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Question 1:

A cloud architect is writing an implementation plan for deployment of a clustered vRealize Automation deployment that will use a third-party load balancer.

Which two steps should the architect include within the implementation plan to ensure a successful deployment of vRealize Automation? (Choose two.)

A. Disable all secondary nodes from the load balancer pools

B. Create and configure the monitoring of vRealize Automation and vRealize Orchestrator

C. Ensure all the SAN certificates for vRealize Suite are available

D. Enable all non-primary nodes on the load balancer

E. Turn off the health monitors or change them temporarily to default to ICMP and ensure traffic is still forwarding to the primary node

Correct Answer: BC


Question 2:

Which two statements are correct for VMware Cloud Services cloud proxy? (Choose two.)

A. It helps connect to public cloud entities.

B. It connects cloud services to on-premises networks.

C. An OVA deployment to an ESXi server is supported.

D. It requires a load balancer.

E. An OVA must be deployed on a vCenter Server.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 3:

What are the two valid characteristics of vRealize Automation Cloud? (Choose two.)

A. Supports on-premises vSphere and vRealize Orchestrator

B. Requires a standard license

C. Requires a load balancer

D. Supports on-premises vRealize Operations Manager

E. Has a frequent release cycle

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

An architect is designing a greenfield VMware vRealize Cloud Management solution. During the requirements gathering workshop with the customer, the future Service Owner made the following comment: The Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) for the Cloud Management solution is 1 hour.

When creating the design documentation, which design quality should be used to classify the requirements?

A. Manageability

B. Availability

C. Recoverability

D. Performance

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A design for a Cloud Management solution includes a section that describes the association of vRealize Operations solution with a remote collector for the purpose of gathering performance and usage metrics.

Which area of the design would contain that section?

A. Logical

B. Conceptual

C. Requirements

D. Physical

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

An architect has been asked about migrating a client\’s vRealize Automation solution from version 7.x to version 8.x. One of the requirements is to continue to support custom XaaS (Anything as a Service) blueprints that the client has developed.

Which component of a vRealize Automation logical design will fulfill this requirement?

A. Cloud Assembly

B. Cloud Zones

C. Service Broker

D. Cloud-Init

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

An architect is designing a vRealize Log Insight cluster for an organization. The organization has the following requirements:

No requirement for archival data Support a log data retention period of 14 days

How will the log data be handled in this vRealize Log Insight cluster after the 14-day retention period?

A. The user needs to manually select and delete specific old log messages to free up space.

B. Old log messages are automatically and periodically retired on least accessed basis.

C. Old log messages are automatically and periodically retired on a first-come-first-retired basis.

D. A variable sized chunk of old log messages is deleted to free up space based on the data age basis.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

As a Service Broker administrator, you have been asked to meet these requirements:

All released cloud templates must be imported to Service Broker.

Newly released cloud templates must be automatically synchronized with Service Broker.

All cloud templates must be automatically published to the service catalog.

Which two options must be configured to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Configure content sharing using Content Sources option

B. Create content source using VMware Cloud Templates option but do not configure content sharing

C. Create content source using CloudFormation Template option

D. Configure content sharing using All Content option

E. Create content source using VMware Cloud Templates option

Correct Answer: AE


Question 9:

The operations team is onboarding new interns in Active Directory. The interns need to work in the company\’s vRealize Operations environment while maintaining corporate security compliance. The intern Active Directory group should only have PowerUser role to a specific vCenter cluster and ReadOnly for all other objects.

Which option would meet the requirements?

A. Create new Active Directory accounts and import the intern user accounts. Create a new role for the interns and assign appropriate permissions on objects.

B. Add the interns to a new vRealize Operations Active Directory Group. Import the Active Directory group and grant access to relevant objects and all actions for the specific vCenter cluster.

C. Add the interns to the existing vRealize Operations administrators Active Directory group and grant access to relevant objects and all actions for the specific vCenter cluster.

D. Create a new Active Directory group for interns. Synchronize intern Group, create a new role for the interns and assign appropriate permissions on objects.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Consider the following requirements to be used in determining a vRealize Operations licensing model:

Authentication provided by Single Sign On Performance monitoring and analytics for 12 Hosts and 1 vCenter vSphere security and compliance monitoring for PCI and HIPAA Guided remediation for discovered issues Customizable dashboards, reports and views

Using the requirements, what is the minimum license that can be used for this deployment of vRealize Operations?

A. vRealize Cloud Universal Enterprise

B. Advanced

C. Standard

D. Enterprise

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

An organization wants to implement a network topology to provide users with a one-way upstream access to the external network.

Which two statements are true for implementing such a network profile type using NSX-T Data Center? (Choose two.)

A. The external network specified in the “Network Policies” tab will be used to assign an external IP to the VM

B. A DNAT rule is created o the Tier-1 router to allow the VM to communicate externally

C. The cloud template must use the “private” network profile type

D. The external network should be left blank in the “Network Policies” tab

E. An SNAT rule is created on the Tier-1 router to allow the VM to communicate externally

Correct Answer: AE


Question 12:

A customer wants to design and deploy Workspace ONE Access to provide multi-tenancy for vRA 8.x

deployment.

Which two designs decisions would achieve the customer\’s requirement? (Choose two.)

Note: SAN stands for Subject Alternative Name.

A. Configure a certificate with multiple SAN entries for Workspace ONE Access.

B. Configure SSL termination on the load balancer for Workspace ONE Access.

C. Configure SSL bridging on the load balancer for Workspace ONE Access.

D. Configure SSL passthrough on the load balancer for Workspace ONE Access.

E. Configure a certificate with a single SAN entry for Workspace ONE Access.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 13:

Which recommendation should an architect make when designing a highly available vRealize Operation (vROps) cluster?

A. Deploy analytics nodes with the same disk size on storage of the same type.

B. Depending on the size and performance requirements for analytics nodes, apply Storage DRS Affinity rules to ensure that nodes are on same datastores.

