Year: 2022

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Question 1:

Given these two addLayer action calls:

How many trainable parameters for layer fc2?

A. 70

B. 1050

C. 1020

D. 1000

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which option is the correct activation (unction for the output layer in a CNN model trained to classify an image belonging to one of the n classes (CI. C2, C3, , Cn)?

A. Sigmoid

B. ReLU

C. TanH

D. Softmax

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

Exhibit A details the structure of a convolutional model Exhibit B provides details o( each layer in the model The blue arrowed lines represent connections between layers What is the depth of the residual layer depicted above\’?

A. 30

B. 60

C. 15

D. 45

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

CASL

Python

Review the code in the CASL and Python tabs The code sets are the same but in different languages. Given this code which statement correctly describes this recurrent neural network built by the code set1?

A. The RNN assigns a classification to each element in the sequence

B. The RNN predicts the next value in a sequence

C. The RNN assigns a classification to the entire sequence

D. The RNN predicts the previous value in a sequence

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Given the category rule:

Which document would be identified based on the text strings in the answer options?

A. The patient was diagnosed with Alzheimer\’s disease Side effects include decreased cognitive ability and memory issues

B. Side effects include decreased cognitive ability and memory issue

C. The patient was diagnosed with Alzheimers disease Side effects include decreased cognitive ability and memory issues

D. Alzheimer s side effects include decreased cognitive ability and memory issues

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which statement is TRUE concerning the “dropout” option?

A. It specifies the number of neurons to drop from each layer of the network

B. It specifies the percentage of neurons to drop from a given layer of the network

C. It specifies the percentage of neurons to drop from the entire network

D. It specifies the number of layers to drop from the entire network

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Refer to the Exhibit Tab:

An analyst is trying to find Aviation Safety Reports (ASR) related to taxiway and runway incursions

She does not know the LITI language She finds that 3 of the 14 derived topics have keywords related to incursion incidents. She would like to examine documents that discuss incursions from the current ASR document collection

Which strategy will best support the analyst\’s goals?

A. Use the Concepts node to define an INCURSION concept then include this concept in a category rule in the Categories node to identify documents having the INCURSION concept

B. Use the Merge topics feature of the Topics node to combine the 3 topics, add the merged topic as a category, and then use the Categories node to categorize documents with respect to the category rules derived using the merged topic Examine the matched documents for the incursion category rule.

C. Save the output data from the Topics results window and use the Explore and Visualize Data component of SAS Viya

D. Add each of the 3 individual topics as categories then create a category rule in the Categories node that combines the three topic categories using a Boolean OR operation Examine the matched documents fix the incursion category rule

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statements are TRUE? (Choose two)

A. More proper nouns terms than the pronouns terms are kept

B. There are 9 concepts in total

C. There are 2 custom concepts

D. Most preposition terms are kept

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

Which action set is needed to upload a picture into memory using SAS?

A. LoadActionSet

B. Image

C. DeepLearn

D. Table

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which concept rule must be used for generating factual extraction within a sentence containing machine learning and text analytics?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

What are two reasons to use a pooling layer in a Convolution Neural Network (CNN)? (Choose two)

A. to increase granularity of information

B. to make the feature map invariant to transformation

C. to extract features of different spatial scale

D. to extract a summarized value from an area of the image

Correct Answer: AC


Question 12:

Given the code to add a concatenation layer:

Assume the output dimensions (width*depth):

source layer A 100*100*5 source layer B 100*100*5 source layer C 100*100*3

What is the correct dimension of the output of this concatenation layer?

A. 100\’100\’13

B. 300\’300\’5

C. 100\’100\’18

D. 300\’300\’13

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Given the code:

How many trainable parameters do these lines add to the model

A. 25

B. 520

C. 250

D. 500

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Consider the CONCEPT rule:

CONCEPT:[email protected]

Which choice represents a possible result from this CONCEPT rule?

A. Redraw begins with the word red and then matches any set of alpha characters

B. Reds, a plural variant of the noun red

C. Redness a noun having red as a root word

D. Redder, a variant of the adjective red

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Assume no padding is used for the input.

What is the output feature map size created by the cross-correlation between a three color channel, 10*10 input and a 4″4 filter that has a stride of two?

Enter your numeric answers in the spaces above

A. 3*3

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You need to allow a consumer of a class to modify a private data member.

What should you do?

A. Assign a value directly to the data member.

B. Provide a private function that assigns a value to the data member.

C. Provide a public function that assigns a value to the data member.

D. Create global variables in the class.

Correct Answer: C

In this example (see below), the Employee class contains two private data members, name and salary. As private members, they cannot be accessed except by member methods. Public methods named GetName and Salary are added to

allow controlled access to the private members. The name member is accessed by way of a public method, and the salary member is accessed by way of a public read-only property.

Note: The private keyword is a member access modifier. Private access is the least permissive access level. Private members are accessible only within the body of the class or the struct in which they are declared

Example:

class Employee2

{

private string name = “FirstName, LastName”;

private double salary = 100.0;

public string GetName()

{

return name;

}

public double Salary

{

get { return salary; }

}

}


Question 2:

What are two methods that can be used to evaluate the condition of a loop at the start of each iteration? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two. )

A. If

B. Do. . . While

C. For

D. While

Correct Answer: CD

For and While constructs check at the start of each iteration.


Question 3:

Which language allows you to dynamically create content on the client side?

A. Extensible Markup Language (XML)

B. Cascading Style Sheets (CSS)

C. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)

D. JavaScript (JS)

Correct Answer: D

JavaScript (JS) is a dynamic computer programming language. It is most commonly used as part of web browsers, whose implementations allow client-side scripts to interact with the user, control the browser, communicate asynchronously, and alter the document content that is displayed.


Question 4:

You are creating an application for a help desk center. Calls must be handled in the same order in which they were received. Which data structure should you use?

A. Binary tree

B. Stack

C. Hashtable

D. Queue

Correct Answer: D

A queue keeps the order of the items.


Question 5:

You need to debug a Windows Service application by using breakpoints. What should you do?

A. Write all events to an event log.

B. Set the Windows Service status to Paused.

C. Implement the Console.WriteLine method throughout the Windows Service.

D. Use the Attach to Process menu in Microsoft Visual Studio.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

The throw keyword is used to perform which two actions? (Choose two.)

A. stop processing of the code

B. move error handling to a separate thread

C. raise exceptions

D. re-throw exceptions as a different type

Correct Answer: AB


Question 7:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

Unit testing is the final set of tests that must be completed before a feature or product can be considered finished.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\’\’ if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed

B. User acceptance

C. System

D. Integration

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You have a class with a property.

