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Question 1:

When many Scrum Teams are working on the same product, should all of their Increments be integrated every Sprint?

A. Yes, but only for Scrum Teams whose work has dependencies.

B. Yes, otherwise the Product Owners (and stakeholders) may not be able to accurately inspect what is done.

C. No, each Scrum Team stands alone.

D. No, that is far too hard and must be done in a hardening Sprint.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

When can a Development Team cancel a Sprint?

A. It can\’t. Only Product Owners can cancel Sprints.

B. When functional expectations are not well understood.

C. When the Product Owner is absent too often.

D. When the selected Product Backlog items for the Sprint become unachievable.

E. When a technical dependency cannot be resolved.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which output from Sprint Planning provides the Development Team with a target and overarching direction for the Sprint?

A. The Sprint Backlog.

B. The Sprint Goal

C. The release plan.

D. Sprint Review minutes.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

How should a Development Team deal with non-functional requirements?

A. Ensure every Increment meets them.

B. Make sure the release department understands these requirements, but it is not the Development Team\’s responsibility.

C. Handle them during the Integration Sprint preceding the Release Sprint.

D. Assign them to the lead developers on the team.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

When is a Sprint over?

A. When the Product Owner says it is done.

B. When all Product Backlog items meet their definition of “Done”.

C. When all the tasks are completed.

D. When the time-box expires.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Scrum has a role called “Project Manager”.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

How much time is required after a Sprint to prepare for the next Sprint?

A. The break between Sprints is time-boxed to 1 week for 30 day Sprints, and usually less for shorter sprints.

B. Enough time for the requirements for the next Sprint to be determined and documented.

C. Enough time for the Development team to finish the testing from the last Sprint.

D. None. A new Sprint starts immediately following the end of the previous Sprint.

E. All of the above are allowed depending on the situation.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

In the Sprint Planning meeting, the Product Owner and the Development Team were unable to reach a clear understanding about the highest order Product Backlog items. Because of this, the Development Team couldn\’t figure out how many Product Backlog items it could forecast for the upcoming Sprint. They were able to agree on a Sprint Goal, however.

Which of the following two actions should the Scrum Master support? (Choose two.)

A. Cancel the Sprint. Send the entire team to an advanced Scrum training and then start a new Sprint.

B. Forecast the most likely Product Backlog items to meet the goal and create a Sprint Backlog based on a likely initial design and plan. Once the time-box for the Sprint Planning meeting is over, start the Sprint and continue to analyze, decompose, and create additional functionality during the Sprint.

C. Continue the Sprint Planning meeting past its time-box until an adequate number of Product Backlog items are well enough understood for the Development Team to make a complete forecast. Then start the Sprint.

D. Discuss in the upcoming Sprint Retrospective why this happened and what changes will make it less likely to recur.

E. Ask everyone to take as much time as needed to analyze the Product Backlog first, and then reconvene another Sprint Planning meeting.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 9:

Which of the following is required by Scrum?

A. Sprint Retrospective.

B. Members must be stand up at the Daily Scrum.

C. Sprint Burndown Chart.

D. Release planning.

E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: E


Question 10:

Who determines when it is appropriate to update the Sprint Backlog during a Sprint?

A. The Project Manager.

B. The Development Team.

C. The Scrum Team.

D. The Product Owner.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Who must attend the Daily Scrum?

A. The Scrum Master and Product Owner.

B. The Development Team.

C. The Development Team and Product Owner.

D. The Scrum Team.

E. The Development Team and Scrum Master.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

When do Development Team members take ownership of a Sprint Backlog item? (Choose the best answer.)

A. At the Sprint planning meeting.

B. During the Daily Scrum.

C. Never. All Sprint Backlog Items are “owned” by the entire Scrum Team.

D. Whenever a team member can accommodate more work.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Five new Scrum Teams have been created to build one product. A few of the developers on one of the Development Teams ask the Scrum Master how to coordinate their work with the order teams. What should the Scrum Master do?

A. Teach the Product Owner to work with the lead developers on ordering Product Backlog in a way to avoid too much technical and development overlap during a Sprint.

B. Teach them that it is their responsibility to work with the other teams to create an integrated Increment.

C. Collect the Sprint tasks from the teams at the end of their Sprint Planning and merge that into a consolidated plan for the entire Sprint.

D. Visit the five teams each day to inspect that their Sprint Backlogs are aligned.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What are three ways Scrum promotes self-organization? (Choose three.)

A. By not allowing documentation.

B. By the Development Team deciding what work to do in a Sprint.

C. By preventing stakeholders from entering the development room.

D. By removing titles for Development Team members.

E. By being a lightweight framework.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 15:

What is the key concern when multiple Development Teams are working from the same Product Backlog?

A. Minimizing dependencies between teams.

B. Clear definition of requirements.

C. Meeting original scope projections.

D. Making sure there\’s enough work for everyone on every team.

E. Maximizing velocity.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which one of the following is the most relevant model for use in Phase C, Application Architecture?

A. The ARTS data model

B. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model

C. The Resource-Event-Agent model

D. The STEP framework

E. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

In Phase G, what document establishes the connection between the architecture organization and the implementation organization?

A. Architecture Contract

B. Architecture Landscape

C. Architecture Roadmap

D. Requirements Impact Statement

E. Transition Architecture

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

When determining the requirements for enterprise architecture work in the Preliminary Phase, which of the following is not a business imperative that should be considered?

A. Business requirements

B. Cultural aspirations

C. Forecast financial requirements

D. Strategic Intent

E. Technical elegance

Correct Answer: E


Question 4:

Which phase of the ADM is an on-going activity that is visited throughout a TOGAF architecture project?

A. Architecture Change Management

B. Implementation governance

C. Migration planning

D. Preliminary Phase

E. Requirements Management

Correct Answer: E


Question 5:

Which of the following statements best describes risk management in the ADM?