C. If the sizing guideline provides several configurations for the same number of objects, use the configuration which has the greatest number of nodes.

D. Set Storage DRS to Fully Automated for all vRealize Operations Manager analytics nodes.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

When designing a load-balanced vRealize Operations cluster, which three aspects should an architect consider? (Choose three.)

A. Maximizing node participation in the handling of UI sessions and traffic

B. Providing high availability if any admin or data node fails

C. Reducing the number of certificates that must be managed for the nodes

D. Minimizing node latency in the handling of UI sessions and traffic

E. Simplifying the configuration of End Point Operations (EPOps) agents

F. Providing fault tolerance if any admin or data node fails

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 15:

What level of design will contain an automation platform, an operational monitoring platform, and a desktop platform?

A. Physical Design

B. Conceptual Design

C. Detailed Design

D. Logical Design

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

A backup administrator has configured Dell EMC NetWorker and Data Domain Cloud Tier devices in NMC. What is the correct process flow of the backup data and control path?

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

An EMC NetWorker backup job has failed 95% of the way through its operation.

Which functionality is provided by the checkpoint restart feature?

A. The backup can continue from the last known good point

B. The backup can always continue exactly where it left off

C. The backup can be merged with data from the last server checkpoint

D. The backup must be restarted from the beginning

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which EMC NetWorker feature allows for a failed backup to restart at a known good point prior to the backup failure?

A. CheckPoint Restart

B. Client Retries

C. Scheduled Backup Attempts

D. Restart Window

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

An administrator in an EMC NetWorker environment wants to know the exact backup creation date and time along with the backup level.

Which EMC NetWorker functionality should be used to find this information?

A. Tracking and reporting

B. Aging

C. NMC Monitoring

D. Daemon log

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A storage administrator backs up an Exchange server to an EMC Data Domain system. The Data Domain system is configured as an advanced file device. The administrator now wants to create a copy of the backup and send it to tape. The backup job completed at 8pm. The administrator wants the copy to be created at 9pm.

Which option should be used?

A. Use the Scheduled Cloning attribute to schedule a clone job to start at 9pm.

B. Run the nsrclone command at 8pm and the second copy will be directed to tape at 9pm.

C. Enable the “clones” attribute in the client\’s group setting.

D. From the Administration window, under Media select Save Sets and then the Query Save Set tab. Create clone copies of the backup at 8pm.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

The calendar shows the level backup that was taken on each day. Which data is sent to the backup server on Friday\’s backup?

A. All changes since Tuesday

B. All changes since Monday

C. All changes since Wednesday

D. All changes since Thursday

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An EMC NetWorker backup environment consists of a large database server to be backed up. Backups are performed nightly.

Which schedule would you use starting on Sunday to minimize the number of save sets required for recovery on Friday morning?

A. B. C. D.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What EMC NetWorker software component controls the backup device in an EMC NetWorker Data Zone?

A. Storage Node

B. Client

C. Server

D. EMC NetWorker Management Console

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

A customer has recently purchased a Data Domain appliance to use with EMC NetWorker as the primary storage. The backup administrator needs to configure EMC NetWorker so that multiple backups and recoveries can be performed from a single device at any given time.

What type of device should the backup administrator configure?

A. AFTD

B. LTO

C. FTD

D. NFS

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which protocol is used when performing an EMC NetWorker backup to a cloud device?

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. OST

D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which type of device is referred to as a BOOST device?

A. Data Domain

B. File Type

C. Advance File Type

D. Cloud

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which backup level requires the fewest number of volumes to restore?

A. Full

B. Level 5

C. Level 1

D. Incremental

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

How can an EMC NetWorker administrator achieve a recovery of an EMC NetWorker resource database?

A. Perform a browsable recovery of the /nsr/index directory

B. Rebuild the database with nsrck command

C. Recover the SYSTEM save set

D. Recover the bootstrap save set with mmrecov

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

What is a characteristic of how the EMC NetWorker modules integrate with native applications?

A. EMC NetWorker module acts as an intermediate layer between EMC NetWorker and the native application.

B. The application vendor provides EMC NetWorker module to allow data protection with EMC NetWorker.

C. EMC NetWorker module runs on EMC NetWorker server and acts as an intermediate layer for backup data from EMC NetWorker client.

D. EMC NetWorker module runs on EMC NetWorker storage node and acts as an intermediate layer for backup data from EMC NetWorker client.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What components are included with EMC NetWorker Module for Microsoft Applications?

A. PowerSnap and Replication Manager

B. PowerSnap and Microsoft VSS

C. Microsoft VSS and Replication Manager

D. PowerSnap and EMC Solutions Enabler

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

If you receive a RST packet while doing an ACK scan, it indicates that the port is open.(True/False).

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

When and ACK is sent to an open port, a RST is returned.


Question 2:

Theresa is an IT security analyst working for the United Kingdom Internet Crimes Bureau in London. Theresa has been assigned to the software piracy division which focuses on taking down individual and organized groups that distribute copyrighted software illegally. Theresa and her division have been responsible for taking down over 2,000 FTP sites hosting copyrighted software. Theresa\’s supervisor now wants her to focus on finding and taking down websites that host illegal pirated software. What are these sights called that Theresa has been tasked with taking down?

A. These sites that host illegal copyrighted software are called Warez sites

B. These sites that Theresa has been tasked to take down are called uTorrent sites

C. These websites are referred to as Dark Web sites

D. Websites that host illegal pirated versions of software are called Back Door sites

Correct Answer: A

The Warez scene, often referred to as The Scene (often capitalized) is a term of self-reference used by a community that specializes in the underground distribution of pirated content, typically software but increasingly including movies and music.


