which two gestures can you simulate by using a mouse? (Choose two.)

A. tap

B. pinch

C. flick

D. rotate

Correct Answer: AD


Question 5:

What does the following HTML5 code fragment do?

A. It plays the myVacation.avi video if the browser supports it; otherwise, plays the myVacation.ogg video if the browser supports it.

B. It plays two videos: first myVacation.avi, and then myVacation.ogg.

C. It plays both videos simultaneously, myVacation.avi and myVacation.ogg.

D. It prompts the user to choose which format of the myVacation video it should play, .avi or .ogg.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which are two features of SVG? (Choose two.)

A. uses high performance pixel-based graphics

B. can be modified by using CSS

C. uses high performance raster-based graphics

D. can be modified by using JavaScript

Correct Answer: CD


Question 7:

Which two semantic tags are used to define layouts in HTML5? (Choose two.)

A.

B.

C. <progress:

D.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing a CSS property that specifies whether the object allows floating objects on its left side, right side, or both, so that the next text displays past the floating

objects.

Which of the following is the property being discussed?

A. The z-index property.

B. The vertical-align property.

C. The position property.

D. The clear property.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

You work as a developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of HTML and CSS3 in their development process.

You have been instructed to create a new layout. You should achieve this by making use of only one CSS3 region.

Which of the following actions should you take?

A. You should consider creating a table layout.

B. You should consider creating a grid layout.

C. You should consider creating a flex box layout.

D. You should consider creating a ListView layout.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing CSS style sheets.

Which of the following is TRUE with regards to CSS style sheets? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It specifies resources for an offline HTML5 application.

B. It specifies resources for an online HTML5 application.

C. It specifies resources for an XML application.

D. It specifies resources for an offline XAML application.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of HTML5 and CSS3 in their development process.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing an object of the Web Storage specification that is designed for scenarios where the user is carrying out a single transaction.

Which of the following is the object being discussed?

A. foreignStorage

B. externalStorage

C. localStorage

D. sessionStorage

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of HTML5 and CSS3 in their development process.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing Scalable Vector Graphics (SVG). You have reached the section that deals with presentation elements and their corresponding attributes and DOM

interfaces.

Which of the following is included in this section?

A. Barriers.

B. One dimensional graphics.

C. Basic shapes.

D. Code

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing an HTML5 input attribute that provides a way to set a regular expression that the value must match.

Which of the following is the input attribute being discussed?

A. The multiple HTML5 input attribute.

B. The pattern HTML5 input attribute.

C. The placeholder HTML5 input attribute.

D. The draft HTML5 input attribute.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing an HTML5 attribute that identifies the cursor position when accessing a form initially.

Which of the following is the attribute being discussed?

A. The autofocus attribute.

B. The focusOffset attribute.

C. The focusNode attribute.

D. The autocomplete attribute.

E. The hideFocus attribute.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of HTML5 and CSS3 in their development process. You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing an object of the Web Storage specification that is designed to store data without any expiration date. Which of the following is the object being discussed?

A. The foreignStorage object.

B. The externalStorage object.

C. The localStorage object.

D. The sessionStorage object.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which is a term under ASC 606 or IFRS 15?

A. transaction price

B. promise detail

C. initial performance event

D. requires complete

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cloud.oracle.com/_downloads/Datasheet_Financials_3_RevenueMgmt/Revenue_M anagement_Datasheet.pdf


Question 2:

A corporation uses a pricing policy that considers deal size to calculate price per unit for its products. For example:

Which Price Band Segment Label would be appropriate to use in this case?

A. Amount Band

B. Deal Size Band

C. Set Band

D. Quantity Band

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which statement Is True regarding the Customer Contract Source Data Import Template?

A. It is a predefined Excel FBDI template.

B. It is a predefined Java FBDI template.

C. It Is a predefined HTML FBDI template.

D. It is a custom template that you are required to build.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andcad=rjaanduact=8andv ed=2ahUKEwjQrM7ImKzdAhUHxYUKHbYLBpAQFjAAegQIBBACandurl=http://w ww.oracle.com /webfolder/technetwork/docs% 2Ffbdi- r11/fbdi/xlsm% 2FRevenueDataImportTemplate.xlsmandusg=AOvVaw2kKXNI1OQEF 9K6p7rBAEwz


Question 4:

Which method is used to allocate total transaction price across performance obligations in Revenue Management?

A. Inverted Allocation Method

B. Residual Allocation Method

C. Relative Allocation Method

D. Two Step Allocation Method

E. Alternative Allocation Method

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What is a Standalone Selling Price (SSP)?

A. the average of your bundled price

B. the sum of the SSPs of the components

C. the list price

D. the price you would use if you sold to a customer separately

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Given your organization\’s Interactions with one of Its customers:

1.

A consultant is deployed to assist customer on 10-Sep-2017.

2.

A Sales order is booked on 14-Sep-2017.

3.

The Product is shipped on 15-Sep-2017.

4.

An Invoice is issued on 20-Sep-2017.

When do you accrue the contract liability?