You need to ensure that consumers of the class can write to the value of the property.

Which keyword should you use?

A. value

B. add

C. get

D. set

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

You are reviewing a design for a database. A portion of this design is shown in the exhibit. Note that you may choose to view either the Crow\’s Foot Notation or Chen Notation version of the design. (To view the Crow\’s Foot Notation, click the Exhibit A button. To view the Chen Notation, click the Exhibit B button.)

Which term is used to describe the relationship between Customer and Order?

A. many-to-many

B. one-to-many

C. one-dimensional

D. one-to-one

E. multi-dimensional

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

You have a Microsoft ASP.NET web application.

You need to store a value that can be shared across users on the server.

Which type of state management should you use?

A. Session

B. ViewState

C. Application

D. Cookies

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You plan to create an application for your company. The application will run automated routines and write the results to a text-based log file. Little or no user interaction is required.

Security requirements on the host computers prevent you from running applications on startup, and users must be able to see the status easily on the screen. The host computers also have limited memory and monitors that display only two

colors. These computers will have no network connectivity.

Which type of application should you use for this environment?

A. Directx

B. Windows Service

C. console-based

D. Windows Store app

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

In this XHTML code sample, what will cause an error?

A. The line break tag is incorrectly formatted.

B. The HTML tags do not read XHTML.

C. The body tag is missing a background attribute,

D. All tags are not in uppercase.

Correct Answer: A

In XHTML, the
tag must be properly closed, like this:
.


Question 13:

Which language uses Data Definition Language (DDL) and Data Manipulation Language (DML)?

A. Java

B. C

C. SQL

D. Pascal

Correct Answer: C

SQL uses DDL and DML.


Question 14:

In your student directory database, the Students table contains the following fields:

firstName lastName emailAddress telephoneNumber

You need to retrieve the data from the firstName, lastName, and emailAddress fields for all students listed in the directory. The results must be in alphabetical order according to lastName and then firstName.

Which statement should you use?

A. B. C. D.

Correct Answer: D

to sort use: ORDER BY LastName, FirstName


Question 15:

You are creating an application for computers that run Windows XP or later. This application must run after the computer starts. The user must not be aware that the application is running.

The application performs tasks that require permissions that the logged-in user does not have.

Which type of application allows this behavior?

A. Windows Forms application

B. DOS batch file

C. Terminate-and-stay-resident (TSR) program

D. Windows Service application

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which of the following will MOST likely adversely impact the operations of unpatched traditional programmable-logic controllers, running a back-end LAMP server and OT systems with human-management interfaces that are accessible over the Internet via a web interface? (Choose two.)

A. Cross-site scripting

B. Data exfiltration

C. Poor system logging

D. Weak encryption

E. SQL injection

F. Server-side request forgery

Correct Answer: DF


Question 2:

A small business just recovered from a ransomware attack against its file servers by purchasing the decryption keys from the attackers. The issue was triggered by a phishing email and the IT administrator wants to ensure it does not happen again. Which of the following should the IT administrator do FIRST after recovery?

A. Scan the NAS for residual or dormant malware and take new daily backups that are tested on a frequent basis

B. Restrict administrative privileges and patch ail systems and applications.

C. Rebuild all workstations and install new antivirus software

D. Implement application whitelisting and perform user application hardening

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An attacked is attempting to exploit users by creating a fake website with the URL www.validwebsite.com. The attacker\’s intent is to imitate the look and feel of a legitimate website to obtain personal information from unsuspecting users. Which of the following social-engineering attacks does this describe?

A. Information elicitation

B. Typo squatting

C. Impersonation

D. Watering-hole attack

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which of the following is a team of people dedicated testing the effectiveness of organizational security programs by emulating the techniques of potential attackers?

A. Red team

B. While team

C. Blue team

D. Purple team

Correct Answer: A

Red team–performs the offensive role to try to infiltrate the target.


Question 5:

To reduce costs and overhead, an organization wants to move from an on-premises email solution to a cloud-based email solution. At this time, no other services will be moving. Which of the following cloud models would BEST meet the needs of the organization?

A. MaaS

B. laaS

C. SaaS

D. PaaS

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

A security engineer at an offline government facility is concerned about the validity of an SSL certificate. The engineer wants to perform the fastest check with the least delay to determine if the certificate has been revoked. Which of the following would BEST these requirement?

A. RA

B. OCSP

C. CRL

D. CSR

Correct Answer: C

A CRL can still be preferred over the use of OCSP if a server has issued many certificates to be validated within a single revocation period. It may be more efficient for the organization to download a CRL at the beginning of the revocation period than to utilize the OCSP standard, necessitating an OCSP response every time a certificate requires validation.


Question 7:

A security analyst needs to complete an assessment. The analyst is logged into a server and must use native tools to map services running on it to the server\’s listening ports. Which of the following tools can BEST accomplish this talk?

A. Netcat

B. Netstat

C. Nmap

D. Nessus

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

On which of the following is the live acquisition of data for forensic analysis MOST dependent? (Choose two.)

A. Data accessibility

B. Legal hold

C. Cryptographic or hash algorithm

D. Data retention legislation

E. Value and volatility of data

F. Right-to-audit clauses

Correct Answer: EF


Question 9:

An organization\’s Chief Security Officer (CSO) wants to validate the business\’s involvement in the incident response plan to ensure its validity and thoroughness. Which of the following will the CSO MOST likely use?

A. An external security assessment

B. A bug bounty program

C. A tabletop exercise

D. A red-team engagement

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

During a routine scan of a wireless segment at a retail company, a security administrator discovers several devices are connected to the network that do not match the company\’s naming convention and are not in the asset Inventory. WiFi access Is protected with 255- Wt encryption via WPA2. Physical access to the company\’s facility requires two-factor authentication using a badge and a passcode Which of the following should the administrator implement to find and

remediate the Issue? (Select TWO).

A. Check the SIEM for failed logins to the LDAP directory.

B. Enable MAC filtering on the switches that support the wireless network.

C. Run a vulnerability scan on all the devices in the wireless network

D. Deploy multifactor authentication for access to the wireless network

E. Scan the wireless network for rogue access points.

F. Deploy a honeypot on the network

Correct Answer: BE

security is pretty good already up to a point, clearly Rogue AP bypass is in the picture MAC filtering on the switch the AP\’s hang from will ensure the only AP\’s allowed to touch the core network are approved known AP\’s and ze “bad guys” will find themselves trapped on an AP island with nowhere to go!


Question 11:

Which of the following is MOST likely to outline the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data processors?