Question 3:

Justine is the systems administrator for her company, an international shipping company with offices all over the world. Recent US regulations have forced the company to implement stronger and more secure means of communication. Justine and other administrators have been put in charge of securing the company\’s digital communication lines. After implementing email encryption, Justine now needs to implement robust digital signatures to ensure data authenticity and reliability. Justine has decided to implement digital signatures which are a variant of DSA and that operate on elliptical curve groups. These signatures are more efficient than DSA and are not vulnerable to a number field sieve attacks.

What type of signature has Justine decided to implement?

A. She has decided to implement ElGamal signatures since they offer more reliability than the typical DSA signatures

B. Justine has decided to use ECDSA signatures since they are more efficient than DSA signatures

C. Justine is now utilizing SHA-1 with RSA signatures to help ensure data reliability

D. These types of signatures that Justine has decided to use are called RSA-PSS signatures

Correct Answer: B

The Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm (ECDSA) is a variant of the Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA) which uses Elliptic curve cryptography. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elliptic_Curve_DSA


Question 4:

James is an IT security consultant as well as a certified ethical hacker. James has been asked to audit the network security of Yerta Manufacturing, a tool manufacturing company in Phoenix. James performs some initial external tests and then begins testing the security from inside the company\’s network.

James finds some big problems right away; a number of users that are working on Windows XP computers have saved their usernames and passwords used to connect to servers on the network. This way, those users do not have to type in their credentials every time they want access to a server. James tells the IT manager of Yerta Manufacturing about this, and the manager does not believe this is possible on Windows XP. To prove his point, James has a user logon to a computer and then James types in a command that brings up a window that says “Stored User Names and Passwords”.

What command did James type in to get this window to come up?

A. To bring up this stored user names and passwords window, James typed in “rundll32.exe storedpwd.dll, ShowWindow”

B. James had to type in “rundll32.exe keymgr.dll, KRShowKeyMgr” to get the window to pop up

C. James typed in the command “rundll32.exe storedpwd.dll” to get the Stored User Names and Passwords window to come up

D. The command to bring up this window is “KRShowKeyMgr”

Correct Answer: B

The Stored User Names and Passwords applet lets you assign user names and passwords to use when needing to authenticate yourself to services in domains other than the one you are currently logged into. The normal way of running this applet can be difficult to find quickly, so here is a way to launch it using a desktop shortcut using the rundll32.exe program:

Click on START – RUN and type the following (follwed by ENTER): rundll32.exe keymgr.dll,KRShowKeyMgr

http://www.tweakxp.com/article37352.aspx


Question 5:

Darren is the network administrator for Greyson and Associates, a large law firm in Houston. Darren is responsible for all network functions as well as any digital forensics work that is needed. Darren is examining the firewall logs one morning and notices some unusual activity. He traces the activity target to one of the firm\’s internal file servers and finds that many documents on that server were destroyed. After performing some calculations, Darren finds the damage to be around $75,000 worth of lost data. Darren decides that this incident should be handled and resolved within the same day of its discovery.

What incident level would this situation be classified as?

A. This situation would be classified as a mid-level incident

B. Since there was over $50,000 worth of loss, this would be considered a high-level incident

C. Because Darren has determined that this issue needs to be addressed in the same day it was discovered, this would be considered a low-level incident

D. This specific incident would be labeled as an immediate-level incident

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Jason works in the sales and marketing department for a very large advertising agency located in Atlanta. Jason is working on a very important marketing campaign for his company\’s largest client. Before the project could be completed and implemented, a competing advertising company comes out with the exact same marketing materials and advertising, thus rendering all the work done for Jason\’s client unusable. Jason is questioned about this and says he has no idea how all the material ended up in the hands of a competitor.

Without any proof, Jason\’s company cannot do anything except move on. After working on another high profile client for about a month, all the marketing and sales material again ends up in the hands of another competitor and is released to the public before Jason\’s company can finish the project. Once again, Jason says that he had nothing to do with it and does not know how this could have happened. Jason is given leave with pay until they can figure out what is going on.

Jason\’s supervisor decides to go through his email and finds a number of emails that were sent to the competitors that ended up with the marketing material. The only items in the emails were attached jpg files, but nothing else. Jason\’s supervisor opens the picture files, but cannot find anything out of the ordinary with them.

What technique has Jason most likely used?

A. Stealth Rootkit Technique

B. Snow Hiding Technique

C. ADS Streams Technique

D. Image Steganography Technique

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Curt has successfully compromised a web server sitting behind a firewall using a vulnerability in the web server program. He would now like to install a backdoor program but knows that all ports are not open inbound on the firewall. Which port in the list below will most likely be open and allowed to reach the server that Curt has just compromised? (Select the Best Answer)

A. 53

B. 25

C. 110

D. 69

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which of the following countermeasure can specifically protect against both the MAC Flood and MAC Spoofing attacks?

A. Configure Port Security on the switch

B. Configure Port Recon on the switch

C. Configure Switch Mapping

D. Configure Multiple Recognition on the switch

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What type of session hijacking attack is shown in the exhibit?

A. Cross-site scripting Attack

B. SQL Injection Attack

C. Token sniffing Attack

D. Session Fixation Attack

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Peter extracts the SID list from Windows 2008 Server machine using the hacking tool “SIDExtracter”. Here is the output of the SIDs:

From the above list identify the user account with System Administrator privileges?

A. John

B. Rebecca

C. Sheela

D. Shawn

E. Somia

F. Chang

G. Micah

Correct Answer: F


Question 11:

This attack uses social engineering techniques to trick users into accessing a fake Web site and divulging personal information. Attackers send a legitimate- looking e-mail asking users to update their information on the company\’s Web site, but the URLs in the e-mail actually point to a false Web site.

A. Wiresharp attack

B. Switch and bait attack

C. Phishing attack

D. Man-in-the-Middle attack

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What is the correct command to run Netcat on a server using port 56 that spawns command shell when connected?

A. nc -port 56 -s cmd.exe

B. nc -p 56 -p -e shell.exe

C. nc -r 56 -c cmd.exe

D. nc -L 56 -t -e cmd.exe

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

In which part of OSI layer, ARP Poisoning occurs?