A. when the consultant is deployed to assist customer on 10-Sep-2017

B. when the product is shipped on 15-Sep-2017

C. when the sales order Is booked on 14-Sep-2017

D. when an invoice is issued on 20-Sep-2017

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

What should E-Business Suite General Ledger and Oracle Cloud General Ledger do as part of the transition to the new standard strategy under ASC 606 and IFRS 15?

A. Create a reporting ledger.

B. Create a new primary ledger.

C. Create a secondary ledger.

D. Using their existing primary ledger.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

After defining a pricing dimension structure for a customer, you must define a pricing dimension structure instance.

Which two attributes on the structure instance are inherited from the structure definition?

A. whether Dynamic Combination Creation Allowed is enabled

B. the shape: Same number of segments and order

C. the Displayed option

D. the value sets

E. the Query Required option

Correct Answer: AB


Question 9:

Which is the following is NOT a feature of personalization

A. Selecting default language

B. Changing text font

C. Saving searches

D. Configuring table columns

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which three tasks can be performed In the Revenue Management Work Area?

A. Edit Contract Identification Rules.

B. Review Observed Standalone Selling Prices.

C. Manage contracts in “Pending Review” status.

D. Manage contracts in “Pending Allocation” status.

E. Review Performance Satisfaction Plans.

F. Review Revenue Price Profiles.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 11:

Which three tasks are associated with defining a Pricing Dimension Structure?

A. Define up to 30 segments and name them.

B. Define up to 20 segments and name them.

C. Analyze pricing policies across products and services.

D. Create multiple instances for a given Pricing Dimension Structure.

E. Include user friendly prompts for each segment.

F. Assign required segment labels to each segment.

Correct Answer: ACF

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/financialscs_gs/FAIRP/FAIRP2288193.htm#FAIRP20 10696


Question 12:

The contract Promised Details tabs includes Selling Amount, Allocated Amount, Revenue Recognized, and Bill…….

What is the difference between Selling Amount and Allocated Amount?

A. The Selling Amount is calculated based on Standalone Selling Prices and is used for the Revenue Recognition amount. The Allocated Amount is based on the source document sales lines amounts and is ultimately used to tie back to your source document upload.

B. The Selling Amount is calculated based on the source document sales lines amounts and is used to tie back to your source document upload. The Allocated Amount is based on Standalone Selling Price and is ultimately used for the Revenue Recognition amount.

C. The Selling Amount is calculated based on Standalone Selling Prices and is used to tie back to your SSP upload or calculation. The Allocated Amount is based on the Billed amount and is ultimately used for the Revenue Recognition amount.

D. The Selling Amount is calculated based on the source document sales lines amount and is used for the Revenue Recognition amount. The Allocated Amount is based on the Billed Amount and Is used to tie back to your Billing source document upload.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What is the correct match sequence of the descriptions A, B and C against the titles?

A. B, C, A

B. A, C, B

C. C, B, A

D. C, A, B

E. A, B, C

F. B, A, C

Correct Answer: F


Question 14:

The Contracts Requiring Attention user Interface has three tabs: Pending Review, Pending Allocation, and Pending Revenue Recognition.

What would cause a contract to be In the Pending Review tab?

A. The total Transaction Price is over the user-defined threshold amount.

B. The contract is missing standalone selling prices at the promised detail level or at obligation level.

C. The contract is missing satisfaction events.

D. The contract is missing Billing data.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Accounting contracts with a total transaction price that is greater than the user-defined

threshold amount you defined in your system options. Contracts in this list are significant value contracts.

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/financialscs_gs/FAOFC/FAOFC2288367.htm#FAOF C2288367


Question 15:

You have defined 3 Contract Identification rules: Rule A, Rule B, and Rule C. You then decide that Rule C needs to be the first rule executed when the “Identify Customer Contracts” process runs.

Which attribute needs to be updated to achieve this objective?

A. Freeze Period

B. Default Classification

C. Source Document Type

D. Priority

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Universal Containers\’ (UC) innovative apps division is releasing an application which can be installed in their trading partners\’ Salesforce environments. The application allows the trading partners to book containers from UC directly without leaving their own Salesforce environment. The partners can then build on top of the application with process builders and triggers so the container booking process can be integrated with the trading partners\’ own processes.

What is the recommended mechanism for releasing the application?

A. Change Sets

B. Managed Package

C. Unmanaged Package

D. Zip file deployable by Force.com Migration Tool

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Universal Containers (UC) is preparing for the new Salesforce release in a couple of months, and has several ongoing development projects that may be affected.

Which three steps should the team at UC take to prepare for this release? (Choose three.)

A. Upgrade any SOAP integrations to the newest WSDL as early as possible.

B. Contact Salesforce to schedule a time to upgrade the Full sandbox.

C. Review the release notes for automatically-enabled features and technical debt.

D. Refresh a Sandbox during the Release Preview Window to ensure they have the upcoming release.

E. Run regression tests in an upgraded sandbox to detect any issues with the upgrade.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 3:

Universal Containers (UC) has a huge volume of metadata that cannot be deployed at once.

What is the recommended strategy for UC to be successful with the deployment?