A. SSAE SOC 2

B. PCI DSS

C. GDPR

D. ISO 31000

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

An organization routes all of its traffic through a VPN Most users are remote and connect into a corporate datacenter that houses confidential information There is a firewall at the Internet border followed by a DIP appliance, the VPN server and the datacenter itself. Which of the following is the WEAKEST design element?

A. The DLP appliance should be integrated into a NGFW.

B. Split-tunnel connections can negatively impact the DLP appliance\’s performance

C. Encrypted VPN traffic will not be inspected when entering or leaving the network

D. Adding two hops in the VPN tunnel may slow down remote connections

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Joe, an employee, receives an email stating he won the lottery. The email includes a link that requests a name, mobile phone number, address, and date of birth be provided to confirm Joe\’s identity before sending him the prize. Which of the following BEST describes this type of email?

A. Spear phishing

B. Whaling

C. Phishing

D. Vishing

Correct Answer: C

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing


Question 14:

A company recently experienced a data breach and the source was determined to be an executive who was charging a phone in a public area. Which of the following would MOST likely have prevented this breach?

A. A firewall

B. A device pin

C. A USB data blocker

D. Biometrics

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A security analyst discovers several .jpg photos from a cellular phone during a forensics investigation involving a compromised system. The analyst runs a forensics tool to gather file metadata. Which of the following would be part of the images if all the metadata is still intact?

A. The GPS location

B. When the file was deleted

C. The total number of print jobs

D. The number of copies made

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You are required to create a compensation plan where commission is paid 6% of transaction amount for credit category \’Laptop\’. Also reporting requirement dictates you to capture each older number along with earned amount at the order level. You are also expected to reuse already created expressions to maximize re usability.

Which expression will you not be able to use in the plan component – Incentive formula?

A. Measure result.PM1.Output

B. Measure result.PM1.PTD Output Achieved

C. SUM ( Credit.Credit Amount )

D. Credit.Credit Amount

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

You are planning to move your configurations from the staging environment to the production environment.

Which task must you not include?

A. Export and Import reports by using the archive/unarchive function.

B. Move Calendar, Business Units, List of Values, and Profile Options by using FSM.

C. Clone custom objects in Application Composer

D. Export Compensation Plans to XML

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which descriptive flexfield should you use to update Incentive Compensation Transaction details?

A. CM_TP_TRANSACTIOM_DFP

B. FIC_TRANSACTION_DFF

C. CN_TP_BASETRAHS_DFF

D. XC BASE_TRANS_DFF

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A participant is transferred to another business unit.

Identify the configuration changes required to calculate and pay compensation to the participant in the new business unit.

A. Assign the participant to a new role and resource group.

B. Create a new HR employee record for this participant as transfer across business unit is not supported by the application.

C. Assign the participant to the global business unit and global role,

D. Enter an End Date for the participant record in the current business unit, import participant into the new business unit, and assign appropriate Comp Plan and Paygroup.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which three are reports you can customize few Mobile Commissions?

A. Payments: Payment transactions and related details of the sales participant

B. Credits: Credits and related details of the sales participant

C. Analytics: Details of the recent analysis of the sales participant

D. Disputes: Details of the recent disputes raised by the sales participant

E. Reimbursements: Reimbursements and related details of the sale*, ii.ntic ip.int

Correct Answer: ABD

http://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/tutorial/cloud/r11/wn/r11_sales_wn.htm


Question 6:

A payment plan is to be configured to pay a minimum (draw) flat amount of 8,000 per period, which is nonrecoverable. Payment adjustments must be applied only to commission type earnings, and bonus earnings should not be adjusted by the payment plan.

How should you configure the payment plan?

A. Associate the “Commission” payment group category to \’Commission\’ type plan components. In the Payment Plan, select `Commission\’ from the Payment Group Category drop down, enter 8,000 in the Flat Minimum Amount to Pay Participant field, enter 8,000 in the Maximum Payment field, select “Yes” for the Carry Forward Maximum drop down, and select `No\’ for the Minimum Recovery option.

B. Associate the `Commission\’ Incentive Type (payment group category) to \’Commission\’ type plan components. In the Payment plan, select \’Commission\’ from the Payment Group Category drop down, enter 8,000 in the Flat Minimum Amount to Pay Participant field, and select \’No\’ for the Minimum Recovery option.

C. Associate the \’Commission\’ Incentive Type (payment group category) to \’Commission\’ type plan components. In the Payment Plan, select \’Commission\’ from the Payment Group Category drop down, enter 8,000 in the Flat Minimum Amount to Pay Participant field, and select the `Yes\’ for the Minimum Recovery option and `Immediate\’ for the Recovery Start option.

D. Associate the \’Commission\’ payment group category to “Commission\’ type plan components. In the Payment Plan, select \’Commission\’ from the Payment Group Category drop down, enter 8,000 In the Flat Minimum Amount to Pay Participant field, enter 8,000 in the Maximum Payment field, select \’Yes\’ for the Carry forward Maximum drop down, select `Yes\’ for the Minimum Recovery option, and \’Immediate\’ for the Recovery Start option.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Will the earnings for participants be calculated once their Active End Date has elapsed?

A. Earnings will not be calculated if their Compensation End date has elapsed.

B. Earnings will be calculated foe participants as long as they remain assigned to a compensation plan.

C. Earnings will not be calculated if their Active End Date has elapsed.

D. Earnings will be calculated lot participants as long as they exist m the fusion Incentive Compensation system.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which format must the date column value have In File Based Data Import?

A. YYYY/MM/DD

B. DD/MM/YYYY

C. MM/DD/YYYY

D. Date format is configurable

Correct Answer: D

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel11/salescs_gs/OAFDI/OAFDI1504155.htm#OAFDI309164


Question 9:

You have to write a custom function that accesses the performance measure output. You must pass the following parameters to uniquely identify data and do custom calculations. plan_cooponent_id formaula_id Participant_id Period id In which table should you configure the required columns?

A. CN TP KEASURE_RESULTS_ALL

B. CN SRP_PER_FORM_METRICS_ALL

C. CW_TP_EARNINGS_ALL

D. CM SRP PARTICIPANTS ALL

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/salescs_gs/FACMI/FACMI1417756.htm#FACMI1419062


Question 10:

A company has its classification rules, which are at the same level in the hierarchy, set up as:

Which option shows the credit category or categories that will be assigned to this transaction during the Classification process?

A. COMPUTERS

B. LAPTOP

C. TOSHIBA

D. INTEL

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

You help the Oracle Incentive Compensation administrator select the coned currency options for a business unit where all the transactions are performed in USD. Although some of the workforce is based in the UK and Canada, the company pays the workforce in USD.