A. Risk analysis is best conducted in the Architecture Vision phase so that the risk is eliminated in subsequent phases

B. Risk analysis should be carried out first in the Migration Planning phase

C. Risk analysis is outside the scope of enterprise architecture projects

D. Risk is pervasive in all enterprise architecture activity and should be managed in all phases of the ADM

E. The only risks that are within the scope of enterprise architecture are technological risks

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following best describes capability based planning?

A. A business planning technique that focuses on business outcomes

B. A business planning technique that focuses on horizontal capabilities

C. A business planning technique that focuses on vertical capabilities

D. A human resource planning technique that focuses on capable architects

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which of the following is a technique recommended by TOGAF to help identify and understand requirements?

A. Architecture Maturity Models

B. Business Scenarios

C. Gap Analysis

D. Mind Maps

E. SWOT Analysis

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

The statement, “Getting information to the right people at the right time in a secure, reliable man-ner in order to support the operations that are core to the extended enterprise” describes the concept of_____

A. Boundaryless Information Flow

B. Interoperability

C. Portability

D. Service Oriented Architecture

E. Semantic Web

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which one of the following is recommended to define requirements and articulate the Architecture Vision created in Phase A?

A. Business scenario

B. Impact analysis

C. Mission statement

D. Requirements analysis

E. Solution architecture

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Gap Analysis is a technique used in Phases B, C, D and E. Which one of the following statements best describes the gap analysis technique?

A. It highlights areas of stakeholder concern

B. It highlights the impacts of change

C. It highlights services that are yet to be developed

D. It highlights services that are available

E. It highlights different viewpoints

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which one of the following describes the practice by which the enterprise architecture is managed and controlled at an enterprise-wide level?

A. Architecture governance

B. Corporate governance

C. IT governance

D. Technology governance

E. Portfolio management

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which one of the following does TOGAF Part VII recommend in order to implement an Enter-prise Architecture Capability?

A. Develop an Architecture Roadmap

B. Populate the Architecture Repository

C. Populate the Enterprise Continuum

D. Use the Architecture Development Method E. Use the Implementation Governance Phase

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which one of the following is an essential aspect of architecture governance?

A. Authoring the Architecture Definition Document

B. Ensuring the compliance of individual projects to the enterprise architecture

C. Controlling the implementation and deployment organizations

D. Authoring the Communications Plan for a given architecture project

E. Conducting Business Scenarios

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which one of the following describes a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review?

A. To define the capabilities of the organization

B. To communicate the technical readiness of the project

C. To evaluate the readiness of the organization to undergo change

D. To produce a new Request for Architecture Work

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Complete the sentence. In TOGAF, legacy systems and processes that are going to be used again in the future are considered ______

A. Architecture Building Blocks

B. Components

C. Patterns

D. Re-usable Building Blocks

E. Solution Building Blocks

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which of the following statements are true for H.264? (Choose two)

A. The size of an l-frame depends on the preceding P-frame

B. Increased motion in a scene means increased bit rate

C. Group of Video (GOV) length is directly affected by the sizes of the I- and P- frames

D. A P-frame references preceding and succeeding P-frames

E. Longer GOV length means reduced bit rate

Correct Answer: BE


Question 2:

Which is true regarding the use of a smoked (tinted) dome instead of a clear dome?

A. Decreases color fidelity

B. Decreases field of view

C. Disables infrared capabilities

D. Reduces light sensitivity

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Axis recommends shielded cables for outdoor installations primarily to ensure

A. Image quality.

B. Surge protection.

C. Life time of cable installations.

D. Conformity with SMPTE standard.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

In setting up PTZ control for an Axis encoder, it\’s very easy to overlook a very important step in the configuration process. After properly connecting the communication wires to the encoder, the next recommended step in the setup is:

A. Downloading the correct Device ID from the Axis website

B. Setting the Baud Rate to match the analog PTZ\’ s

C. Setting the Device ID to match the analog ID

D. Uploading the correct PTZ driver

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between three predefined positions?

A. Configure the camera\’s I/O ports to control the preset positions

B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions

C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick

D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

If a camera is pointed down a hallway with no windows and the color seems “washed out” or faded, which of the following settings should first be adjusted to improve the image?

A. Decrease image brightness

B. Increase image contrast

C. Uncheck backlight compensation

D. Adjust the exposure settings

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A Privacy mask added to Live View (Choose two)

A. Hides parts of the scene.

B. Restricts access to the camera.

C. Can be removed from recorded video.

D. Lowers the bandwidth usage.

E. Can be made into any shape.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

An analog system that should be upgraded to IP using encoders must have the end of the analog signal terminated. How many Ohm () should that be?

A. 50

B. 70

C. 75 D. 80

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A customer asks for a fixed mini dome with a DC-iris lens. 2.8-10 mm varifocal lens and wide dynamic range. Which of the following cameras is the only choice to fit all of the requirements?

A. AXIS P3301

B. AXIS M3203

C. AXIS Q1604

D. AXIS M5014

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Working with a retailer on a site survey, they ask if there\’s any way to get more of the aisle and less of the shelves on the short sides in the shot. An AXIS M3204 camera is being used. Which would be the best suggestion to the retailer?

A. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 10 mm

B. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 4 mm

C. Using Axis\’ Corridor Format

D. Switching the camera to a 16:9 view

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Increase of bandwidth and storage can be a result of (Choose two)

A. Changing from Motion JPEG to H.264.

B. Arctic Temperature Control.

C. High noise level.

D. The use of High PoE.

E. Image resolution.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 12:

A camera lens with a low f-stop value of 1.2 will outperform a lens with a higher f- stop value due to which one of the parameters below?

A. Better depth of field

B. Better low light capability

C. Improved sharpness

D. Less image artifacts

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

A customer wants his video surveillance system to completely cover the perimeter of his property. For the installer to ensure that the camera system is not subject to sabotage, he should

A. Install more low-priced cameras to cover the complete site.

B. Make sure each camera is seen by at least one other camera.

C. Use PoE, and not a PoE splitter.

D. Install thermal cameras.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

In what way does VAPIX ?help integrators?