A. Sort and group the metadata alphabetically and deploy them in the same order.

B. Use a combination of the Ant migration tool and change sets for deployment.

C. Identify metadata dependencies, create logical groupings, and deploy in the right order.

D. Use a continuous integration tool such as Jenkins to deploy the metadata.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Universal Containers is planning to release simple configuration changes and enhancements to their Sales Cloud. A Technical Architect recommended using change sets.

Which two advantages would change sets provide in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. The ability to deploy a very large number of components easily.

B. An easy way to deploy related components.

C. A simple and declarative method for deployment.

D. The ability to track changes to components.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

Universal Containers (UC) is about to begin development work on a new project in their Salesforce org that will take many months to complete. UC is concerned about how critical bugs will be addressed for existing live functionality.

What is the recommended release management strategy to address this concern?

A. Include fixes for critical bugs in the ongoing Development sandboxes so that they will be released with the other code.

B. Keep teams separate until the end of the project and create a Full Copy sandbox to merge their work then.

C. Utilize a dedicated developer pro sandbox to address critical bugs and release to production.

D. Address critical bugs in the Development sandboxes and push those changes to production separately.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Universal Containers has multiple minor and major releases in a year. Minor releases have simple configuration changes, while major releases involve a large number of complex code components.

What deployment tools should an Architect recommend for both types of releases?

A. Force.com IDE for minor releases and metadata API for major releases.

B. Change sets for both minor releases and major releases.

C. Change sets for minor releases and Force.com IDE for major releases.

D. Change sets for minor releases and metadata API for major releases.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Universal Containers (UC) works with different partners and has few admin resources that take care of the day-to-day deployment tasks. As a result, UC would like to find a way to automate the deployments using Metadata API.

Which two limitations of Metadata API should be considered when using Metadata API-based deployments? (Choose two.)

A. Maximum size of deployed .zip file is 39 MB.

B. Deploy and retrieve up to 10,000 files at once.

C. Deploy up to 10,000 files, but retrieve more than 10,000 files.

D. Maximum size of deployed .zip file is 400 MB.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Universal Containers (UC) has received feedback from the field on several new feature requests that are aligned with key business goals. UC is looking for a way to quickly get feedback and prioritize these requests.

Which two options should an Architect recommend? (Choose two.)

A. Create design standards around the new features being requested.

B. Send the requests to IT for a formal review at the end of the year.

C. Bring the feature request to the Test Manager to gain quality checks.

D. Present the feature requests at a Center of Excellence meeting.

E. Create a backlog or priority list in a project management tool.

Correct Answer: DE


Question 9:

Universal Containers has multiple project teams building into a single org. The project teams are concerned with design conflicts and ensuring a common design process.

What should an Architect recommend to prevent this conflict?

A. Create a Center of Excellence Charter document.

B. Create a Release Management process.

C. Create Design Standards for Governance.

D. Create a backup system using Git Repositories.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Universal Containers (UC) is implementing Service Cloud for their contact centers for 3,000 users. They have approximately 10 customers. The average page response time expected is less than 5 seconds with 1,500 concurrent users.

What type of testing will help UC measure the page response time?

A. Unit Testing

B. System Integration Testing

C. Load Testing

D. Stress Testing

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Universal Containers (UC) is considering updating their Salesforce Release Management process.

Which three best practices should UC consider for version control? (Choose three.)

A. Automation is a must with various application branches in the repository.

B. Maintain a single entry point for production from the master branch.

C. Maintain unrestricted access to the release sandboxes for all changes being deployed.

D. Maintain separate developer branches for minor and major releases.

E. Maintain a single repository for applications with individual branches for projects.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 12:

Universal Containers has a stable continuous integration process and all stakeholders are happy. However, user testing takes a long time, as data has to be set up.

What should an Architect do to address this problem?

A. Train business users to create test data more efficiently.

B. Advise the project manager to assign more users to create test data.

C. Include automated sample data during deployment.

D. Test data creation is outside the scope of continuous integration.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which two project situations favor a waterfall methodology? (Choose two.)

A. An application with many systems and inter-dependencies between components.

B. An application with regulatory compliance requirements to be validated by outside agencies.

C. An in-house application with a fixed team size, but an open timeline and flexible requirements.

D. An application in post-production, with incremental changes made by a small team.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 14:

Universal Containers (UC) is using Sales and Service Cloud. They have two major releases and four minor releases every year. They have development (dev), integration, user acceptance (UAT), staging, and hotfix sandboxes.

A. Fix the issue in hotfix, test, and deploy to production.

B. Follow the release management process to move to production.

C. Fix the issue in staging and deploy it to production.

D. Fix the issue in development, test in UAT, and deploy to production.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Universal Containers\’ (UC) development team is using an Agile tool to track the status of build items, but only in terms of stages. UC is not able to track any effort estimates, log any hours worked, or keep track of remaining effort.

For what reason should UC reconsider using the Agile tool for effort tracking?

A. Allows the management team to make critical timeline commitments based solely on developer estimates.

B. Allows the organization to track the Developers\’ work hours for salary compensation purposes.

C. Allows the management team to manage the performance of bad developers who are slacking off.

D. Allows the Developer to compare their effort estimates and actuals to better adjust their future estimates.

Correct Answer: D