A. Transport Layer

B. Datalink Layer

C. Physical Layer

D. Application layer

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

You want to hide a secret.txt document inside c:\windows\system32\tcpip.dll kernel library using ADS streams. How will you accomplish this?

A. copy secret.txt c:\windows\system32\tcpip.dll kernel>secret.txt

B. copy secret.txt c:\windows\system32\tcpip.dll:secret.txt

C. copy secret.txt c:\windows\system32\tcpip.dll |secret.txt

D. copy secret.txt >< c:\windows\system32\tcpip.dll kernel secret.txt

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

XSS attacks occur on Web pages that do not perform appropriate bounds checking on data entered by users. Characters like that mark the beginning/end of a tag should be converted into HTML entities.

What is the correct code when converted to html entities?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Huawei product technology training is designed based on the entire life cycle of the service, so all product line courses have corresponding plans,

A. True eeN#

B. False >

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which kind of scene is not to be provided by T? ()

A. original labor platform is about to pass insurance / B over insurance, it seems to purchase Huawei\’s virtual platform

B. New 11; After the battle, it seems to purchase Huawei\’s virtual platform

C. original It platform space can no longer be expanded again, through the purchase of Huawei\’s optimistic platform for more room for privacy

D. original IT platform performance B can not meet the needs of it, buy Huawei virtual m platform to soar performance

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

IP network project service expansion when to introduce service sales is most appropriate

A. customer\’s pre-project M {IM file)

B. customer is in the middle

C. After the client has established the project

D. customer after bidding

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

The status quo of traditional special IT subcontracting (multiple choices)

A. Each subcontractor draws up with each other ()

B. subcontractors are separated from each other ()

C. customer Lei wants more communication |

D. tube buried simple

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 5:

Huawei Enterprise Network China Data Center L1 Integration Service Project Contract Level U

A. is integrated (positive case)

B. BMf$, ^

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

The highest level of Huawei\’s itiA certificate system is Huawei certification Interne.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Huawei let migration solution: scheme is mainly divided into three kinds of fields, _ one is wrong? >

A. P2V also

B. other factories _ migration between umbrellas Positive case>

C. V2V \’

D. Huawei cloud platform internal migration

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

The L1 integration project of the teaching center is: the guilt that the R feedback should contain is (multiple choice)

A. client\’s capital budget and time requirements ()

B. Day of the customer show, the situation of the S, the progress of the channel platform

C. main competition opponents dynamic

D. current project operation phase ()

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 9:

Cloud IDC project government investment style (multiple choice)

A. financial allocation chess

B. BT chess style file>

C. public *

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

Huawei\’s acquisition and certification system is based on years of experience in information and communication technology, and the development of the development of the ii. The tomb of the ICT households allows the individual to take the development cycle of the chain, with the hierarchical job-oriented technical certification as a guide. , Huawei\’s “cloud one end of one” erosion technology, the introduction of IP, IT, CT and ICT shafting technology certification system; is the only ICT full technical field certification system.

A. true

B. False>

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Huawei takes the ii certificationT o represent, the following is correct in the “CAhT” CT English mother is: (]

A. Certificate (recognition 5E)

B. Convergence

C. Cover (coverage)

D. Complete

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Data Center L1 Level 11; : 4S Stage Target ( > (multiple choice)

A. 1 from the existing contract interface and output service <positive)

B. sub-packaged Yan Guanyu and Tips (in the case of the case)

C. is good for steep resources and bad {correct case>

D. to make a reasonable S-effect construction plan | >

E. do a good job before the completion of technical delivery and training (positive _ murder case)

Correct Answer: ABCDE


Question 13:

The total integration mode can be completed by one bidding

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

The IP network planning and design service includes a simulation and simulation of the customer\’s

A. error

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

The PUE value is the ratio of the overall power consumption of the equipment room to < ).

A. A air conditioning consumption

B. UPS hole

C. IT set up power consumption positive>case

D. lighting power consumption

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

A company is deploying ArubaOS-CX switches to support 135 employees, which will tunnel client traffic to an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC) for the MC to apply firewall policies and deep packet inspection (DPI). This MC will be dedicated to receiving traffic from the ArubaOS-CX switches.

What are the licensing requirements for the MC?

A. one AP license per-switch

B. one PEF license per-switch

C. one PEF license per-switch. and one WCC license per-switch

D. one AP license per-switch. and one PEF license per-switch

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which is a correct description of a stage in the Lockheed Martin kill chain?

A. In the delivery stage, malware collects valuable data and delivers or exfilltrated it to the hacker.

B. In the reconnaissance stage, the hacker assesses the impact of the attack and how much information was exfilltrated.

C. In the weaponization stage, which occurs after malware has been delivered to a system, the malware executes Its function.

D. In the exploitation and installation phases, malware creates a backdoor into the infected system for the hacker.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

You are deploying a new ArubaOS Mobility Controller (MC), which is enforcing authentication to Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM). The authentication is not working correctly, and you find the error shown In the exhibit in the CPPM Event Viewer.

What should you check?

A. that the MC has been added as a domain machine on the Active Directory domain with which CPPM is synchronized

B. that the snared secret configured for the CPPM authentication server matches the one defined for the device on CPPM

C. that the IP address that the MC is using to reach CPPM matches the one defined for the device on CPPM

D. that the MC has valid admin credentials configured on it for logging into the CPPM

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

A diem is connected to an ArubaOS Mobility Controller. The exhibit snows all Tour firewall rules that apply to this diem

What correctly describes how the controller treats HTTPS packets to these two IP addresses, both of which are on the other side of the firewall?

10.1 10.10

203.0.13.5

A. It drops both of the packets

B. It permits the packet to 10.1.10.10 and drops the packet to 203 0.13.5

C. it permits both of the packets

D. It drops the packet to 10.1.10.10 and permits the packet to 203.0.13.5.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is one way that WPA3-PerSonal enhances security when compared to WPA2- Personal?