A. It offers a multi-language tutorial for implementation of analytics

B. It improves efficiency when implementing multi-camera tracking

C. It connects products to automatically upgrade products with the latest firmware

D. The openness helps integrate Axis products with other system components

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

After an installer sets up a motion detection window they then zoom out the camera. How will this affect the camera\’s ability to detect motion if no settings are changed?

A. More pixels are needed to change to trigger motion detection

B. Less pixels are needed to change to trigger motion detection

C. More movement needed to change to trigger motion detection D. Less movement needed to change to trigger motion detection

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

You are implementing Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.

You need to set up available working hours to help desk representatives who have varying schedules.

What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

You view the interactive dashboard in the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Service Hub.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

You are configuring a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service instance.

Customer service manager cannot create new entitlements for customer service representatives.

You need to ensure that customer service managers can add new entitlement templates and knowledge base records for customer service representatives.

Which access levels should you apply? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 4:

A company implements Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.

Which status reason is used for each case status? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

You are a customer service representative working with cases in Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.

You need to manage multiple lists of cases.

Which actions should you perform? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 6:

A client plans to implement a case resolution process.

Which field types does the Case Resolution form use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

You use Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.

You need to merge cases.

What is the outcome for the merge process? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 8:

You are a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator. You create an article for a knowledge base. A reviewer selects articles for review.

You approve some articles and revert some articles to draft status.

For each action, what should you do next? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 9:

You manage Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.

You need to create a list of holidays and ensure that existing service-level agreements (SLAs) observe those holidays.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/create-customer-service-schedule-define-work-hours


Question 10:

You are a Dynamics 365 system administrator.

Your customer service team must define goal metrics to track and measure all resolved cases.

You need to create a goal metric with a rollup field.

In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/create-edit-goal-metric


Question 11:

You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator.

You need to import cases from a file without applying routing rules.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/create-rules-automatically-route-cases


Question 12:

A customer uses Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.

Customer service representatives must be able to create knowledge base articles.

You need to ensure that all knowledge base articles are submitted for review and approval before they are made available to use.

Which four actions must be performed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/customer-service-hub-user-guide-knowledge-article


Question 13:

You make a phone call regarding an existing case record.

You need to create a phone call activity that appears on the case record timeline.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

You are a customer service representative using Dynamics 365 Customer Service Hub.

You need to link the knowledge base records that relate to cases and send articles to customers.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in them correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 15:

You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.

You need to create service-level agreements (SLAs) to meet company requirements.

What SLA types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate SLA types to the correct requirements. Each SLA type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view

content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/define-service-level-agreements


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Question 1:

Joe, a user, sets up an IMAP connection on his smartphone to connect to webmail. Joe is able to view email, but he receives an error message when trying to send a message. When viewing the mail client\’s configuration, Joe sees a valid SMTP server and port. Which of the following should Joe check NEXT to resolve the issue?

A. Configure the email account as a POP3 connection

B. Ensure the SSL/TLS option is being used

C. Check that the account password is still valid

D. Make sure the smartphone is not in airplane mode

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity issues after a new wireless router was installed in an office. Users who connect to the new router are unable to access LAN resources. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. There are conflicting DHCP servers on the network

B. There are conflicting ARP records

C. There are conflicting gateways on the network

D. There are conflicting IP protocols

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A technician is setting up a WiFi-enabled thermostat for a customer, but the customer is concerned about IoT devices getting hacked.

Which of the following BEST address the customer\’s concerns? (Choose two.)

A. Use the latest encryption standard on the wireless network and set a strong password.

B. Enable two-factor authentication for the IoT device\’s cloud account, if it is available.

C. Separate the IoT thermostat by segregating it in a DMZ network.

D. Disable wireless access on the thermostat to make it unshakable.

E. Upgrade the customer\’s router to the latest version to improve network security.

F. Upgrade the customer\’s wireless network encryption to WPA.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

A user receives the following error message when powering on a computer:

Hard drive cannot be found.

A technician restarts the computer, and it boots the OS normally. Several days later, the user reports another problem, but rebooting the computer does not resolve the issue. The technician replaces the motherboard, keeping the same CPU, battery, RAM, and hard drive. The user cannot authenticate at the login screen Which of the following would BEST explain the causes of the problem? (Select TWO)

A. POST error code beeps indicate RAM failure.

B. The system time is not set correctly in the BIOS

C. The voltage on the coin cell is drained completely

D. UEFI firmware has the Secure Boot setting enabled

E. Capacitors on the motherboard are distended

F. Incorrect settings are booting the wrong device

G. A BSOD error indicates the system is crashing

Correct Answer: CE


Question 5:

Ann, an accountant, reports that after turning on her new laptop, she received a message stating her IP address is already in use on the system. She tried going back to her old desktop, which she now only uses for email, but received the same message. The technician checks the account and sees a comment that Ann requires a special network setup to connect to the banking software. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the issue?

A. Remove the static IP configuration from the desktop.

B. Set the laptop configuration to DHCP to prevent conflicts.

C. Replace the network card in the laptop, as it may be defective.

D. Bridge the LAN connection between the laptop and the desktop.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

A customer wants to upgrade a PC\’s internal storage to have more room to store backups, photos, and videos. The new storage should be large enough to avoid expanding again next year.

Which of the following BEST meets these needs?

A. 3TB HDD

B. 50GB NAS

C. 500TB SAN

D. 512GB SSD

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which of the following is the main purpose of the 5VSB output of a power supply?

A. It allows peripherals to draw power when the machine is off

B. It provides power to the audio and sound boards of the machine

C. It acts as the main voltage supply to the motherboard and processor

D. It powers all expansion cards and external device hubs

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which of the following is used to connect a headset to a laptop?