How do you set up currencies?

A. Select Operating Currency as USD and select Processing Currency as Operating Currency.

B. Select Operating Currency as USD and select Processing Currency as Participant\’s Home Currency.

C. Select Operating Currency as USD and Processing Currency as USD.

D. Select Processing Currency as USD only. Operating Currency is not mandatory.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Your stand alone SaaS implementation project starts in two weeks. With which four roles must you staff your consulting team?

A. Business Analyst, DBA, Reporting Specialist, Data Specialist

B. System Administrator Business Analyst, Reporting Specialist, Project Manager

C. System Administrator, Business Analyst, DBA, Project Manager

D. Business Analyst, Reporting Specialist, Data Specialist, Project Manager

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

You must create a request set for simplifying the Incentive Compensation processes for your end customer. You asked Oracle Support to put the programs in the following sequence:

1.

Revert Transaction

2.

Run Crediting and Rollup

3.

Run Classify Credits

4.

Calculate

Which are the correct values of the corresponding BU parameters?

A. Rollup using Credit Hierarchy, Classify after crediting

B. Rollup using Credit Hierarchy, Classify before crediting

C. Rollup using Rollup Hierarchy, Classify after crediting

D. Rollup Using = Both, Classify after crediting

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which asset typo must you select for searching web service in Oracle Enterprise Repository?

A. Composite Service

B. Composite

C. ADF Service

D. ADF service Data Object

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A regional sales manager is promoted to a higher position and becomes eligible to receive rollup credit from multiple business units. How should you create a rollup hierarchy rule to receive rollup horn multiple business units?

A. No additional configurations are required because the application accommodates cross-region rollups.

B. Import the manager\’s employee record as a participant In each business unit and copy the rollup hierarchy rules to each business unit.

C. Cross-region rollups are not supported. Managers and salespeople must be participants In the same business unit

D. Import all participants under the manager in all business units and copy the rollup hierarchy rules to each business unit.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

A manager wants to know why traditional usage metering tools are less effective in a private cloud environment thanthey are in physical environments.What statement provides the best response?

A. Traditional monitoring tools won\’t work in a cloud environment.

B. Traditional metering tools require agents to be installed, which don\’t work in virtual machines.

C. Resource usage is based on the overall demand of all virtual machines instead of per server.

D. This is not true, traditional usage metering tools are still the best choice.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which vRealize Automation feature provides companies a lot of flexibility in using their own customized service politics and business logic?

A. Accelerated application deployment

B. Intelligent Resource Governor

C. VMware vRealize Orchestrator plug-in

D. Self-service end user portal

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

An administrator has installed and configured site RecoveryManager (SRM) to protect a private cloud infrastructure, but wants assurance that the plan put in place will actually work. How can the administrator properly test the site recovery manager setup?

A. Tell SRM to simulate moving your workloads usingvcloud connector.

B. Tell SRM to initiate an HA failover test.

C. Tell SRM to execute a non-disruptive recovery test.

D. Tell SRM tovMotion protected VMs to the recovery site.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

An administrator wants to make sure that a cloud environment is performing as expected and is not exhibiting any serious problems.Which vRealize operations super Metric will help analyze workload anomalies and faults?

A. Risk

B. Status

C. Performance

D. Health

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A customer is concerned about using fixed alarm settings to monitor elastic cloud workloads. They want assurance that virtual workloads will be properly monitored in the cloud based on their environment\’s realtime data. Which vRealize Operations alarm feature will best address this concern?

A. Auto Reactive Alarms

B. Adaptive Alarms

C. Self-Learning Analytics

D. Dynamic Thresholds

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

An administrator wants to automatically manage virtual machine change requests and services as well as remove virtual machines when they are no longer needed. Which product includes a lifecycle management capability to help you accomplish these tasks?

A. vRealize Automation

B. vCenter Server

C. vRealize Operations

D. NSX Manager

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

As part of setting up a company\’s disaster recovery plan a project manager has identified the need to synchronize storage used by the virtual machines to a remote disaster recovery site. Which product or component can be used to perform this task?

A. vRealize Automation

B. vCloud Connector

C. Datastore Clusters

D. vSphere Replication

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which three infrastructure platformtypes can vRealize Automation deliver service across? (Choose three.)

A. Virtual

B. Organization

C. Physical

D. Provider

E. Cloud

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 9:

A consultant is explaining the benefits of using VMware NSX versus other products that utilize a physical networking infrastructure.Which two are benefits of implementing VMware NSX over other virtual network solutions? (Choose two.)

A. Non-disruptive server hardware upgrades

B. Reduced network provisioning time

C. No more physical switches

D. Non-disruptive deployment

Correct Answer: AD


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A. A successful health check that includes a cable check

B. A reboot of each SP for changes to take effect

C. A user must register the product.

D. The VNX performs a check of the boot sectors on the vault drives.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Some users are unable to connect to specific local hosts by name, while accessing hosts in other zones works as expected. Given that the hosts are reachable by their IP addresses, which is the default log file that could provide hints about the problem?

A. /var/named/log

B. /var/lib/named/dev/log

C. /var/log/bind_errors

D. /var/log/bind/errors

E. /var/log/messages

Correct Answer: E


Question 2:

Which Squid configuration directive defines the authentication method to use?

A. auth_param

B. auth_method

C. auth_program

D. auth_mechanism

E. proxy_auth

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which answer best describes the meaning of the following LDAP search commanD. ldapseareh -x” (and(cn=marie)(telephoneNumber=9*))”

A. It is searching for all entries that don\’t have the cn attribute equal to marie OR the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9

B. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9

C. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute ending with number 9

D. It is searching for all entries that don\’t have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9

E. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute different than marie OR the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which statements about the Alias and Redirect directives in Apache\’s configuration file are true?

A. Alias can only reference files under DocumentRoot

B. Redirect works with regular expressions

C. Redirect is handled on the client side

D. Alias is handled on the server side

E. Alias is not a valid configuration directive

Correct Answer: CD


Question 5:

What is the missing keyword in the following configuration sample for dovecot which defines which authentication types to support? (Specify only the keywork) auth default { ______ = plain login cram-md5 }

A. auth_order

B. mechanisms

C. methods

D. supported

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which of the following Linux services has support for only the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) routing protocol?

A. gated

B. ipchains

C. netfilter

D. routed

E. zebra

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which command can be used to list all exported file systems from a remote NFS server:

A. exportfs

B. nfsstat

C. rpcinfo

D. showmount

E. importfs

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

An administrator has placed an executable in the directory /etc/init.d, however it is not being executed when the system boots into runlevel 2. What is the most likely cause of this?