A. WPA3-Perscn3i is more secure against password leaking Because all users nave their own username and password

B. WPA3-Personai prevents eavesdropping on other users\’ wireless traffic by a user who knows the passphrase for the WLAN.

C. WPA3-Personai is more resistant to passphrase cracking Because it requires passphrases to be at least 12 characters

D. WPA3-Personal is more complicated to deploy because it requires a backend authentication server

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You have been asked to rind logs related to port authentication on an ArubaOS-CX switch for events logged in the past several hours But. you are having trouble searching through the logs. What is one approach that you can take to find the relevant logs?

A. Add the “-C and *-c port-access” options to the “show logging” command.

B. Configure a logging Tiller for the “port-access” category, and apply that filter globally.

C. Enable debugging for “portaccess” to move the relevant logs to a buffer.

D. Specify a logging facility that selects for “port-access” messages.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

How can you use the thumbprint?

A. Install this thumbprint on management stations to use as two-factor authentication along with manager usernames and passwords, this will ensure managers connect from valid stations

B. Copy the thumbprint to other Aruba switches to establish a consistent SSH Key for all switches this will enable managers to connect to the switches securely with less effort

C. When you first connect to the switch with SSH from a management station, make sure that the thumbprint matches to ensure that a man-in-t he-mid die (MITM) attack is not occurring

D. install this thumbprint on management stations the stations can then authenticate with the thumbprint instead of admins having to enter usernames and passwords.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What is a benefit of deploying Aruba ClearPass Device insight?

A. Highly accurate endpoint classification for environments with many devices types, including Internet of Things (loT)

B. visibility into devices\’ 802.1X supplicant settings and automated certificate deployment

C. Agent-based analysts of devices\’ security settings and health status, with the ability to implement quarantining

D. Simpler troubleshooting of ClearPass solutions across an environment with multiple ClearPass Policy Managers

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What are the roles of 802.1X authenticators and authentication servers?

A. The authenticator stores the user account database, while the server stores access policies.

B. The authenticator supports only EAP, while the authentication server supports only RADIUS.

C. The authenticator is a RADIUS client and the authentication server is a RADIUS server.

D. The authenticator makes access decisions and the server communicates them to the supplicant.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

A company has Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Aruba campus APs. and ArubaOS-CX switches. The company plans to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to classify endpoints by type The ClearPass admins tell you that they want to run Network scans as part of the solution.

What should you do to configure the infrastructure to support the scans?

A. Create a TA profile on the ArubaOS-Switches with the root CA certificate for ClearPass\’s HTTPS certificate

B. Create device fingerprinting profiles on the ArubaOS-Switches that include SNMP. and apply the profiles to edge ports

C. Create remote mirrors on the ArubaOS-Swrtches that collect traffic on edge ports, and mirror it to CPPM\’s IP address.

D. Create SNMPv3 users on ArubaOS-CX switches, and make sure that the credentials match those configured on CPPM

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What is a difference between radius and TACACS ?

A. RADIUS combines the authentication and authorization process while TACACS separates them.

B. RADIUS uses TCP for Its connection protocol, while TACACS uses UDP tor its connection protocol.

C. RADIUS encrypts the complete packet, white TACACS only offers partial encryption.

D. RADIUS uses Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) in its messages, while TACACS does not use them.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You have been instructed to look in the ArubaOS Security Dashboard\’s client list Your goal is to find clients mat belong to the company and have connected to devices that might belong to hackers.

Which client fits this description?

A. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6d;a4; Client Classification Authorized; AP Classification, interfering

B. MAC address d8:50:e6 f3;6e;c5; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Neighbor

C. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6e;60; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Interfering

D. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;TO;ab; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Rogue

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

From which solution can ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) receive detailed information about client device type OS and status?

A. ClearPass Onboard

B. ClearPass Access Tracker

C. ClearPass OnGuard

D. ClearPass Guest

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

You are troubleshooting an authentication issue for Aruba switches that enforce 802 IX10 a cluster of Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPMs) You know that CPPM Is receiving and processing the authentication requests because the Aruba switches are showing Access-Rejects in their statistics However, you cannot find the record tor the Access- Rejects in CPPM Access Tracker.

What is something you can do to look for the records?

A. Make sure that CPPM cluster settings are configured to show Access-Rejects

B. Verify that you are logged in to the CPPM Ul with read-write, not read-only, access

C. Click Edit in Access viewer and make sure that the correct servers are selected.

D. Go to the CPPM Event Viewer, because this is where RADIUS Access Rejects are stored.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A company with 382 employees wants to deploy an open WLAN for guests. The company wants the experience to be as follows:

The company also wants to provide encryption for the network for devices mat are capable, you implement Tor the WLAN.

Which security options should?

A. WPA3-Personal and MAC-Auth

B. Captive portal and WPA3-Personai

C. Captive portal and Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) in transition mode

D. Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) and WPA3-Personal

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Refer to exhibits.

Exhibit A shows the traffic shaping policy and exhibit B shows the firewall policy.

FortiGate is not performing traffic shaping as expected, based on the policies shown in the exhibits.

To correct this traffic shaping issue on FortiGate, what configuration change must be made on which

policy?

A. The URL category must be specified on the traffic shaping policy.

B. The shaper mode must be applied per-IP shaper on the traffic shaping policy.

C. The web filter profile must be enabled on the firewall policy.

D. The application control profile must be enabled on the firewall policy.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which statement defines how a per-IP traffic shaper of 10 Mbps is applied to the entire network?

A. The 10 Mbps bandwidth is shared equally among the IP addresses.

B. Each IP is guaranteed a minimum 10 Mbps of bandwidth.

C. FortiGate allocates each IP address a maximum 10 Mbps of bandwidth.

D. A single user uses the allocated bandwidth divided by total number of users.

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/885253/per-ip-traffic-shaper


Question 3:

Which three parameters are available to configure SD-WAN rules? (Choose three.)