A. eSATA

B. BNC

C. RG-6

D. USB

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which of the following wireless standards is only capable of 5GHz frequencies?

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11ac

C. 802.11b

D. 802.11g

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

A customer asks a technician to help set up a specialized computing system for video editing.

Which of the following should the technician install on the workstation to BEST meet the customer\’s specifications? (Choose two.)

A. SSD

B. Dual monitors

C. Gigabit NIC

D. Hypervisor

E. Docking station

F. NAS

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

A business owner wants to provide security to laptop users with the ability to charge their devices, access corporate LAN resources, and allow for a variety of their removable hardware.

Which of the following devices would BEST meet the owner\’s needs?

A. Docking station

B. Port replicator

C. Thunderbolt

D. USB hub

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A technician is dispatched to troubleshoot a slow performance issue on a PC. Upon arrival, the technician immediately opens Task Manager and sees that CPU and RAM performance are within normal ranges. The technician then checks and verifies the speed and duplex settings and performance on the network card. The technician then temporarily disables the antivirus to see if performance is affected, and it is not. After re-enabling the antivirus, which of the following is the NEXT best stop for the technician to take?

A. Check to see if insufficient hard drive space is causing the issue

B. Update the operating system, drivers, and firmware on the PC

C. Log into the PC with another user profile and test performance

D. Shut down the PC, unplug the power for 30 seconds, and then boot the PC

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A customer accidentally drops a laptop while it is charging. The next day, the customer notices the laptop will not turn on and calls a technician to investigate. The technician confirms the laptop will not turn on and calls a technician to investigate. The technician confirms the laptop will not turn on even though it is connected to the power adapter.

Which of the following components is the MOST likely cause of this behavior?

A. Power adapter

B. Battery

C. DC jack

D. Hard drive

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

An employee\’s mobile device no longer charges, and the employee believes the battery is bad. A technician tests the mobile device and finds it will charge on a wireless charging pad but not when it is connected to a charging cable. Other devices charge without issue when the cable is used. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST to resolve the issue?

A. Clean out the charging port on the device

B. Replace the mobile device\’s battery

C. Issue a new charging cable to the employee

D. Send the device for service and give the employee a loaner

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

An associate is seeking advice on which device to purchase for a friend who is a business owner. The friend needs the ability to chat activity while keeping in contact with the home office.

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation?

A. Smart watch

B. Fitness monitor

C. Global positioning sensor

D. Portable hotspot

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which three statements are true about performing Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations on a view In an Oracle Database?

A. Insert statements can always be done on a table through a view.

B. The WITH CHECK clause has no effect when deleting rows from the underlying table through the view.

C. Views cannot be used to query rows from an underlying table if the table has a PRIPOARY KEY and the PRIMARY KEY columns are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

D. Views cannot be used to add or modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains the DISTINCT keyword.

E. Views cannot be used to add on modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains aggregating functions.

F. Views cannot be used to add rows to an underlying table if the table has columns with NOT NULL constraints lacking default values Which are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

Correct Answer: DEF


Question 2:

Which four statements are true about constraints on Oracle tables?

A. A Column can have only one CHECK Constraint.

B. A NOT NULL Constraint can be defined at the table level.

C. A UNIQUE constraint permits NULLS.

D. A PRIMARY KEY Constraint can be added after a table has been created and populated.

E. A CHECK Constraint can refer to values in other rows.

F. A UNIQUE Constraint can use a pre-existing index on the constrained column or columns.

G. A FOREIGN KEY Column can contain NULLS.

Correct Answer: CDFG


Question 3:

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT NULLIF(100, 100) FROM DUAL

B. SELECT COALESCE(100, NULL, 200) FROM DUAL

C. SELECT NULLIF(100, \’A\’) FROM DUAL

D. SELECT NULLIF(NULL, 100) FROM DUAL

E. SELECT COALESCE(100, \’A\’ ) FROM DUAL

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

Which three are true about multiple INSERT statements?

A. They can be performed only by using a subquery.

B. They can be performed on relational tables.

C. They can be performed on views.

D. They can be performed on remote tables.

E. They can be performed on external tables using SQL*Loader.

F. They can insert each computed row into more than one table.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 5:

Which three statements are true about GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLES?

A. GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE rows inserted by a session are available to any other session whose user has been granted select on the table.

B. A TRUNCATE command issued in a session causes all rows In a GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE for the issuing session to be deleted.

C. A DELETE command on a GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE cannot be rolled back.

D. A GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE\’s definition is available to multiple sessions.

E. Any GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE rows existing at session termination will be deleted.

F. GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE space allocation occurs at session start.

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 6:

Which two statements are true about CURRENT_TIMEITAMP?

A. The date is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

B. The value varies depending on the setting of SESSIONTIMEZONE.

C. It returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE.

D. The time is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

E. It returns a value of data type TIMESTAMP

F. It always returns the same value as SYSTIMESTAMP

Correct Answer: DF


Question 7:

Which three are true about granting object privileges on tables, views, and sequences?

A. UPDATE can be granted only on tables and views.

B. DELETE can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

C. REFERENCES can be granted only on tables and views.

D. INSERT can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

E. SELECT can be granted only on tables and views.

F. ALTER can be granted only on tables and sequences.

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 8:

Examine the description of the PRODUCTS table Which contains data:

Which two are true?

A. The PROD ID column can be renamed.

B. The PROD_ ID column data type can be changed to VARCHAR2 (2).

C. The EXPIRY DATE column data type can be changed to TIME STAMP.

D. The EXPIRY DATE column cannot be dropped.

E. The PROD NAME column cannot have a DEFAULT clause added to it.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 9:

Which two are true about the WITH GRANT OPTION clause?