A. The script has not been declared in /etc/services

B. runleve1 2 is not declared in /etc/inittab

C. The script has the permissions 700 and is owned by root

D. A corresponding link was not created in /etc/rc2.d

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Considering the following kernel IP routing table now, which of the following commands must be remove the route to the network 10.10.1.0/24?

Kernel IP routing table

A. routedel 10.10.1.0

B. routedel 10.10.1.0/24

C. routedel -net 10.10.1.0/24

D. routedel 10.10.1.0/24 gw 192.168.246.11

E. routedel -net 10.10.1.0

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

To securely use dynamic DNS updates, the use of TSIG is recommended. Which TWO statements about TSIG are true?

A. TSIG is used for zone data encryption

B. TSIG is a signal to start a zone update

C. TSIG is used in zone files

D. TSIG is used only in server configuration

E. Servers using TSIG must be in sync (time zone!)

Correct Answer: DE


Question 11:

When Apache is configured to use name-based virtual hosts:

A. it\’s also necessary to configure a different IP address for each virtual host.

B. the Listen directive is ignored by the server.

C. it starts multiple daemons (one for each virtual host).

D. it\’s also necessary to create a VirtualHost block for the main host.

E. only the directives ServerName and DocumentRoot may be used inside a block.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which ACL type in Squid\’s configuration file is used for authentication purposes?

A. proxyAuth

B. proxy_auth

C. proxy_passwd

D. auth

E. auth_required

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What is the name of the network security scanner project which, at the core, is a server with a set of network vulnerability tests (NVTs)?

A. nmap

B. OpenVAS

C. Snort

D. wireshark

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

The listing below is an excerpt from a Squid configuration filE.

A. Users connecting from localhost will be able to access web sites through this proxy.

B. It\’s necessary to include a http_access rule denying access to all, at the end of the rules.

C. It\’s possible to use this proxy to access SSL enabled web sites listening on any port.

D. This proxy can\’t be used to access FTP servers listening on the default port.

E. This proxy is misconfigured and no user will be able to access web sites through it.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which of these ways can be used to only allow access to a DNS server from specified networks/hosts?

A. Using the limit{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

B. Using the allow-query{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

C. Using the answer only{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

D. Using the answer{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

E. Using the query access{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

A bank deploys an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-Mobility Controller (MC) solution to provide wireless access for users that run different applications on their laptops, including SIP-based IP telephony. When users only run the IP telephony software, call quality is high. However, if users also run email, web, or mission critical applications, then voice quality drops.

Which feature would help improve the quality of voice calls over the air when users run different applications?

A. DSCP for IPv4 traffic

B. WiFi Multi Media

C. Type of Service

D. High/Low Queue

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

A network administrator implements a SIP-based IP telephone solution. The objective is to ensure that APs use 100% of their airtime for network access whenever a voice call is taking place, to minimize communication delays. The network administrator also wants to ensure that a log entry is generated when voice calls occur.

Which setup accomplishes these tasks?

A. ip access-list session voice user any svc-rtsp permit log queue high user any svc-sip-udp permit log queue high

B. ip access-list session voice user any-svc-rtsp permit disable-scanning log user any svc-sip-udp permit disable-scanning log

C. ip access-list session voice user any svc-rtsp permit log dot1p-priority 7 user any svc-sip-udp permit log dot1p-priority 7

D. ip access-list session voice user any svc-rtsp permit log tos 56 user any svc-sip-udp permit log tos 56

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit1

Exhibit2

A network administrator integrates a current Mobility Master (MM)-Mobility Controller (MC) deployment with a RADIUS infrastructure. After using the RADIUS server to authenticate a wireless user, the network administrator realizes that the client machine is not falling into the it_department role, as shown in the exhibits.

Which configuration is required to map the users into the proper role, based on standard attributes returned by the RADIUS server in the Access Accept message?

A. aaa server-group Corp-Network set role condition Filter-Id equals it-role set-value it_department

B. aaa server-group GROUP-RADIUS set role condition Filter-Id equals it-role set-value it_department

C. aaa server-group Corp-employee set role condition Filter-Id equals it-role set-value it_department

D. aaa server-group Corp-employee set role condition Filter-Id value-of

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit 1

Exhibit 2 A network administrator adds a new Mobility Controller (MC) to the production Mobility Master (MM) and deploys APs that start broadcasting the employees SSID in the West wing of the building. Suddenly, the employed report client disconnects. When accessing the MM the network administrator notices that the MC is unreachable, then proceeds to access the MC\’s console and obtains the outputs shown in the exhibits.

What should the network administrator do next to solve the current problem?

A. Decommission the MC from the MM, and add it again.

B. Open a TAC case, and send the output of tar crash.

C. Verify the license pools in the MM.

D. Kill two zombie processes, then reboot the MC.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator adds a Mobility Controller (MC) in the /mm level and notices that the device does not show up in the managed networks hierarchy. The network administrator accesses the CLI, executes the show switches command, and obtains the output shown in the exhibit.

What is the reason that the MC does not appear as a managed device in the hierarchy?

A. The network administrator added the device using the wrong Pre=shared Key (PSK).

B. The digital certificate of the MC is not trusted by the MM.

C. The IP address of the MC does not match the one that was defined in the MM.

D. The network administrator has not moved the device into a group yet.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

A 7008 Branch Office Controller (BOC) is deployed in a remote office behind a core router. This core router does not support 802.1q encapsulation. The Mobility Controller (MC) is the gateway for two tunneling mode SSIDs, as shown in the exhibit.

Which two different configuration options ensure that wireless users are able to reach the branch network through the router? (Select two.)

A. Configure all ports of the BOC as access ports on the controller VLAN, and change the gateway of clients to the core router IP.

B. Configure the uplink of the BOC as an access port on the controller VLAN, and enable NAT for the SSID VLANs.

C. Configure the uplink of the BOC as a trunk port, tagging the controller and the SSID VLANs, and enable NAT for the SSID VLANs.

D. Configure the uplink of the BOC as an access port on the controller VLAN, and add static router in the router for the SSID VLAN subnets.

E. Configure the uplink of the BOC as a trunk port that permits the controller and the SSID VLANs. The controller VLAN must be native.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

A user reports show response time to a network administrator and suggests that there might be a problem with the WLAN. The user\’s laptop supports 802.11n in the 2.4 GHz band only. The network administrator finds the user on the Mobility Master (MM) and reviews the output shown in the exhibit.

What can the network administrator conclude after analyzing the data?