A. Application signatures

B. Incoming interface

C. Internet service database (ISDB) address object

D. Source and destination IP address

E. Type of physical link connection

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 4:

Which diagnostic command you can use to show interface-specific SLA logs for the last 10 minutes?

A. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link health-check

B. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link log

C. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link sla-log

D. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link intf-sla-log

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/943037/sla-logging


Question 5:

Which diagnostic command can you use to show the SD-WAN rules interface information and state?

A. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link route-tag-list.

B. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link service.

C. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link member.

D. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link neighbor.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/818746/sd-wan-related-diagnosecommands


Question 6:

Refer to exhibits.

Exhibit A shows the performance SLA exhibit B shows the SD-WAN diagnostics output. Based on the exhibits, which statement is correct?

A. Port1 became dead because no traffic was offload through the egress of port1.

B. SD-WAN member interfaces are affected by the SLA state of the inactive interface.

C. Both SD-WAN member interfaces have used separate SLA targets.

D. The SLA state of port1 is dead after five unanswered requests by the SLA servers.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which statement is correct about the SD-WAN and ADVPN?

A. Spoke support dynamic VPN as a static interface.

B. Dynamic VPN is not supported as an SD-WAN interface.

C. ADVPN interface can be a member of SD-WAN interface.

D. Hub FortiGate is limited to use ADVPN as SD-WAN member interface.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Refer to exhibits.

Exhibit A shows the source NAT global setting and exhibit B shows the routing table on FortiGate.

Based on the exhibits, which two statements about increasing the port2 interface priority to 20 are true? (Choose two.)

A. All the existing sessions that do not use SNAT will be flushed and routed through port1.

B. All the existing sessions will continue to use port2, and new sessions will use port1.

C. All the existing sessions using SNAT will be flushed and routed through port1.

D. All the existing sessions will be blocked from using port1 and port2.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 9:

Which components make up the secure SD-WAN solution?

A. FortiGate, FortiManager, FortiAnalyzer, and FortiDeploy

B. Application, antivirus, and URL, and SSL inspection

C. Datacenter, branch offices, and public cloud

D. Telephone, ISDN, and telecom network

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the status of the VPN tunnel are true? (Choose two.)

A. There are separate virtual interfaces for each dial-up client.

B. VPN static routes are prevented from populating the FortiGate routing table.

C. FortiGate created a single IPsec virtual interface that is shared by all clients.

D. 100.64.3.1 is one of the remote IP address that comes through index interface 1.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 11:

Refer to exhibits.

Exhibit A shows the SD-WAN rules and exhibit B shows the traffic logs. The SD-WAN traffic logs reflect how FortiGate processed traffic.

Which two statements about how the configured SD-WAN rules are processing traffic are true? (Choose two.)

A. The implicit rule overrides all other rules because parameters widely cover sources and destinations.

B. SD-WAN rules are evaluated in the same way as firewall policies: from top to bottom.

C. The All_Access_Rules rule load balances Vimeo application traffic among SD-WAN member interfaces.

D. The initial session of an application goes through a learning phase in order to apply the correct rule.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

What are the two minimum configuration requirements for an outgoing interface to be selected once the SD-WAN logical interface is enabled? (Choose two.)

A. Specify outgoing interface routing cost.

B. Configure SD-WAN rules interface preference.

C. Select SD-WAN balancing strategy.

D. Specify incoming interfaces in SD-WAN rules.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibit, which statement about FortiGate re-evaluating traffic is true?

A. The type of traffic defined and allowed on firewall policy ID 1 is UDP.

B. Changes have been made on firewall policy ID 1 on FortiGate.

C. Firewall policy ID 1 has source NAT disabled.

D. FortiGate has terminated the session after a change on policy ID 1.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What are two reasons why FortiGate would be unable to complete the zero-touch provisioning process? (Choose two.)

A. The FortiGate cloud key has not been added to the FortiGate cloud portal.

B. FortiDeploy has connected with FortiGate and provided the initial configuration to contact FortiManager.

C. FortiGAte has obtained a configuration from the platform template in FortiGate cloud.

D. A factory reset performed on FortiGate.

E. The zero-touch provisioning process has completed internally, behind FortiGate.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 15:

Which two statements reflect the benefits of implementing the ADVPN solution to replace conventional VPN topologies? (Choose two.)

A. It creates redundant tunnels between hub-and-spokes, in case failure takes place on the primary links.

B. It dynamically assigns cost and weight between the hub and the spokes, based on the physical distance.

C. It ensures that spoke-to-spoke traffic no longer needs to flow through the tunnels through the hub.

D. It provides direct connectivity between all sites by creating on-demand tunnels between spokes.

Correct Answer: CD


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Question 1:

Which setting in indexes. conf allows data retention to be controlled by time?

A. maxDaysToKeep

B. moveToFrozenAfter

C. maxDataRetentionTime

D. frozenTimePeriodlnSecs

Correct Answer: D

https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/latest/Indexer/Setaretirementandarchivingpolicy


Question 2:

The universal forwarder has which capabilities when sending data? (select all that apply)

A. Sending alerts

B. Compressing data

C. Obfuscating/hiding data

D. Indexer acknowledgement

Correct Answer: BD

https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.1/Forwarding/Aboutforwardingandreceivingdat a


Question 3:

In case of a conflict between a whitelist and a blacklist input setting, which one is used?

A. Blacklist

B. Whitelist

C. They cancel each other out.

D. Whichever is entered into the configuration first.

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.4/Data/Whitelistorblacklistspecificincomingdat a


Question 4:

In which Splunk configuration is the SEDCMD used?

A. props, conf

B. inputs.conf

C. indexes.conf

D. transforms.conf

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.5/Forwarding/Forwarddatatothird- partysystemsd


Question 5:

Which parent directory contains the configuration files in Splunk?