A. The grantee can grant the object privilege to any user in the database, with of without including this option.

B. The grantee must have the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE system privilege to use this option.

C. It can be used when granting privileges to roles.

D. It can be used for system and object privileges.

E. It cannot be used to pass on privileges to PUBLIC by the grantee.

F. It can be used to pass on privileges to other users by the grantee.

Correct Answer: AF


Question 10:

Which two statements are true about INTERVAL data types

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a range of years.

B. The value in an INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND column can be copied into an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column.

C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a single year.

D. The YEAR field in an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column must be a positive value.

E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND columns support fractions of seconds.

F. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns support yearly intervals.

Correct Answer: EF


Question 11:

Which three statements are true about a self join?

A. It must be an inner join.

B. It can be an outer join.

C. The ON clause must be used.

D. It must be an equation.

E. The query must use two different aliases for the table.

F. The ON clause can be used.

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 12:

Which two statements are true about Oracle synonyms?

A. A synonym can have a synonym.

B. A synonym has an object number.

C. Any user can create a public synonym.

D. All private synonym names must be unique in the database.

E. A synonym can be created on an object in a package.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

The CUSTOMERS table has a CUST_CREDT_LIMIT column of data type number.

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’)) FROM customers;

B. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

C. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

D. SLECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’Not available\’) from customers;

E. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit,TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’NOT Available\’) FROM customers;

Correct Answer: DE


Question 14:

Which statement is true about aggregate functions?

A. The AVG function implicitly converts NULLS to zero

B. The MAX and MIN functions can be used on columns with character data types

C. Aggregate functions can be used in any clause of a SELECT statement

D. Aggregate functions can be nested to any number of levels

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which three statements are true about defining relations between tables in a relational database?

A. Foreign key columns allow null values.

B. Unique key columns allow null values

C. Primary key columns allow null values.

D. Every primary or unique key value must refer to a matching foreign key value.

E. Every foreign key value must refer to a matching primary or unique key value.

Correct Answer: ABE


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Question 1:

A cloud architect is writing an implementation plan for deployment of a clustered vRealize Automation deployment that will use a third-party load balancer.

Which two steps should the architect include within the implementation plan to ensure a successful deployment of vRealize Automation? (Choose two.)

A. Disable all secondary nodes from the load balancer pools

B. Create and configure the monitoring of vRealize Automation and vRealize Orchestrator

C. Ensure all the SAN certificates for vRealize Suite are available

D. Enable all non-primary nodes on the load balancer

E. Turn off the health monitors or change them temporarily to default to ICMP and ensure traffic is still forwarding to the primary node

Correct Answer: BC


Question 2:

Which two statements are correct for VMware Cloud Services cloud proxy? (Choose two.)

A. It helps connect to public cloud entities.

B. It connects cloud services to on-premises networks.

C. An OVA deployment to an ESXi server is supported.

D. It requires a load balancer.

E. An OVA must be deployed on a vCenter Server.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 3:

What are the two valid characteristics of vRealize Automation Cloud? (Choose two.)

A. Supports on-premises vSphere and vRealize Orchestrator

B. Requires a standard license

C. Requires a load balancer

D. Supports on-premises vRealize Operations Manager

E. Has a frequent release cycle

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

An architect is designing a greenfield VMware vRealize Cloud Management solution. During the requirements gathering workshop with the customer, the future Service Owner made the following comment: The Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) for the Cloud Management solution is 1 hour.

When creating the design documentation, which design quality should be used to classify the requirements?

A. Manageability

B. Availability

C. Recoverability

D. Performance

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A design for a Cloud Management solution includes a section that describes the association of vRealize Operations solution with a remote collector for the purpose of gathering performance and usage metrics.

Which area of the design would contain that section?

A. Logical

B. Conceptual

C. Requirements

D. Physical

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

An architect has been asked about migrating a client\’s vRealize Automation solution from version 7.x to version 8.x. One of the requirements is to continue to support custom XaaS (Anything as a Service) blueprints that the client has developed.

Which component of a vRealize Automation logical design will fulfill this requirement?

A. Cloud Assembly

B. Cloud Zones

C. Service Broker

D. Cloud-Init

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

An architect is designing a vRealize Log Insight cluster for an organization. The organization has the following requirements:

No requirement for archival data Support a log data retention period of 14 days

How will the log data be handled in this vRealize Log Insight cluster after the 14-day retention period?

A. The user needs to manually select and delete specific old log messages to free up space.

B. Old log messages are automatically and periodically retired on least accessed basis.

C. Old log messages are automatically and periodically retired on a first-come-first-retired basis.

D. A variable sized chunk of old log messages is deleted to free up space based on the data age basis.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

As a Service Broker administrator, you have been asked to meet these requirements:

All released cloud templates must be imported to Service Broker.

Newly released cloud templates must be automatically synchronized with Service Broker.

All cloud templates must be automatically published to the service catalog.

Which two options must be configured to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Configure content sharing using Content Sources option

B. Create content source using VMware Cloud Templates option but do not configure content sharing

C. Create content source using CloudFormation Template option

D. Configure content sharing using All Content option

E. Create content source using VMware Cloud Templates option

Correct Answer: AE


Question 9:

The operations team is onboarding new interns in Active Directory. The interns need to work in the company\’s vRealize Operations environment while maintaining corporate security compliance. The intern Active Directory group should only have PowerUser role to a specific vCenter cluster and ReadOnly for all other objects.

Which option would meet the requirements?

A. Create new Active Directory accounts and import the intern user accounts. Create a new role for the interns and assign appropriate permissions on objects.

B. Add the interns to a new vRealize Operations Active Directory Group. Import the Active Directory group and grant access to relevant objects and all actions for the specific vCenter cluster.

C. Add the interns to the existing vRealize Operations administrators Active Directory group and grant access to relevant objects and all actions for the specific vCenter cluster.