A. Client health is low, and retried frames are high. It is possible there is high channel utilization.

B. Client health is low, but SNR is high. It is possible data in the dashboard is not accurate and needs to be updated.

C. The speed is good. Client health seems to be related to a problem with the client NIC.

D. The network is low because of low SNR. TX power must be increased in both the client and the AP.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A customer with a multi-controller network upgrades the ArubaOS from 6.4 to 8. The customer\’s clients must be able to move between different locations of the campus without disconnecting their applications, when roaming or if there are Mobility Controller (MC) failures. The customer also wants to have full control of the users, and be able to change their session properties from a RADIUS server.

Which steps must the network consultant include in the implementation plan to meet these requirements?

A. 1. Create a controller cluster profile that contains the management and VRRP IP addresses of each member.

2.

Apply the profile to all MCs in the cluster.

3.

Confirm that the cluster is L2 connected.

B. 1. Configure a VRRP instance for all MCs

2.

Create a controller cluster profile that contains the management IP and VIP addresses of each MC.

3.

Apply the profile to all MCs in the cluster.

4.

Confirm that the cluster is L2 connected.

C. 1. Configure a VRRP instance for each MC.

2.

Create a controller cluster profile that contains the management IP of each member.

3.

Apply the profile to all MCs in the cluster.

4.

Confirm that the cluster is L3 connected.

D. 1. Create a controller cluster profile that contains the management and VRRP IP addresses of each member.

2.

Apply the profile to the cluster leader.

3.

Confirm that the cluster is L2 connected.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator deploys DSCP based prioritization in the entire wired network to improve voice quality for a SIP-based IP telephony system used by the company. However, users report that calls they make from the WLAN have poor audio quality, while desktop phones do not experience the same problem. The network administrator makes a test call and looks in the datapath session table.

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what is one area that the network administrator should focus on?

A. wireless network congestion

B. WMM support on the WLAN

C. UCC based DSCP correction

D. wired network congestion

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

After a recent power outage where MM1 is located, the network administrator could not perform configuration tasks on Mobility Controllers (MC) for several hours. The network administrator decides to acquire another Mobility Master (MM) and deploy L2 MM redundancy. The new MM is assigned the

10.254.10.15 IP address and VRRP is configured in both units. The network administrator verifies that VRRP is running, and prepares to complete the setup with the following scripts.

Which configuration tasks must the network administrator do before applying the script in order to successfully deploy L2 MM redundancy and prevent any other control plane outage?

A. Confirm that the VRRP and master redundancy keys are the same.

B. Change the VIP address of ther VRRP process 140 to 10.254.10.15.

C. Reduce the VRRP priority to 90 and restart the process in MM2.

D. Enable the MM database synchronization in MM2.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Company 1 and Company 2 are medium-sized companies that collaborate in a joint venture. Each

company owns a building, and each has their own ArubaOS 8 Mobility Master (MM)-Mobility Controller

(MC) deployment. The buildings are located in front of one another. For the initial stage of the project, the

companies want to interconnect their networks with fiber, and broadcast each other\’s SSIDs.

These are the requirements:

Do not unify the company\’s network management responsibilities.

Allow each company to take care of their own SSID setups when broadcasted in the other building.

Terminate Company 1 user traffic on Company 1 MCs when they connect to Company 2 APs.

Terminate Company 2 user traffic on Company 2 MCs when they connect to Company 1 APs.

What is needed to meet the solution requirements?

A. Multizone APs

B. Inter MC S2S Ipsec tunnels

C. Multi MC Clusters

D. Inter MC GRE tunnels

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibits. Exhibit 1

Exhibit 2 Exhibit 3

A network administrator deploys a Mobility Master (MM) pair with the VRRP VIP equal to 10.254.10.214, and attempts to associate MC1 to it. At first, the integration appears to be successful. However after a few minutes the network administrator issues the show switches command and sees that the MC1 is down, even though the device is up and running.

Every time the network administrator reboots the Mobility Controller (MC), the MC shows as being up and then it shows as being down. The network administrator gathers the information shown in the exhibits.

What should the network administrator do to resolve this problem?

A. Change the localip ipsec key to Aruba123 in the mynode device level from the MM, save, and reboot.

B. Enable disaster recovery mode in MC1 and change the masterip ipsec key to Aruba 123, save, and reboot.

C. Change the masterip ipsec key to Aruba123 in the device level from the MM, save, then reboot MC1.

D. Wipe out the configuration in MC1 and reboot, then run the full-setup configuration dialog all over again.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

A network administrator deploys AirWave over a Mobility Master (MM)-Mobility Controller (MC) network to monitor, audit, and report activities. The main areas of concern are with high user density, not enough APs, or not enough channel bandwidth.

Which two report options can the network administrator user to create a weekly report that shows networking equipment with more users and high-demand applications used by top talkers? (Select two.)

A. Most Utilized Folders by Maximum Concurrent Clients

B. Most Utilized by Usage

C. Top Applications Summary

D. Most Utilized by Maximum Concurrent Clients

E. Top 3 Applications For Top 10 Users

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

Several users are connected to the same WLAN and want to play the same multicast-based video stream. The network administrator wants to reduce bandwidth consumption and at the same time increase the transmit rate to a fixed value for WMM marked video streams in a large-scale network. Broadcast Multicast Optimization (BCMCO) is already on.

Which two configuration steps does the network administrator have to perform to optimize the multicast transmissions? (Select two.)

A. Enable Dynamic Multicast Optimization (DMO) and set forwarding mode to tunnel in the VAP profile.

B. Enable Broadcast Multicast Rate Optimization (BC/MC RO) in the SSID profile.

C. Enable Broadcast Multicast Optimization (BCMCO) and set forwarding mode in the VAP.

D. Disable Broadcast Multicast Optimization (BCMCO) in the VLAN.

E. Set Video Multicast Rate Optimization (VMRO) in the SSID profile.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 15:

An organization owns a fully functional multi-controller Aruba network with a Virtual Mobility Master (VMM) in VLAN 20. They have asked a network consultant to deploy a redundant MM on a different server. The solution must offer the lowest convergence time and require no human interaction in case of failure.

The servers host other virtual machines and are connected to different switches that implement ACLs to protect them. The organization grants the network consultant access to the servers only, and appoints a network administrator to assist with the deployment.

What must the network administrator do so the network consultant can successfully deploy the solution? (Select three.)