A. SSFLUNK_KOME/etc

B. SSPLUNK_HCME/var

C. SSPLUNK_HOME/conf

D. SSPLUNK_HOME/default

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which forwarder type can parse data prior to forwarding?

A. Universal forwarder

B. Heaviest forwarder

C. Hyper forwarder

D. Heavy forwarder

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which Splunk component consolidates the individual results and prepares reports in a distributed environment?

A. Indexers

B. Forwarder

C. Search head

D. Search peers

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which Splunk component distributes apps and certain other configuration updates to search head cluster members?

A. Deployer

B. Cluster master

C. Deployment server

D. Search head cluster master

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Where should apps be located on the deployment server that the clients pull from?

A. $SFLUNK_KOME/etc/apps

B. $SPLUNK_HCME/etc/sear:ch

C. $SPLUNK_HCME/etc/master-apps

D. $SPLUNK HCME/etc/deployment-apps

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

This file has been manually created on a universal forwarder

A new Splunk admin comes in and connects the universal forwarders to a deployment server and deploys the same app with a new

Which file is now monitored?

A. /var/log/messages

B. /var/log/maillog

C. /var/log/maillog and /var/log/messages

D. none of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

In which phase of the index time process does the license metering occur?

A. input phase

B. Parsing phase

C. Indexing phase

D. Licensing phase

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

You update a props. conf file while Splunk is running. You do not restart Splunk and you run this command: splunk btoo1 props list –debug. What will the output be?

A. list of all the configurations on-disk that Splunk contains.

B. A verbose list of all configurations as they were when splunkd started.

C. A list of props. conf configurations as they are on-disk along with a file path from which the configuration is located

D. A list of the current running props, conf configurations along with a file path from which the configuration was made

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

When running the command shown below, what is the default path in which deployment server.conf is created?

splunk set deploy-poll deployServer:port

A. SFLUNK_HOME/etc/deployment

B. SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/local

C. SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/default

D. SPLUNK_KOME/etc/apps/deployment

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

The priority of layered Splunk configuration files depends on the file\’s:

A. Owner

B. Weight

C. Context

D. Creation time

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

When configuring monitor inputs with whitelists or blacklists, what is the supported method of filtering the lists?

A. Slash notation

B. Regular expression

C. Irregular expression

D. Wildcard-only expression

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

What can proxy servers do? (Choose three.)

A. Rewrite request messages

B. Interpret request messages

C. Block malicious content

D. Scan traffic for viruses

Correct Answer: ACD

Reference: https://origin-symwisedownload.symantec.com/resources/webguides/proxysg/security_first_steps/Content/PDFs/Malware_Prevention_Solution.pdf


Question 2:

A newly-shipped physical ProxySG contains what type of license?

A. Trial

B. Demo

C. Permanent

D. Provisional

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://origin-symwisedownload.symantec.com/resources/webguides/proxysg/6.2/acceleration_webguide/Content/02Tasks/Maintenance/view_license_information_ta.htm


Question 3:

Which Symantec product is best suited for simultaneously administering a large number of ProxySG appliances?

A. Reporter

B. PacketShaper

C. Content Analysis

D. Management Center

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Where is the WebFilter database stored? (Choose two.)

A. On clients\’ mobile devices

B. On a properly licensed ProxySG

C. At several data centers around the world

D. At third-party data centers

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

When does the ProxySG establish an Schannel?

A. When a client request is first received

B. When the client sends an NTLM type 2 message to ProxySG

C. When IWA authentication fails

D. When the client sends an NTLM type 3 message to the ProxySG

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Name three methods by which client configuration can be performed in an explicit ProxySG deployment. (Choose three.)

A. Configure the user agent to point to the IP address or hostname of the ProxySG

B. Configure the user agent to point to the location of a PAC file

C. Configure the user agent to use WPAD

D. Use Symantec Management Center to configure the user agent

E. Configure forwarding hosts on the ProxySG

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 7:

If you have configured continuous uploading of access logs and the ProxySG is unable to reach the upload destination, what happens to the log entries?

A. They are uploaded in real time to the backup upload destination configured in the Management Console

B. None of these answers

C. They are stored locally until the connection is re-established, and then they are uploaded

D. They are discarded

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

SGOS is based on which other operating system?

A. Unix

B. VxWorks

C. pSOS

D. None of these answers

E. Windows

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

When will a policy trace report a rule processing result of “N/A”?

A. When the rule is not reached during evaluation

B. When the rule makes no sense for the specific transaction being processed

C. When the layer containing the rule is disabled

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

SGOS is which of the following?

A. Linux-based

B. Windows-based

C. A custom-built operating system

D. A Symantec proprietary implementation of Unix

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

What does the SSL Proxy do by default?

A. Blocks encrypted traffic

B. Scans traffic for malware

C. Tunnels all HTTPS traffic

D. Intercepts all HTTPS traffic

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://wikileaks.org/spyfiles/files/0/219_BLUECOAT-SGOS_5.3.x_SSL_Proxy_Reference_Guide.pdf


Question 12:

What rules in a VPM layer are being evaluated, what causes evaluation to stop and proceed to the next layer?

A. A miss against the trigger in that rule

B. Neither a miss nor a match

C. A default policy of Deny

D. A match against the trigger in that rule

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which of the following are always included in both the request and response headers?

A. Information relevant to the connection between the client and the server

B. DNS query

C. ICAP version number

D. Cipher suite

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Does the policy trace flag malfunctioning policy?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

When policy created in the VPM is installed, what two files does the VPM update on the ProxySG? (Choose two.)

A. Local policy file

B. Central policy file

C. VPM-XML file

D. VPM-CPL file

Correct Answer: CD


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Question 1:

Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern?

A. Eavesdropping

B. Impersonating

C. Destructing

D. Altering

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

A software developer develops a software program and writes a document with step-by-step instructions on how to use the software. The developer wants to ensure no other person or company will publish this document for public use. Which of the following should the developer use to BEST protect the document?