D. Create a new Active Directory group for interns. Synchronize intern Group, create a new role for the interns and assign appropriate permissions on objects.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Consider the following requirements to be used in determining a vRealize Operations licensing model:

Authentication provided by Single Sign On Performance monitoring and analytics for 12 Hosts and 1 vCenter vSphere security and compliance monitoring for PCI and HIPAA Guided remediation for discovered issues Customizable dashboards, reports and views

Using the requirements, what is the minimum license that can be used for this deployment of vRealize Operations?

A. vRealize Cloud Universal Enterprise

B. Advanced

C. Standard

D. Enterprise

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

An organization wants to implement a network topology to provide users with a one-way upstream access to the external network.

Which two statements are true for implementing such a network profile type using NSX-T Data Center? (Choose two.)

A. The external network specified in the “Network Policies” tab will be used to assign an external IP to the VM

B. A DNAT rule is created o the Tier-1 router to allow the VM to communicate externally

C. The cloud template must use the “private” network profile type

D. The external network should be left blank in the “Network Policies” tab

E. An SNAT rule is created on the Tier-1 router to allow the VM to communicate externally

Correct Answer: AE


Question 12:

A customer wants to design and deploy Workspace ONE Access to provide multi-tenancy for vRA 8.x

deployment.

Which two designs decisions would achieve the customer\’s requirement? (Choose two.)

Note: SAN stands for Subject Alternative Name.

A. Configure a certificate with multiple SAN entries for Workspace ONE Access.

B. Configure SSL termination on the load balancer for Workspace ONE Access.

C. Configure SSL bridging on the load balancer for Workspace ONE Access.

D. Configure SSL passthrough on the load balancer for Workspace ONE Access.

E. Configure a certificate with a single SAN entry for Workspace ONE Access.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 13:

Which recommendation should an architect make when designing a highly available vRealize Operation (vROps) cluster?

A. Deploy analytics nodes with the same disk size on storage of the same type.

B. Depending on the size and performance requirements for analytics nodes, apply Storage DRS Affinity rules to ensure that nodes are on same datastores.

C. If the sizing guideline provides several configurations for the same number of objects, use the configuration which has the greatest number of nodes.

D. Set Storage DRS to Fully Automated for all vRealize Operations Manager analytics nodes.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

When designing a load-balanced vRealize Operations cluster, which three aspects should an architect consider? (Choose three.)

A. Maximizing node participation in the handling of UI sessions and traffic

B. Providing high availability if any admin or data node fails

C. Reducing the number of certificates that must be managed for the nodes

D. Minimizing node latency in the handling of UI sessions and traffic

E. Simplifying the configuration of End Point Operations (EPOps) agents

F. Providing fault tolerance if any admin or data node fails

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 15:

What level of design will contain an automation platform, an operational monitoring platform, and a desktop platform?

A. Physical Design

B. Conceptual Design

C. Detailed Design

D. Logical Design

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

A backup administrator has configured Dell EMC NetWorker and Data Domain Cloud Tier devices in NMC. What is the correct process flow of the backup data and control path?

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

An EMC NetWorker backup job has failed 95% of the way through its operation.

Which functionality is provided by the checkpoint restart feature?

A. The backup can continue from the last known good point

B. The backup can always continue exactly where it left off

C. The backup can be merged with data from the last server checkpoint

D. The backup must be restarted from the beginning

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which EMC NetWorker feature allows for a failed backup to restart at a known good point prior to the backup failure?

A. CheckPoint Restart

B. Client Retries

C. Scheduled Backup Attempts

D. Restart Window

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

An administrator in an EMC NetWorker environment wants to know the exact backup creation date and time along with the backup level.

Which EMC NetWorker functionality should be used to find this information?

A. Tracking and reporting

B. Aging

C. NMC Monitoring

D. Daemon log

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A storage administrator backs up an Exchange server to an EMC Data Domain system. The Data Domain system is configured as an advanced file device. The administrator now wants to create a copy of the backup and send it to tape. The backup job completed at 8pm. The administrator wants the copy to be created at 9pm.

Which option should be used?

A. Use the Scheduled Cloning attribute to schedule a clone job to start at 9pm.

B. Run the nsrclone command at 8pm and the second copy will be directed to tape at 9pm.

C. Enable the “clones” attribute in the client\’s group setting.

D. From the Administration window, under Media select Save Sets and then the Query Save Set tab. Create clone copies of the backup at 8pm.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

The calendar shows the level backup that was taken on each day. Which data is sent to the backup server on Friday\’s backup?

A. All changes since Tuesday

B. All changes since Monday

C. All changes since Wednesday

D. All changes since Thursday

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An EMC NetWorker backup environment consists of a large database server to be backed up. Backups are performed nightly.

Which schedule would you use starting on Sunday to minimize the number of save sets required for recovery on Friday morning?

A. B. C. D.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What EMC NetWorker software component controls the backup device in an EMC NetWorker Data Zone?

A. Storage Node

B. Client

C. Server

D. EMC NetWorker Management Console

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

A customer has recently purchased a Data Domain appliance to use with EMC NetWorker as the primary storage. The backup administrator needs to configure EMC NetWorker so that multiple backups and recoveries can be performed from a single device at any given time.

What type of device should the backup administrator configure?

A. AFTD

B. LTO

C. FTD

D. NFS

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which protocol is used when performing an EMC NetWorker backup to a cloud device?

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. OST

D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which type of device is referred to as a BOOST device?

A. Data Domain

B. File Type

C. Advance File Type

D. Cloud

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which backup level requires the fewest number of volumes to restore?

A. Full

B. Level 5

C. Level 1

D. Incremental

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

How can an EMC NetWorker administrator achieve a recovery of an EMC NetWorker resource database?

A. Perform a browsable recovery of the /nsr/index directory

B. Rebuild the database with nsrck command

C. Recover the SYSTEM save set

D. Recover the bootstrap save set with mmrecov

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

What is a characteristic of how the EMC NetWorker modules integrate with native applications?