A. Reserve one IP address for the second MM and another IP address for its gateway

B. Configure an ACL entry that permits IP protocol 50, UDP port 500, and multicast IP 224.0.0.18.

C. Allocate VLAN 20 to the second server, and extend it throughout the switches.

D. Reserve one IP address for the second MM and another for the VIP.

E. Configure an ACL entry that permits UDP 500, UDP 4500, and multicast IP 224.0.0.1.

F. Allocate another VLAN to the second server, and permit routing between them.

Correct Answer: ACE


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Question 1:

You are trying to determine how many Basic and Mainstream licenses are needed to support a proposal for Avaya IX Messaging. Which feature requires a Mainstream license?

A. Multiple greetings

B. Full synchronization with 0365 email applications

C. Distribution lists

D. Multiple Telephone User Interfaces (TUIs)

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You have a customer who requires both SIP Trunking and Remote Workers. After examining the features needed overall, you have determined that 700 Core Suite licenses are required. You still need to quote SBCE licenses, in addition to the entitlements included with Core Suite licenses, to support a total of 120 PSTN SIP trunks and 330 remote workers. The customer has agreed to a 3 remote worker users to 1 session access basis- How many additional standard and advanced a la carte SBCE licenses are needed? (Choose two.)

A. 30 SBCE Standard Licenses

B. 20 SBCE Standard Licenses

C. 10 SBCE Advanced Licenses

D. 20 SBCE Advanced Licenses

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

In preparation for the migration of CS1000 phones to Avaya Aura your customer is trying to understand how things will work after the migration. How will CS1000 phones register?

A. To Session Manager via the Avaya Device Adapter

B. Directly to Communication Manger

C. Directly to the Avaya Device Adapter

D. To System Manager via the Avaya Device Adapter

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

You are interested in having multiple devices to register with the same extension number, but use only one user license. Which three are required for the Multiple Device Access feature? (Choose three.)

A. Avaya Aura Communication Manager

B. Avaya one-X?Client Enablement Services

C. Avaya Aura Session Manager

D. Avaya Aura Application Enablement Services

E. Avaya Aura System Manager

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 5:

You are putting together a proposal for a Communication Manager solution that has the following requirements: 300 9611G telephones running H.323 275 9641GS telephones running SIP 75 Analog telephones

350 3129 telephones 100 Avaya EquinoxTM clients 300 9611G telephones running H.323 275 9641GS telephones running SIP 75 Analog telephones 350 J129 telephones 100 Avaya EquinoxTM clients How many endpoints will directly register/connect to Communication Manager?

A. 375

B. 400

C. 625

D. 1025

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A customer has a new location with 1,900 users. They require a UC solution that will support 20% growth without adding additional hardware. They are interested in minimizing the equipment footprint and do not require redundancy. What will meet customer\’s needs?

A. Communication Manager Simplex with Survivable Core

B. Communication Manager Simplex

C. Communication Manager S8300

D. Communication Manager Duplex

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

You are creating a new Communication Manager design. You have included Avaya provided servers with G450 gateways. The solution requires 200 – H.323 telephones. Trunk service from the PSTN will be IP trunks. Shuffling will be enabled. They have also requested call recording via Device Media Call Control (DMCC) application programming interface.

To record all IP endpoints simultaneously, how many DSP resources are required?

A. 800 DSP resources

B. 600 DSP resources

C. 400 DSP resources

D. 200 DSP resources

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Yourare designing an addition to a customer\’s existing Avaya Aura system. The addition will include 575 IP sets, of which 200 will also use Avaya Equinoxfor the Desktop, 175 will use Desktop P2P Video, and 25 of them will also need Extension to Cellular (EC500). There are 75 other new users who will use Avaya Equinoxfor iOS as their only UC Client or endpoint. The customer does not want a la carte licensing for applications not covered by Core Suite, and will purchase other Avaya Aura Suites as required.

How many Core Suite licenses are needed for the addition?

A. 675

B. 650

C. 625

D. 575

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A customer has a main location and several remote locations with Avaya Aura Survivable Remotes. How many components can an Avaya IXTM IP Phone J169 SIP endpoint register to simultaneously?

A. Two Core Session Managers and a Communication Manager Survivable Core

B. Three Core Session Managers and a Branch Session Manager

C. Two Core Session Managers and a Branch Session Manager

D. Five Core Session Managers or Branch Session Managers

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What is a benefit of Session Manager?

A. It centralizes the management of remote gateways.

B. It provides SIP application interoperability across multi-vendor equipment.

C. It provides traditional analog trunking to the edge devices.

D. It de-centralizes management of phones and users enterprise-wide.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A design you are working on calls for several “G series” media gateways, and you have determined the number of Digital Signal Processor (DSP) resources that are needed. In which two ways can you determine how many “G series” gateways are needed in a design? (Choose two.)

A. Divide the calculated number of DSPs by 320 to determine how many G450s are needed.

B. Divide the calculated number of DSPs by 120 to determine how many G430s are needed.

C. Divide the calculated number of DSPs by 340 to determine how many G450S are needed.

D. Divide the calculated number of DSPs by 128 to determine how many G430s are needed.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Your customer is expanding their communications infrastructure. They want to protect their investment In existing equipment. They currently have two Avaya G450 gateways. What is the maximum number of Digital Signaling Processor (DSP) resources that the two Avaya G450 will support?

A. 640

B. 360

C. 960

D. 1200

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

You are designing media gateways at remote locations for a customer. They have requested the following:

Analog telephone calls go through the PSTN in case of power outage. Redundant power supply The same administrative and telephone functionality during WAN outage Which design meets these customer requests?

A. A design with G450 gateways with dual power supplies, and Standard Local Survivability

B. A design with G430 gateways with dual power supplies, and Standard Local Survivability

C. A design with G450 gateways with dual power supplies, and S8300 Survivable-Remote

D. A design with G430 gateways with dual power supply, and S8300 Survivable-Remote

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

You are planning a branch location that requires Tl/El Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunks. There will be a peak hour usage of 1 PSTN trunk for every 20 of the 500 users. How many PSTN trunks and DSP resources will be needed to support calls between IP telephones and the PSTN in the branch?

A. 31 PSTN trunks and 32 DSP resources

B. 25 PSTN trunks and no DSP resources

C. 25 PSTN trunks and 25 DSP resources

D. 26 PSTN trunks and 27 DSP resources

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You are reviewing a design done by another engineer, and want to be sure there are enough Touch Tone Receiver (TTR) resources. Which component of the design uses TTR resources?

A. H.323 endpoints

B. SIP endpoints

C. Analog endpoints

D. SIP trunks

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

A customer needs to have QlikView deployed to tablet devices.

When creating the QVW application, which two actions must a developer take to meet the customer\’s need? (Choose two.)