A. Patent

B. Trademark

C. Watermark

D. Copyright

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which of the following database concepts would MOST likely use a CSV file?

A. Data querying

B. Data reports

C. Data importing

D. Data persistence

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A help desk technician encounters an issue and wants to find out if a colleague has encountered the same issue before. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?

A. Check Knowledge Base.

B. Search local logs.

C. Research possible theories.

D. Question users.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following BEST describes the practice of providing user credentials when logging onto the network?

A. Output

B. Storage

C. Input

D. Processing

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which of the following allows wireless devices to communicate to a wired network?

A. Modem

B. Switch

C. Firewall

D. Access point

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which of the following computing devices would be used to provide a centralized means to distribute services to a group of clients and usually possesses a role on a LAN?

A. Laptop

B. Workstation

C. Mobile phone

D. Server

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which of the following describes something in a database that refers to the unique identifier in the parent table?

A. Attribute

B. Constraint

C. Foreign key

D. Schema

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

For which of the following is a relational database management system MOST commonly used?

A. Building flowcharts

B. Storing information

C. Generating reports

D. Creating diagrams

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following BEST describes an application running on a typical operating system?

A. Process

B. Thread

C. Function

D. Task

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

The broadcast signal from a recently installed wireless access point is not as strong as expected. Which of the following actions would BEST improve the signal strength?

A. Update from 802.11b to 802.11g.

B. Ensure sources of EMI are removed.

C. Enable WPA2-Enterprise.

D. Use WiFi Protected Setup.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A user is getting an error message when trying to go to a website. A technician asks the user a few questions to find out more about the issue. The technician opens a browser locally and browses to the same site as the user. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the technician using by browsing to the same site?

A. Establish a plan of action.

B. Gather information

C. Duplicate the problem.

D. Find the root cause.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

A user is attempting to print a document to a wireless printer and receives an error stating the operation could not be completed. Which of the following should the user do to correct this issue?

A. Ensure both devices are connected to the LAN.

B. Enable task scheduling.

C. Reset the proxy settings to their default values.

D. Review the fault tolerance configurations.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following relational database constructs is used to ensure valid values are entered for a column?

A. Schema

B. Permissions

C. Constraint

D. Column

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A user is buying a laptop. The user will have a lot of personal and confidential information on the laptop. The user wants to ensure data cannot be accessed by anyone, even if the laptop is stolen. Which of the following should be set up to accomplish this?

A. Encryption

B. Compression

C. Permissions

D. Auditing

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

When using a RMX recording link, what configuration is mandatory on the RSS?

A. None

B. Active Directory

C. Multicast

D. Encryption

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

The technique used for reproducing an analog waveform as a digital signal is called:

A. Transcoding

B. Decoding

C. Pulse Code Modulation

D. Reproduction

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Where can you customize the DTMF codes used by the RMX?

A. Entry Queue

B. Conference Profile

C. Meeting Room

D. IVR Service

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

High-Definition Videoconferencing will require and use:

A. the same camera from NTSC and PAL VTC systems

B. typical off the shelf web camera

C. high-definition camera

D. all of the above

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

During a H.323 Videoconference, what is the correct bandwidth used by the G.711 and G.722 audio algorithms in a 256K conference call?

A. 30,000 bits per second

B. 40,000 bits per second

C. 128,000 bits per second

D. 64,000 bits per second

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following most accurately defines white balance?

A. The amount of white pixels that appear in a video frame

B. A feature that eliminates noises distributed uniformly over the frequency spectrum

C. A feature that splits the signal between the red, green, and blue components to make white

D. A feature that adjusts the signal between the red, green, and blue components that yield white video signals.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?

A. G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723

B. G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726

C. G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729

D. G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

H.239 Standard is best described as:

A. Audio Coding and Additional Media Channels.

B. Role Management and Additional Far End Camera Control.

C. Role Management and Chair Control.

D. Role Management or People and Content Standard for H.300 Series.

E. Role Management -People and Content Standard for H.321 only.

F. Role Management -People and Content Standard for H.320 only.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?

A. G.711

B. G.722

C. G.729

D. G.728

E. G.722.1

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Select three ways to improve Videoconferencing over IP Quality of Service.

A. Use FTP- File Transfer Protocol

B. Use TFTP-Trivial File Transfer Protocol

C. Use UDP-User Datagram Protocol

D. Use MPLS-Multi-Protocol Labeled Switching Network

E. Use IP Precedence

F. Use HTTP-Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

G. Use Differentiated Code Point Services

H. Use LAN interface End to End

Correct Answer: DEG


Question 11:

H.320 Terminals that are able to call a Gateway and connect to an H.323 Terminal by dialing the E.164 alias, registered with the Gatekeeper, are called:

A. Obsolete H.320 Terminals.

B. H.323 Terminals.

C. H.221 Terminals.

D. TCS-4 Terminals.

E. T.120 Terminals.

F. H.321 Terminals.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Under normal operating conditions, Microphone and Audio amplification system should have sufficient _______ to operate without clipping.

A. amplitude bias space

B. 100db padding

C. no padding

D. headroom

E. videoroom

F. voltage feedback

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Digital Access Cross-Connect Systems are used for Networks that are:

A. Dedicated Digital Channel Time Division Multiplexing Networks.

B. Switched Digital Channel Multiplexing Networks.

C. Packet Network Routers.

D. Ethernet Switches.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Ethernet is capable of automatically sensing the speed and duplicity of the LAN connection by using which process?

A. Flash Link Pulse

B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

C. Domain Name Services

D. Light-weight Directory Access Protocol

E. Resource Reservation Protocol

F. RAS Protocol

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which of the following best describes and defines Packet Jitter?

A. Serious Packet Loss

B. Random Packet Discard

C. Packet Network Errors

D. Packet Delay Time End to End

E. Packet Delay Time Variation from Packet to Packet

Correct Answer: E


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