A. EMC NetWorker module acts as an intermediate layer between EMC NetWorker and the native application.

B. The application vendor provides EMC NetWorker module to allow data protection with EMC NetWorker.

C. EMC NetWorker module runs on EMC NetWorker server and acts as an intermediate layer for backup data from EMC NetWorker client.

D. EMC NetWorker module runs on EMC NetWorker storage node and acts as an intermediate layer for backup data from EMC NetWorker client.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What components are included with EMC NetWorker Module for Microsoft Applications?

A. PowerSnap and Replication Manager

B. PowerSnap and Microsoft VSS

C. Microsoft VSS and Replication Manager

D. PowerSnap and EMC Solutions Enabler

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

If you receive a RST packet while doing an ACK scan, it indicates that the port is open.(True/False).

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

When and ACK is sent to an open port, a RST is returned.


Question 2:

Theresa is an IT security analyst working for the United Kingdom Internet Crimes Bureau in London. Theresa has been assigned to the software piracy division which focuses on taking down individual and organized groups that distribute copyrighted software illegally. Theresa and her division have been responsible for taking down over 2,000 FTP sites hosting copyrighted software. Theresa\’s supervisor now wants her to focus on finding and taking down websites that host illegal pirated software. What are these sights called that Theresa has been tasked with taking down?

A. These sites that host illegal copyrighted software are called Warez sites

B. These sites that Theresa has been tasked to take down are called uTorrent sites

C. These websites are referred to as Dark Web sites

D. Websites that host illegal pirated versions of software are called Back Door sites

Correct Answer: A

The Warez scene, often referred to as The Scene (often capitalized) is a term of self-reference used by a community that specializes in the underground distribution of pirated content, typically software but increasingly including movies and music.


Question 3:

Justine is the systems administrator for her company, an international shipping company with offices all over the world. Recent US regulations have forced the company to implement stronger and more secure means of communication. Justine and other administrators have been put in charge of securing the company\’s digital communication lines. After implementing email encryption, Justine now needs to implement robust digital signatures to ensure data authenticity and reliability. Justine has decided to implement digital signatures which are a variant of DSA and that operate on elliptical curve groups. These signatures are more efficient than DSA and are not vulnerable to a number field sieve attacks.

What type of signature has Justine decided to implement?

A. She has decided to implement ElGamal signatures since they offer more reliability than the typical DSA signatures

B. Justine has decided to use ECDSA signatures since they are more efficient than DSA signatures

C. Justine is now utilizing SHA-1 with RSA signatures to help ensure data reliability

D. These types of signatures that Justine has decided to use are called RSA-PSS signatures

Correct Answer: B

The Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm (ECDSA) is a variant of the Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA) which uses Elliptic curve cryptography. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elliptic_Curve_DSA


Question 4:

James is an IT security consultant as well as a certified ethical hacker. James has been asked to audit the network security of Yerta Manufacturing, a tool manufacturing company in Phoenix. James performs some initial external tests and then begins testing the security from inside the company\’s network.

James finds some big problems right away; a number of users that are working on Windows XP computers have saved their usernames and passwords used to connect to servers on the network. This way, those users do not have to type in their credentials every time they want access to a server. James tells the IT manager of Yerta Manufacturing about this, and the manager does not believe this is possible on Windows XP. To prove his point, James has a user logon to a computer and then James types in a command that brings up a window that says “Stored User Names and Passwords”.

What command did James type in to get this window to come up?

A. To bring up this stored user names and passwords window, James typed in “rundll32.exe storedpwd.dll, ShowWindow”

B. James had to type in “rundll32.exe keymgr.dll, KRShowKeyMgr” to get the window to pop up

C. James typed in the command “rundll32.exe storedpwd.dll” to get the Stored User Names and Passwords window to come up

D. The command to bring up this window is “KRShowKeyMgr”

Correct Answer: B

The Stored User Names and Passwords applet lets you assign user names and passwords to use when needing to authenticate yourself to services in domains other than the one you are currently logged into. The normal way of running this applet can be difficult to find quickly, so here is a way to launch it using a desktop shortcut using the rundll32.exe program:

Click on START – RUN and type the following (follwed by ENTER): rundll32.exe keymgr.dll,KRShowKeyMgr

http://www.tweakxp.com/article37352.aspx


Question 5:

Darren is the network administrator for Greyson and Associates, a large law firm in Houston. Darren is responsible for all network functions as well as any digital forensics work that is needed. Darren is examining the firewall logs one morning and notices some unusual activity. He traces the activity target to one of the firm\’s internal file servers and finds that many documents on that server were destroyed. After performing some calculations, Darren finds the damage to be around $75,000 worth of lost data. Darren decides that this incident should be handled and resolved within the same day of its discovery.

What incident level would this situation be classified as?

A. This situation would be classified as a mid-level incident

B. Since there was over $50,000 worth of loss, this would be considered a high-level incident

C. Because Darren has determined that this issue needs to be addressed in the same day it was discovered, this would be considered a low-level incident

D. This specific incident would be labeled as an immediate-level incident

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Jason works in the sales and marketing department for a very large advertising agency located in Atlanta. Jason is working on a very important marketing campaign for his company\’s largest client. Before the project could be completed and implemented, a competing advertising company comes out with the exact same marketing materials and advertising, thus rendering all the work done for Jason\’s client unusable. Jason is questioned about this and says he has no idea how all the material ended up in the hands of a competitor.

Without any proof, Jason\’s company cannot do anything except move on. After working on another high profile client for about a month, all the marketing and sales material again ends up in the hands of another competitor and is released to the public before Jason\’s company can finish the project. Once again, Jason says that he had nothing to do with it and does not know how this could have happened. Jason is given leave with pay until they can figure out what is going on.

Jason\’s supervisor decides to go through his email and finds a number of emails that were sent to the competitors that ended up with the marketing material. The only items in the emails were attached jpg files, but nothing else. Jason\’s supervisor opens the picture files, but cannot find anything out of the ordinary with them.