A. convert the QVW application into a .mob document on the server

B. ensure that screen resolution is appropriate for the device

C. convert the QVW application into a HTML5 document

D. create a specific QVW application for each device

E. use only sheet objects suitable for tablet devices

Correct Answer: BE


Question 2:

A customer needs to produce formatted output as a PDF to distribute it to non-QlikView users. Each page should show sales trending for a different sales team. The number of sales teams will change frequently. What should a developer create to efficiently enable users to create the required output?

A. a report with banding on salesTeam

B. a report with GROUP BY on salesTeam

C. separate reports with where clauses for each salesTeam

D. separate reports referencing bookmarks for each salesTeam

E. a report that uses current selections where the user selects each salesTeam in turn

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit to the right.

When a customer reloads the script displayed in the exhibit, it fails to respond and complete, and displays an error message.

OBJECT OUT OF MEMORY.

How should the developer resolve the logic error in the script?

A. change the script to use an lnner Join instead of Left Join

B. change the QUALlFY * command to list out only the fields that need to be qualified

C. change the Left Join command to include the name of the table being joined enclosed in parentheses

D. change the DepartmentlD field in the salesPerson table to match the qualified field name of DepartmentlD in the Department table

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A developer needs to load an Account table and a Contact table from QVDs. The developer needs to load only contacts for the accounts that have already been loaded.

There may be more than one contact for an account, so the developer needs to keep the Account and Contact tables separate.

After loading the Account table, which function should the developer use in the Where clause of the Contact table load?

A. Previous

B. Match

C. Exists

D. ln

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A customer is building a dashboard to measure the performance of the support organization. The customer needs to dynamically sort the Ticket Severity field by Severity Weight field when the Ticket Severity columnheaderisdoubleclickedinStraightTablecharts. Example ticket severities. Urgent = 1 High = 2 Normal = 3 Low = 4

Which QlikView load script function can the developer use to create the Ticket Severity field to meet the customer\’s needs?

A. Rank( [Ticket Severity], [Severity Weight] ) AS [Ticket Severity]

B. Num( [Severity Weight], [Ticket Severity] ) AS [Ticket Severity]

C. Sort( [Ticket Severity], [Severity Weight] ) AS [Ticket Severity]

D. Dual( [Ticket Severity], [Severity Weight] ) AS [Ticket Severity]

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

How can a designer display the field selections that have been made within a chart caption?

A. by inserting a Current selections box into the Text in Chart

B. by using an expression with GetCurrentselections in the Window Title option on the General tab

C. by using an expression with SET Analysis and the system Fields in the Title Text option on the Caption tab

D. by selecting show Current selections on the Caption tab

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which objects are the most appropriate for setting one or more values for use in a “what-if” scenario?

A. lnput Box Object and Chart Object

B. lnput Box Object and Calendar/slider Object

C. Button Object and Extension Object

D. Calendar/slider Object and Chart Object

E. lnput Box Object and Text Object

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A customer needs to display sales amounts for the current month and a trend of sales over the prior 12 months using asmall amountof screenspace. Which chart type should the designer use to meets the customer\’s needs?

A. a Combo Chart with one expression to display the current month sales and a second expression represented as a Mini Chart to display a trend of sales over the prior 12 months

B. a Straight Table with one expression to display the current month sales and a second Line Chart to display a trend of sales over the prior 12 months

C. a Straight Table with one expression to display the current month sales and a second expression represented as a Mini Chart to display a trend of sales over the prior 12 months

D. a Straight Table with one expression to display the current month sales and a second expression represented as a Linear Gauge to display a trend of sales over the prior 12 months

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A customer with a complex chart is experiencing performance issues when the organization\’s users view the chart without first applying several filters. A designer needs to place a restriction on the chart so that the users are forced to make a selection before QlikView will calculate and render the chart. Which common object property can the designer use to accomplish this?

A. the Help Text property on the Caption tab to enter instructions directing the user to make a selection and filter their data before performing their analysis

B. the Auto Minimize property on the Caption tab so that the chart will be minimized and not calculate or render until the user has first made a selection and restored the chart

C. the Calculate Condition property on the General tab to create a control condition that will keep the chart from calculating until user has filtered the data

D. the size to Data property on the Layout tab to automatically select the filter criteria to the chart

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

How can a developer use QVD files to optimize reload performance?

A. create an incremental load strategy that reduces the query selects against the source data

B. decrease latency between the QlikView reload engine and the source data

C. enable a direct interface between the database server memory and the QlikView server memory

D. enable the binary load functionality and directly load files in binary from the hard disk into system memory

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A customer has 30 target values that are used to evaluate the quality of an organization\’s facilities. At least half the target values are changed monthly by the business users. What is the most efficient way for the developer to store, access, and maintain the target values?

A. save the target names and values in an external file, load them into a QlikView table, and use a FOR loop to assign the values to variables

B. manually create a variable for each value in Expression Overview and maintain them in Expression Overview

C. create a Variables tab in the load script and use 30 LET statements to assign the values to variables

D. embed the target values into each expression in which they are required

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A developer made several changes to a 25-tab load script that normally runs for at least two hours. Which step should the developer take first to efficiently debug the script logic?

A. place a Go To Exit statement after each block of revised script code, run the script, and comment each successive Go To Exit after a successful run

B. move each revised tab in succession to the second tab position, place an Exit script statement at the end of the tab script, and run the script

C. open the QlikView Debugger and use the step button to execute each line of the script

D. open the QlikView Debugger and use Limited Load to execute the script

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A customer\’s product catalog database contains approximately 50000 individual product SKUs. The catalog is updated quarterly.

The customer needs the load on database servers to be minimized.

Which technique should a developer use to meet the customer\’s needs?

A. a preceding load statement when loading the product catalog quarterly from the customer\’s database

B. the BUFFER statement when loading the product catalog quarterly from the customer\’s database

C. a mapping table when loading the product catalog quarterly from the customer\’s database

D. a QVD file to store the product catalog quarterly from the customer\’s database

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit to the right.

The sales table displayed in the exhibit represents the entire data set. Given the expression. =sum(Given the expression.=sum( {$} salesAmount) What is the result with the selections for salesPersonlD=1 and RegionlD=3?

A. 0

B. 3500

C. 4500

D. 5000

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

An invoices table has a DaysOverdue field. A chart is required to analyze overdue invoices in 30 day intervals. Which function should a designer use within a chart to meet this requirement?

A. Class(DaysOverdue30)

B. Aggr(DaysOverdue30)

C. GroupBy(DaysOverdue30)

D. lntervalMatch(DaysOverdue30)

Correct Answer: A