What technique has Jason most likely used?

A. Stealth Rootkit Technique

B. Snow Hiding Technique

C. ADS Streams Technique

D. Image Steganography Technique

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Curt has successfully compromised a web server sitting behind a firewall using a vulnerability in the web server program. He would now like to install a backdoor program but knows that all ports are not open inbound on the firewall. Which port in the list below will most likely be open and allowed to reach the server that Curt has just compromised? (Select the Best Answer)

A. 53

B. 25

C. 110

D. 69

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which of the following countermeasure can specifically protect against both the MAC Flood and MAC Spoofing attacks?

A. Configure Port Security on the switch

B. Configure Port Recon on the switch

C. Configure Switch Mapping

D. Configure Multiple Recognition on the switch

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What type of session hijacking attack is shown in the exhibit?

A. Cross-site scripting Attack

B. SQL Injection Attack

C. Token sniffing Attack

D. Session Fixation Attack

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Peter extracts the SID list from Windows 2008 Server machine using the hacking tool “SIDExtracter”. Here is the output of the SIDs:

From the above list identify the user account with System Administrator privileges?

A. John

B. Rebecca

C. Sheela

D. Shawn

E. Somia

F. Chang

G. Micah

Correct Answer: F


Question 11:

This attack uses social engineering techniques to trick users into accessing a fake Web site and divulging personal information. Attackers send a legitimate- looking e-mail asking users to update their information on the company\’s Web site, but the URLs in the e-mail actually point to a false Web site.

A. Wiresharp attack

B. Switch and bait attack

C. Phishing attack

D. Man-in-the-Middle attack

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What is the correct command to run Netcat on a server using port 56 that spawns command shell when connected?

A. nc -port 56 -s cmd.exe

B. nc -p 56 -p -e shell.exe

C. nc -r 56 -c cmd.exe

D. nc -L 56 -t -e cmd.exe

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

In which part of OSI layer, ARP Poisoning occurs?

A. Transport Layer

B. Datalink Layer

C. Physical Layer

D. Application layer

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

You want to hide a secret.txt document inside c:\windows\system32\tcpip.dll kernel library using ADS streams. How will you accomplish this?

A. copy secret.txt c:\windows\system32\tcpip.dll kernel>secret.txt

B. copy secret.txt c:\windows\system32\tcpip.dll:secret.txt

C. copy secret.txt c:\windows\system32\tcpip.dll |secret.txt

D. copy secret.txt >< c:\windows\system32\tcpip.dll kernel secret.txt

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

XSS attacks occur on Web pages that do not perform appropriate bounds checking on data entered by users. Characters like that mark the beginning/end of a tag should be converted into HTML entities.

What is the correct code when converted to html entities?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Huawei product technology training is designed based on the entire life cycle of the service, so all product line courses have corresponding plans,

A. True eeN#

B. False >

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which kind of scene is not to be provided by T? ()

A. original labor platform is about to pass insurance / B over insurance, it seems to purchase Huawei\’s virtual platform

B. New 11; After the battle, it seems to purchase Huawei\’s virtual platform

C. original It platform space can no longer be expanded again, through the purchase of Huawei\’s optimistic platform for more room for privacy

D. original IT platform performance B can not meet the needs of it, buy Huawei virtual m platform to soar performance

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

IP network project service expansion when to introduce service sales is most appropriate

A. customer\’s pre-project M {IM file)

B. customer is in the middle

C. After the client has established the project

D. customer after bidding

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

The status quo of traditional special IT subcontracting (multiple choices)

A. Each subcontractor draws up with each other ()

B. subcontractors are separated from each other ()

C. customer Lei wants more communication |

D. tube buried simple

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 5:

Huawei Enterprise Network China Data Center L1 Integration Service Project Contract Level U

A. is integrated (positive case)

B. BMf$, ^

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

The highest level of Huawei\’s itiA certificate system is Huawei certification Interne.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Huawei let migration solution: scheme is mainly divided into three kinds of fields, _ one is wrong? >

A. P2V also

B. other factories _ migration between umbrellas Positive case>

C. V2V \’

D. Huawei cloud platform internal migration

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

The L1 integration project of the teaching center is: the guilt that the R feedback should contain is (multiple choice)

A. client\’s capital budget and time requirements ()

B. Day of the customer show, the situation of the S, the progress of the channel platform

C. main competition opponents dynamic

D. current project operation phase ()

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 9:

Cloud IDC project government investment style (multiple choice)

A. financial allocation chess

B. BT chess style file>

C. public *

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

Huawei\’s acquisition and certification system is based on years of experience in information and communication technology, and the development of the development of the ii. The tomb of the ICT households allows the individual to take the development cycle of the chain, with the hierarchical job-oriented technical certification as a guide. , Huawei\’s “cloud one end of one” erosion technology, the introduction of IP, IT, CT and ICT shafting technology certification system; is the only ICT full technical field certification system.

A. true

B. False>

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Huawei takes the ii certificationT o represent, the following is correct in the “CAhT” CT English mother is: (]

A. Certificate (recognition 5E)

B. Convergence

C. Cover (coverage)

D. Complete

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Data Center L1 Level 11; : 4S Stage Target ( > (multiple choice)

A. 1 from the existing contract interface and output service <positive)

B. sub-packaged Yan Guanyu and Tips (in the case of the case)

C. is good for steep resources and bad {correct case>

D. to make a reasonable S-effect construction plan | >

E. do a good job before the completion of technical delivery and training (positive _ murder case)

Correct Answer: ABCDE


Question 13:

The total integration mode can be completed by one bidding

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

The IP network planning and design service includes a simulation and simulation of the customer\’s

A. error

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

The PUE value is the ratio of the overall power consumption of the equipment room to < ).

A. A air conditioning consumption

B. UPS hole

C. IT set up power consumption positive>case

D. lighting power consumption

Correct Answer: C


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